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ALM-1-and-2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. ALL are considered anticoagulant for sample tubes for routine testing except

a)

Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid

b)

Sodium heparin

c)

Sodium citrate

d)

Acid citrate dextrose

2.

2. ALL is/are considered capabilities of the Laboratory Information system except

a)

Linkage of all the areas of the Laboratory and its machines

b)

Full automation for the whole analytical process

c)

NONE

d)

Patient identification during phlebotomy process

3.

3. Hallmarks of good venipuncture procedure include/s

a)

Palpate the vein of choice after applying 70% ROH

b)

Put tourniquet on the patient about, 3-4' above the venipuncture site

c)

ALL

d)

Use thumb to draw skin loose

4.

4. The most critical step in the pre-analytical process is

a)

Proper labeling of specimen

b)

Proper patient identification

c)

Proper order of draw during the phlebotomy process

d)

NONE

5.

5. This defines Phlebotomy except:

a)

Process wherein samples are extracted via venipuncture

b)

NONE

c)

Initial process of hte Pre-analytical phase

d)

Process of blood collection from the patient

6.

6. This is a/an reason for specimen rejection except

a)

NONE

b)

Wrong specimen identifier

c)

Incompletely fast serum for serum chemistry

d)

Chylous and lipemic serum

7.

7. This is/are included as a Pre-analytic error except

a)

Incomplete laboratory request forms

b)

Wrong patient identification

c)

NONE

d)

Delayed specimen transport

8.

8. This is/are true regarding the Order-of-draw during the phlebotomy process

a)

Only applicable for vacuum tube system

b)

Sterile tubes for culture and sensitivity comes after plain tubes

c)

Clot activated tubes must be used first before Anticoagulated tubes

d)

NONE

9.

9. This process is included within the Preanalytic process except

a)

Patient and specimen identification

b)

Specimen collection

c)

NONE

d)

Specimen transport

10.

10. Venipuncture procedure/s that is/are allowed to be done by a Laboratory phlebotomist

a)

IV-insertion

b)

Arterial sampling

c)

Fingerstick sampling

d)

NONE

11.

11. A gel like polysaccharide extracted from red algae.

a)

broth

b)

both

c)

agar

d)

neither

12.

12. Bacterial culture media come in solid and liquid form.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

13. Culture media are subjected to autoclave for

a)

both

b)

neither

c)

proper dissolution of agar in deionized water

d)

sterilization

14.

14. Culture media provides the following for bacterial growth. EXCEPT

a)

food

b)

energy

c)

nutrients

d)

suitable environment

e)

none

15.

15. For the accurate measurement of powdered agar, the weight of the container is excluded by pressing the ____ function on the analytical balance

a)

balance

b)

zero

c)

tare

d)

return

16.

16. What color are gram negative bacteria after the decolorizing step in the Gram stain method?

a)

purple

b)

red

c)

purple red

d)

colorless

17.

17. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing is done to

a)

assess the efficacy of different antimicrobial agents in treating microbial infections

b)

identify the causative bacteria in infected patients

c)

both

d)

neither

18.

18. Bacteria susceptible to impregnated antibiotics will demonstrate what?

a)

Blackening of agar

b)

None

c)

Color formation

d)

Zone of inhibition

19.

19. Media subjected for culture are labeled on top of the plate

a)

True

b)

Flase

20.

20. What is the purpose of lugol iodine in Gram staining?

a)

secondary stain

b)

mordant

c)

primary stain

d)

decolorizer

21.

21. A type of test which evaluates for the presence of the target analyte and is expressed as an estimate of how much of that substance or analyte is present in the sample

a)

none of the choices

b)

semi-quantitative

c)

qualitative

d)

quantitative

22.

22. A type of test which gives the presence or absence of the target analyte

a)

quantitative

b)

semi-quantitative

c)

none of the choices

d)

qualitative

23.

23. A type of test which measures the actual amount or concentration of a target analyte

a)

quantitative

b)

semi-quantitative

c)

none of the choices

d)

qualitative

24.

24. Lower than normal potassium level is termed as

a)

hyperplasia

b)

hypochloridemia

c)

hypokalemia

d)

hyponatremia

25.

25. Method to measure how much chemical substance absorbs light by measuring the intensity of light as a beam of light passes through sample solution

a)

colorimetry

b)

spectrophotometry

c)

centrifugation

d)

immunochemistry

26.

26. Reference method for glucose determination

a)

hexokinase method

b)

both hexokinase and G6PD

c)

G6PD method

d)

Jaffe reaction

27.

27. Rise of serum sodium concentration exceeding the normal value is termed as

a)

hyperplasia

b)

hyperchloridemia

c)

hypernatremia

d)

hyperkalemia

28.

28. Routine chemistry test. EXCEPT

a)

BUN

b)

OGTT

c)

Electrolytes

d)

Creatinine

29.

