Font size
S
M
L
XL
Worksheetsусщтщьшсы 1-100
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 34mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The part of business plan which describe profit, income and outcome
a)
Financial plan
b)
Executive summary
c)
Marketing plan
d)
Operational plan
2.
A written account that gives an overview of the main points of a business plan
a)
HRM
b)
Marketing plan
c)
Executive summary
d)
Operational plan
3.
This is one of the key concepts of economics
a)
Business plan
b)
Profit
c)
Scarcity
d)
Varsity
4.
How many factors of production exist
a)
4
b)
3
c)
2
d)
1
5.
The profit from land rent called …
a)
Interest rate
b)
Wage
c)
Profit
d)
Rental income
6.
Natural resources are divided into two categories by the ability to replenish: …
a)
New and old
b)
Renewable
c)
Eternal and temporary
d)
Renewable and nonrenewable
7.
The physical and intellectual effort of people engaged in producing goods and services
a)
Later
b)
Worker
c)
Land
d)
Labour
8.
What are the two ways of looking at Economics?
a)
Macroeconomics
b)
Macroeconomics and Mesoeconomics
c)
Microeconomics
d)
Macroeconomics and Microeconomics
9.
Opposite approach to positive economics is ..
a)
Nonmative
b)
Negative
c)
Normative
d)
Formative
10.
Which of the options cannot be considered as enterprises main goals
a)
Increase in humans' live quality
b)
Increase in competitiveness of a product
c)
Increase in output
d)
Increase in market share
11.
How many business combinations exist (according to provided ppt)
a)
12
b)
3
c)
2
d)
5
12.
The division of enterprises based on the annual number of workers in Kazakhstan
a)
Small, Medium, Large
b)
Tiny, Middle, Big
c)
Large, Larger, the Largest
d)
Small and Large
13.
What is MCI ()
a)
Mild cognitive impairment
b)
Monetary Conditions Index
c)
Monthly calculation indicator
d)
Medical Council of India
14.
The division of enterprises by form of property
a)
Manufacturing, Non-manufacturing
b)
State, private
c)
Commercial, Non-commercial
d)
Mass (continual), single part, batch (line)
15.
Steelmaking enterprises are mostly classified as …
a)
Energy-intensive
b)
Labor-intensive
c)
Capital-intensive
d)
Material-intensive
16.
Process that identifies, anticipates and satisfies customer requirements profitably
a)
Research
b)
Management
c)
Engineering
d)
Marketing
17.
First requirement for exchange
a)
Being free to reject exchange
b)
Owning a valuable object
c)
Being capable to communicate
d)
At least two parties
18.
What is marketed
a)
Only events
b)
Everything
c)
Only products
d)
Only Products, events, ideas
19.
First step of marketing evolution
a)
Production era
b)
Societal marketing era
c)
Sales era
d)
Marketing concept era
20.
Field of dreams strategy is used in which type of orientation
a)
Sales
b)
Marketing
c)
Product
d)
Societal
21.
Focus on aggressive sales techniques and believe that high sales result in high profits is ... Orientation
a)
Marketing
b)
Product
c)
Societal
d)
Sales
22.
Focus on satisfying customer needs and wants while meeting objectives - if they will buy it, we will make it
a)
Societal
b)
Sales
c)
Product
d)
Marketing
23.
Which is not an element of 4 P's
a)
Profit
b)
Place
c)
Promotion
d)
Price
24.
Which is not an element of 4 C's
a)
Customer cost
b)
Competition
c)
Customer solution
d)
Communication
25.
Market Environment Includes:
a)
Microenvironment and Mesoenvironment
b)
Microenvironment and Macroenvironment
c)
Microenvironment
d)
Macroenvironment
26.
The purchase of goods and services from abroad that leads to an outflow of currency from the country is called
a)
Export
b)
International trade
c)
Import
d)
Flow of currency
27.
The sale of goods and services to buyers from other countries leading to an inflow of currency to the country
a)
Import
b)
International trade
c)
Export
d)
Flow of currency
28.
Where one country can produce goods with fewer resources than another called as
a)
Comparative Advantage
b)
Absolute Advantage
29.
The rate at which one currency can be exchanged for another
a)
Payment
b)
Exchange fact
c)
Exchange rate
d)
Currency
30.
Price determined only by demand and supply of the currency – no government intervention
a)
Fixed Exchange Rates
b)
Dirty Floating or Managed Exchange Rate
c)
Floating Exchange Rates
31.
How many forms of organization of industry production exist
a)
4
b)
3
c)
2
d)
8
32.
Industry complex which consists of coal, oil, gas, shale, peat, electric power industry
a)
Fuel and energy complex
b)
Energy complex
c)
Fuel complex
33.
What is a primary sector
a)
Natural resource extraction and financial services
b)
Services sector
c)
Production and processing of information
34.
Total revenue minus total explicit cost is called as
a)
Accounting profit
b)
Economic profit
35.
