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Positioning Semester 4

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is not part of the axial skeleton?

a)

Rib

b)

Vertebral column

c)

Mandible

d)

Clavicle

2.

Which is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Coxal bones

b)

Parietal bones

c)

Radius

d)

Clavicle

3.

The axial skeleton consists of _____ bones.

a)

60

b)

68

c)

74

d)

80

4.

The appendicular skeleton consists of _____ bones.

a)

102

b)

118

c)

126

d)

137

5.

The term sinus as it relates to the bone markings, can be defined as a:

a)

Raised area or projection

b)

Cavity within a bonne

c)

Tubelike opening or channel

d)

Groove or elongated depression

6.

Which skull bone articulates with the first vertebra?

a)

Temporal

b)

Occipital

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Ethmoid

7.

A fontanel can be best described as a(n):

a)

Bone inn the skull

b)

Unossified areaa in the infant’s skull

c)

Articulation between two skull bones

d)

Small opening

8.

The upper part of the sternum is called the

a)

Costal cartilage

b)

Xiphoid process

c)

Body

d)

Manubrium

9.

The adult skeleton is composed of _____ bones

a)

206

b)

126

c)

80

d)

260

10.

The number of true pairs of ribs in the body is:

a)

7

b)

12

c)

5

d)

3

11.

The blunt cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum is called the;

a)

Body

b)

Xiphoid process

c)

Manubrium

d)

Costal cartlilage

12.

The two bones that make up the bulging topside of the cranium are the:

a)

Occipital bones

b)

Frontal bones

c)

Parietal bones

d)

Temporal bones

13.

The layman’s name for the clavicle is the;

a)

Collarbone

b)

Kneecap

c)

Shinbone

d)

Elbow

14.

The trochlea and capítulos can be described as:

a)

Markings on the scapula

b)

Parts of the proximal end of the ulna

c)

Distal portions of the humerus

d)

Metacarpal bones

15.

The ulna articulates proximal y with the:

a)

Carpal bones

b)

Humerus

c)

Scapula

d)

None of the above is correct

16.

The pisiform bone can be found in the

a)

Wrist

b)

Ankle

c)

Neck

d)

Skull

17.

The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the:

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Coxal

d)

Femur

18.

Physiology

a)

Recognizes the unchanging (as opposed to the dynamic) nature of things

b)

Investigates the body’s structure

c)

Is concerned with organisms and does not deal with different levels of organization such as cells and systems

d)

Is the science that examines the function of living organisms and their parts

19.

The reproductive system includes all of the following except the:

a)

Testes

b)

Ovaries

c)

Ureter

d)

Penis

20.

The mediastinum contains all of the following except the:

a)

Trachea

b)

Vente cavae

c)

Right lung

d)

Esophagus

21.

The number of abdominal regions is:

a)

Three

b)

Five

c)

Seven

d)

Nine

22.

A plane through the body that divides the body into right and left sides is called:

a)

Sagital

b)

Coronal

c)

Frontal

d)

Transverse

23.

The axial portion of the body consists of the:

a)

Arms, neck and legs

b)

Neck, torso and arms

c)

Torso, arms, legs and head

d)

Head, neck and torso

24.

Axila is a term referring to which body region?

a)

Anterior elbow

b)

Armpit

c)

Posterior knee

d)

Groin

25.

Which of the following does not describe anatomical position?

a)

Head pointing forward

b)

Body standing erect

c)

Arms extended from the shoulders, palm up

d)

All of the above describes the body in the anatomical position

26.

If your reference point is “farthest from the trunk of the body” versus “nearest to the trunk of the body” where does the knee lie in relation to the ankle?

a)

Distal

b)

Proximal

c)

Superficial

d)

Superior

27.

Another term for posterior is

a)

Ventral

b)

Dorsal

c)

Inferior

d)

Proximal

28.

The serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic walls is called the

a)

Peritoneum

b)

Mesetry

c)

Omentum

d)

Peritoneal cavity

29.

What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal image obtained with the patient in the supine position?

a)

Inspiration

b)

Expiration

c)

Suspended respiration

d)

Slow, deep breathing

30.

One of the primary reasons a left lateral decubitus abdominal image is performed is to demonstrate:

a)

Foreign bodies

b)

The location of tumor masses

c)

Intestinal gas

d)

Air-fluid levels

31.

An important safety rule for pediatric radiography is to:

a)

Never leave the patient unattended

b)

Speak directly to the child using age-appropriate language

c)

Maintain adequate lighting in the exam room

d)

Always immobilize the patient to avoid repeats

32.

What is the most common location for an aspired foreign body?

a)

Stomach

b)

Esophagus

c)

Right side of bronchial tree

d)

Left side of bronchial tree

33.

T9 and T10 are located at the level of the:

a)

Sternal angle

b)

Xiphoid process

c)

Jugular notch

d)

Vertebra prominens

34.

After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones. Each end is called the:

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Epiphyseal line

d)

Epiphyseal plate

35.

A rounded process at an articular extremity is called a:

a)

Condyle

b)

Malleolus

c)

Tubercle

d)

Styloid

36.

A hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerves is called a:

a)

Groove

b)

Foramen

c)

Fissure

d)

Facet

37.

A term that means the same as anterior is:

a)

Plantar

b)

Distal

c)

Dorsal

d)

Ventral

38.

The term used to describe the sole of the foot is:

a)

Ventral

b)

Posterior

c)

Plantar

d)

Dorsal

39.

Which of the following terms are used to describe x-ray “projections”?

a)

1. AP

b)

2. PA Axial

c)

3. Supine

d)

1 and 2

40.

Which of the following terms are used to describe “body positions”?

a)

1. Upright

b)

2. Axial

c)

3. Prone

d)

1 and 3

41.

Which of the following is an x-ray “position”?

a)

Medioateral

b)

Craniocaudal

c)

Orbitoparietal

d)

Trendelenburg’s

42.

Which of the following is an x-ray “projection”?

a)

Tangential

b)

Lordotic

c)

Right anterior oblique (RAO)

d)

Right lateral decubitus

43.

If the central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits the posterior body surface, the x-ray projection is termed:

a)

PA

b)

AP

c)

Lateral

d)

Axiolateral

44.

When there is longitudinal angulation of the central ray with the long axis of the body, the projection will always use the term:

a)

Olbique

b)

Axial

c)

Lateral

d)

Decubitus

45.

Oblique positions are always named according to the side of the patient that is:

a)

Closest to the x-ray tube

b)

The source of pathology

c)

Closest to the IR

d)

Farthest from the IR

46.

Which of the following positioning terms indicates that the patient is lying down and the central ray is horizontal?

a)

Lateral

b)

Decubitus

c)

Recumbent

d)

Mediolateral

47.

Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body or body part is termed:

a)

Adduction

b)

Abduction

c)

Extension

d)

Flexion

48.

Forced or excessive extension of a limb or part is termed:

a)

Eversion

b)

Inversion

c)

Hyperextension

d)

Hyperflexion

49.

If the foot is turned inward at the ankle joint, the body movement is termed:

a)

Inversion

b)

Eversion

c)

Flexion

d)

Extension

50.

Turning the forearm so that the palm of the hand is up is termed:

a)

Pronation

b)

Supination

c)

Abduction

d)

Adduction

51.

The term that refers to a part on the opposite side of the body is:

a)

Distal

b)

Proximal

c)

Ipsiateral

d)

Contralateral

52.

Which of the following are functions of the vertebral column?

a)

1. Supports the trunk

b)

2. Protects the spinal cord

c)

3. Supports the skull posteriorly

d)

1, 2 and 3

53.

The vertebral column articulates with the hip bone at the:

a)

Sacroiliac joint

b)

Pubic symphysis

c)

Acetabulum

d)

Lumbar-5, sacral-1 joint

54.

Which of the following vertebral areas have a lordotic curve?

a)

1. Cervical

b)

2. Thoracic

c)

3. Lumbar

d)

1 and 3

55.

Which of the following vertebral areas have a kyphotic curve?

a)

1. Thoracic

b)

2. Lumbar

c)

3. Sacrum and coccyx

d)

1 and 3

56.

An abnormally increased con cavity of the lumbar spine is termed:

a)

Lordosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Scoliokyphosis

57.

The articulations between the articular processes of the vertebral arches are called the ______ joints

a)

Costovertebral

b)

Costotransverse

c)

Intervertebral

d)

Zygapophyseal

58.

The shor, thick processes that project posteriorly on each side of a vertebral body are called the

a)

Pedicles

b)

Lamniae

c)

Transverse processes

d)

Spinous processsees

59.

The zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are clearly demonstrated on which projection?

a)

AP

b)

Lateral

c)

AP oblique

d)

PA oblique

60.

The angle of the articulation between the sacrum and the ilia (the Sacroiliac joint) is _____ degrees?

a)

10 to 15

b)

15 to 20

c)

25 to 30

d)

45 to 50

61.

Which of the following lines must be perpendicular to the IR for the AP “open mouth” atlas and axis?

a)

Glabellomeatal line

b)

Orbitomeatal line

c)

Acanthiometal line

d)

A line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the tip of the mastoid process

62.

Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the dens within the foramen magnum?

a)

Grandy

b)

Fuchs

c)

Twining

d)

Pawlow

63.

The central ray angle for an AP axial of cervical vertebrae is:

a)

10 degrees cephalad

b)

20 degrees cephalad

c)

15 to 20 degrees cephalad

d)

Variable, depending on body habits

64.

How are small weights applied to the arms for the lateral projection of the cervical spine (Grandy method)

a)

Affixed to the elbows

b)

Held in the hands

c)

Affixed to the wrists

d)

Held by the fingers

65.

The hand consists of how many bones?

a)

8

b)

14

c)

27

d)

32

66.

The first bone located on the proximal row and lateral side of the wrist is called the

a)

Trapezoid

b)

Trapezium

c)

Lunate

d)

Scaphoid

67.

Which of the following is the largest carpal bone?

a)

Capitate

b)

Hamate

c)

Scaphoid

d)

Triquetrum

68.

The arm is made up of which of the following bones?

a)

1. Ulna

b)

2. Radius

c)

3. Humerus

d)

3 only

69.