29. Serum is the only sample accepted and/or processed in clinical chemistry.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

30. This technique is used to determine the concentration of colored compounds in solutions by the application of Beer-Lambert's Law

a)

colorimetry

b)

spectrophotometry

c)

centrifugation

d)

immunochemistry

31.

31. A type of cast indicative of glumerulonephritis

a)

Hyaline Cast

b)

RBC Cast

c)

WBC Cast

d)

Waxy Cast

32.

32. Black and tarrt stool is usually caused by

a)

Bleeding from the lower GI Tract

b)

Bleeding from the upper GI Tract

c)

Biliary obstruction

d)

Malabsorption

33.

33. Confirmatory test for erythrocyte, leukocyte, and identification in urine

a)

physical examination

b)

microscopic examination

c)

chemical examination

d)

none of the choices

34.

34. Detection of this/these element/s is reported in high power field

a)

urine crystals

b)

bacteria

c)

all of the choices

d)

red blood cells

35.

35. Glucose test pad can detect and measure other sugars like lactose, galactose, and fructose

a)

False

b)

True

36.

36. Tube 2 containing CSF sample is for waht type of testing

a)

none of the choices

b)

microbiology

c)

biochemistry

d)

cell counting

37.

37. Turbid urine may indicate what condition's?

a)

all of the choices

b)

presence of bacteria

c)

presence of RBCs

d)

UTI

38.

38. Type of bilirubin detected and measure for routine urinalysis

a)

none of the choices

b)

unconjugated bilirubin

c)

direct bilirubin

d)

indirect bilirubin

39.

39. Urine containing this analyte will yield a false negative result when exposed to light

a)

Potassium

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Sodium

d)

Chloride

40.

40. WBC can be seen in normal stool sample

a)

False

b)

True

41.

41. A 5ml of blood is the maximum volume of blood that can be placed for an 80ml Redox 1 or Redox 2 bottle

a)

False

b)

True

42.

41. A 5ml of blood is the maximum volume of blood that can be placed for an 80ml Redox 1 or Redox 2 bottle42. All Mycobacterium consumes gas

a)

True

b)

False

43.

43. Erroneous insertion bottles are bottles entered into the instrument without being identified

a)

True

b)

False

44.

44. I can load patient sample with the same accession number and the same bottle type into the instrument

a)

True

b)

False

45.

45. The Magnetic stir bar is the constant vortexing that enhances organisms growth for faster time to detection

a)

True

b)

False

46.

46. Coagulase positive result

a)

No clot formed

b)

Clot formation

c)

Effervescence

d)

Color formation

47.

47. Culture medium are incubated in 35-37oC temperature

a)

True

b)

False

48.

48. Decolorizer used for AFB staining

a)

methylene blue

b)

acid alcohol

c)

carbol fuchsin

d)

malachite green

49.

49. If the bacterial suspension is more turbid than the standard, what should be done?

a)

not significant

b)

add more saline

c)

add alcohol

d)

add more bacteria

50.

50. What is the role of safranin in Gram staining

a)

counter stain

b)

mordant

c)

primary stain

d)

decolorizer

51.

51. AML FAB Classification M0

a)

Minimally differentiated

b)

Without maturation

c)

Hypogranular promyelocytic

d)

With maturation

52.

52. Fixative used for peripheral blood smear staining

a)

acid alcohol

b)

formaline

c)

none of the choices

d)

methanol

53.

53. Granulocytes. EXCEPT

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Eosinophil

54.

54. Ideally, peripheral blood smear should appear as

a)

none of the choices

b)

tongue shaped

c)

pointed end

d)

jagged end

55.

55. Microhematocrit reading should start above the buffy coat

a)

True

b)

False

56.

56. Prolong PT measures the integrity of what pathway

a)

Extrinsic

b)

Common

c)

Extrinsic and Common

d)

Intrinsic

57.

57. Prolong PTT measures the integrity of what pathway

a)

Extrinsic

b)

Common

c)

Intrinsic and Common

d)

Intrinsic

58.

58. Type of smear routinely used in hematology

a)

thin blood smear

b)

thick blood smear

59.

59. Values outside or beyond the reference or normal range to a degree that may constitute and immediate health risk to the patient.

a)

none of the choices

b)

panic values

c)

STAT

d)

TAT

60.

60. What does AML stands for

a)

Acute Myeloid Lymphoma

b)

Acute Marrow Leukemia

c)

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

d)

Abnormal Myeloid Leukemia

61.

61. A 5 ml of blood is the maximum volume of blood that can be placed for an 80 mL Redox 1 or Redox 2 bottle.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

62. All Mycobacterium consumes gas

a)

True

b)

False

63.

63. Erroneous insertion bottles are bottles entered into the instrument without being identified.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

64. I can load patient sample with the same accession number and the same bottle type into the instrument.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

65. The Magnetic stir bar is for the constant vortexing that enhances organisms growth for faster time to detection.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

66. Versatrek cannot measure the production/consumption of other gases except for O₂ and C0₂.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

67. VersaTrek has a separate bottle for myco detection and MTB susceptibility testing.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

68. VersaTrek microbial detection sensor is found in the bottle.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

69. ALL are considered anticoagulant for sample tubes for routine testing except

a)

Acid Citrate Dextrose

b)

Sodium Heparin

c)

Sodium Citrate

d)

Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid

70.

70. All is/are considered capabilities of the Laboratory Information System except

a)

Linkage of all the areas of the Laboratory and its machines

b)

Full automation for the whole analytical process

c)

NONE

d)

Patient identification during phlebotomy process

71.

71. Hallmarks of good venipuncture procedure include/s:

a)

Use thumb to draw skin loose

b)

Put tourniquet on the patient about. 3-4' above the venipuncture site

c)

Palpate the vein of choice after applying 70% ROH

d)

ALL

72.

72. The most critical step in the pre-analytical process is

a)

Proper labeling of specimen

b)

Proper Patient Identification

c)

NONE

d)

Proper Order of draw during the phlebotomy process

73.

73. This defines Phlebotomy except:

a)

Process of blood collection from the patient.

b)

Process wherein samples are extracted via venipuncture.

c)

Initial process of the Pre-Analytical phase

d)

NONE

74.

74. This is a/an reason for specimen rejection except

a)

Incompletely fast Serum for Serum Chemistry

b)

NONE

c)

Chylous and Lipemic Serum

d)

Wrong Specimen identifier

75.

75. This is/are included as a Pre-Analytic error except

a)

Incompletely fast Serum for Serum Chemistry

b)

NONE

c)

Chylous and Lipemic Serum

d)

Delayed specimen transport

76.

76. This is/are true regarding the Order-ofdraw during the phlebotomy process

a)

Only applicable for vacuum tube system

b)

Clot activated tubes must be used first before Anticoagulated tubes

c)

NONE

d)

Sterile tubes for culture and sensitivity comes after plain tubes

77.

77. This process is included within the PreAnalytic process Except

a)

Specimen transport

b)

Specimen collection

c)

NONE

d)

Patient and specimen identification

78.

78. Venipunture procedure/s that is/are allowed to be done by a Laboratory phlebotomist

a)

IV-insertion

b)

Fingerstick sampling

c)

Arterial Sampling

d)

NONE

79.

79. A protein on the surface of hepatitis B virus

a)

HBsAb

b)

HBeAg

c)

HBcAg

d)

HBsAg

80.

80. Dengue Duo detects for the presence of

a)

Antigen

b)

both

c)

Antibody

d)

none of the choices

81.

81. Dengue is a blood-borne virus

a)

False

b)

True

82.

82. Dengue is primarily caused by what genus and species

a)

Triatoma species

b)

none of the choices

c)

Aedes aegypti

d)

Dolichus biflorus

83.

83. Dengue NS1 detects for the presence of

a)

Antigen

b)

both

c)

Antibody

d)

none of the choices

84.

84. Dengue virus is transmitted by male mosquitoes.

a)

False

b)

True

85.

85. How is HBV transmitted? EXCEPT

a)

Faecal-Oral Route

b)

Parenteral drug administration

c)

Sexual contact

d)

Perinatal

86.

86. How many Dengue serotypes are there?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

3

d)

2

87.

87. Marker for acute hepatitis infection. EXCEPT

a)

HBsAg

b)

HBc IgG

c)

HBV DNA

d)

HBc IgM

88.

88. Sample type commonly used for tumor markers

a)

RBC

b)

Whole blood

c)

Serum

d)

Plasma

89.

89. Duration of tourniquet application during extraction?

a)

1 minute

b)

2 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

30 seconds

90.

90. What anticoagulant is used for coagulation testing?

a)

Lithium heparin

b)

EDTA

c)

Plain tube

d)

Sodium citrate

91.

91. What is the first step before performing blood extraction?

a)

Patient identification

b)

Blood collection

c)

Labelling of specimen

92.

92. What is the needle angle when performing phlebotomy?

a)

35

b)

90

c)

45

93.

93. What is the standard needle gauge for blood extraction?

a)

25g

b)

21g

c)

23g

d)

18g

94.

94. What is the vein of choice for phlebotomy?

a)

Median vein

b)

Artery

c)

Cephalic vein

d)

Basilic vein

95.

95. Excess specimen should be discarded immediately after processing

a)

False

b)

True

96.

96. Fixative of choice for routine histology

a)

Zenker's fixative

b)

formal saline

c)

none of the choices

d)

zinc formalin

97.

97. Histology sample received without label or with incomplete label is accepted for evaluation

a)

False

b)

True

98.

98. It is acceptable to receive specimen even without the request form as long as the specimen container is labelled completely

a)

False

b)

True

99.

99. Unfixed specimen should be discarded immediately and is subjected for recollection

a)

True

b)

False

100.

100. What should be done to concentrate the cells in fluid samples such as urine?

a)

Centrifugation

b)

None of the choices

c)

Agitation

d)

Heating