The head of the radius articulates on the medial side with the

a)

Coronoid processs

b)

Trochlear notch

c)

Ulnar styloid process

d)

Radial notch

70.

The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the

a)

Radial head

b)

Trochlea

c)

Lateral epicondyle

d)

Ulnar coronoid process

71.

The patient position most commonly used to perform a radiograph of a finger (digit) is:

a)

AP

b)

PA

c)

Sitting at the end of the table

d)

Standing at the end of the table

72.

The central ray for a PA projection of the wrist is directed to the

a)

Radiocarpal joint

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Midcarpal area

d)

Third CMC joint

73.

For a lateral projection of the wrist, the elbow must be flexed ______ degrees

a)

0

b)

25

c)

45

d)

90

74.

Which of the following is the primary projection used to demonstrate anterior or posterior displacement of fractures of the hand or wrist?

a)

AP

b)

PA

c)

Lateral

d)

AP oblique

75.

The PA projection of the wrist in ulnar deviation clearly demonstrates the:

a)

Trapezium

b)

Trapezoid

c)

Hamate

d)

Scaphhoid

76.

Which of the following is shown in profile on a lateral projection of the elbow?

a)

Radial neck

b)

Radial head

c)

Olecranon Process

d)

Humeral epcondyles

77.

Which of the following is demonstrated free of superimposition on an AP oblique projection of the elbow in lateral rotation?

a)

Capitulum

b)

Trochlea

c)

Radial head and neck

d)

Olecranon process

78.

The position recommended to increase patient comfort when performing an AP projection of the humerus is:

a)

Prone

b)

Recumbent

c)

Supine

d)

Upright

79.

In what position should the hand be placed for the AP projection of the humerus?

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

Lateral

d)

30 degrees oblique medial rotation

80.

Which of the following is shown in profile on an AP projection of the humerus?

a)

Capitulum

b)

Glenoid cavity

c)

Lesser tubercule

d)

Greater tubercule

81.

How many bones are in the foot

a)

14

b)

26

c)

27

d)

29

82.

The second largest tarsal bone, and the one that occupies the highest position in the foot is the:

a)

Talus

b)

Navicular

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Medial cuneiform

83.

How many bones make up the leg

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

84.

How many tarsals are in the foot?

a)

Four

b)

Five

c)

Six

d)

Seven

85.

The name of the small round bones located on the plantar surface of the foot, typically beneath the first MTP joint, is the

a)

Cuneiforms

b)

Sesamoids

c)

Tarsals

d)

Epicondyles

86.

Which of the following forms the ankle mortise?

a)

1. Lateral malleolus of the fibula

b)

2. Medial malleolus of the tibia

c)

3. Inferior surface of the tibia

d)

1, 2 and 3

87.

The fibula articulates with the tibia at the

a)

1. Distal end

b)

2. Proximal end

c)

3. Posterior surface

d)

1 and 2

88.

To better demonstrate the TMT joint spaces of the foot, a posterior angulation of how many degrees is required?

a)

0

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

89.

Which of the following is the essential lateral projection of the calcaneus?

a)

Lateral (lateromedial)

b)

Lateral (mediolateral)

c)

Latero medial oblique

d)

Latero medial oblique, weight bearing

90.

Which of the following must be rotated for all oblique projections of the ankle

a)

1. Pelvis

b)

2. Leg

c)

3. Foot

d)

2 and 3

91.

The part of the bone where muscles, tendons, or ligaments are attached is called:

a)

A foramina

b)

The meatus

c)

The fossa

d)

A tuberosity

92.

The piece of cartilage that separates the end of a developing long bone from the central shaft is called the:

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Epiphyseal line

d)

Epiphyseal plate

93.

The study of joints or articulations is known as:

a)

Arthroloy

b)

Osteology

c)

Radiology

d)

Radiography

94.

The hip bone is composed of which of the following?

a)

1. Ilium

b)

2. Pubis

c)

3. Ishium

d)

1, 2 and 3

95.

Which of the following will be shown “in profile” if the lower limbs are in correct position for an AP pelvis?

a)

Lesser trochanters

b)

Greater trochanters

c)

Anterior superior iliac spines

d)

Anterior inferior iliac spines

96.

Ribs lie in an oblique plane in the thorax. How are the anterior ends situated in comparison to the posterior ends?

a)

1 inch lower

b)

1 inch higher

c)

3 to 5 inches lower

d)

3 to 5 inches higher

97.

Which of the following is the essential projection and body position for demonstration of the sternum?

a)

AP supine

b)

PA supine

c)

PA oblique LAO

d)

PA oblique RAO

98.

The central ray angle for the PA oblique projection of the sternum is

a)

5 degrees caudad

b)

10 degrees caudad

c)

15 degrees caudad

d)

Perpendicular

99.

Which of the following body positions will project the left ribs clear of the heart?

a)

1. Lateral

b)

2. LAO

c)

3. RPO

d)

2 and 3

100.

The costal cartilages of the eighth through tenth ribs attach to:

a)

Each other

b)

The sternum

c)

The costal cartilage of the seventh rib

d)

The body of the seventh rib