Does not change, no matter how much is produced
a)
Fixed cost
b)
Cost
c)
Variable cost
d)
Total cost
36.
What is a production?
a)
Process of converting the recourses of nature to satisfy human wants
b)
Process of buying and selling the recourses of nature
c)
Process of converting the recourses of nature to dissatisfy human wants
d)
Process of converting the recourses
37.
Which of the production factors based on employers activity?
a)
Land
b)
Physical capital
c)
Financial capital
d)
Labour
38.
Is water a part of land factor of production?
a)
Not sure
b)
No
c)
Yes
d)
Water
39.
What is a labour?
a)
It is only physical activity for reward and not for pleasure /love
b)
It is physical and mental activity for pleasure /love and not for reward
c)
It is mental or physical activity for reward and not for pleasure /love
d)
It is only mental activity for reward and not for pleasure /love
40.
Choose the common formula of production function
a)
Q=f(K,L,N), Q= Quantity, f=Function, K= Capital, L=Labour, N=Land
b)
Q=K/L*N, Q= Quantity, f=Function, K= Capital, L=Labour, N=Number
c)
Q=K*l*N, Q= Quantity, f=Function, K= Capital, L=Labour, N=Numbers
d)
Q=f(K,L,N), Q= Quantity, f=Function, K= Capital, L=Labour, N=Numbers
41.
What is marginal product?
a)
The total revenue divided by the total input
b)
The average product multiplied by the quantity of input
c)
The additional output produced by one more unit of a variable input
d)
The total product divided by the number of units of input
42.
What does market structure in economics refer to?
a)
The price pricing strategy of a monopoly
b)
The physical arrangement of markets in a city
c)
The organizational and competitive characteristics of a market
d)
The total revenue of all firms in a given industry
43.
How many types of market structure exists?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
1
d)
3
44.
Market structure in which a large number of firms (businesses) produce the same product.
a)
Monopoly
b)
Perfect competition
c)
Monopolistic competition
d)
Oligopoly
45.
Factors that make it difficult for new firms to enter a market called as?
a)
No correct answer
b)
Oligopoly
c)
Exit barriers
d)
Entry barriers
46.
Markets that run best when one firm provides all of the supply called as ?
a)
Monopolistic competition
b)
Monopoly
c)
Natural monopoly
47.
Provide a definition of Market power
a)
The number of competitors in a market.
b)
The ease with which new firms can enter a market.
c)
The ability of a company to control prices and output
d)
The total revenue generated by a firm in a specific market.
48.
What is process of organizing as management function?
a)
Setting financial goals
b)
Conducting market research
c)
Arranging resources and tasks
d)
Motivating employees
49.
What is the term for the set of unofficial relationships between organization members?
a)
Operational hierarchy
b)
Formal structure
c)
Informal structure
d)
Hierarchical network
50.
What characterizes traditional organizational structures?
a)
Flat hierarchies and informal communication
b)
Formal hierarchies and clear lines of authority
c)
Flexibility and decentralization
d)
Matrix structures and cross-functional teams
51.
What are common features of a mechanistic organizational design?
a)
Formalization, specialization, and clear hierarchy
b)
Flexibility and adaptability
c)
Emphasis on employee empowerment
d)
Decentralized decision-making
52.
Special form of boundaryless organization structure called as?
a)
Divisional structure
b)
Matrix structure
c)
Network structure
d)
Virtual organization structure
53.
What are common features of an organic organizational design?
a)
Formalization, specialization, and clear hierarchy
b)
Centralized decision-making and rigid structure
c)
Emphasis on strict rules and regulations
d)
Flexibility, adaptability, and decentralized authority
54.
What factors are typically considered when choosing a method of production?
a)
Market demand and customer preferences
b)
All of the above
c)
Availability of skilled labor and technology
d)
Size of the organization and its budget
55.
What is job production in manufacturing?
a)
The process of creating custom-made or unique products according to specific customer requirements.
b)
A method where products are made in large batches or groups.
c)
The production of standardized goods in large quantities.
d)
The continuous production of items in a series with each operation performed at a specific workstation.
56.
What is batch production in manufacturing?
a)
The process of creating custom-made or unique products according to specific customer requirements.
b)
The method where products are made in large batches or groups.
c)
The production of standardized goods in large quantities.
57.
What is flow production in manufacturing?
a)
The production when parts are added to a product as it moves along a production line.
b)
None above is correct
c)
The process of creating custom-made or unique products according to specific customer requirements.
d)
The method where products are made in large batches or groups.
58.
Which type of production is characterized by a high reliance on human labor and a relatively lower use of automated machinery and technology?
a)
Labor-intensive production
b)
Capital-intensive production
c)
Technology-driven production
59.
What characterizes capital-intensive production?
a)
High reliance on human labor and low use of machinery.
b)
A balanced mix of labor and machinery.
c)
High reliance on automated machinery and technology.
d)
Manual production with minimal use of capital.
60.
What is the definition of productive capacity in economics?
a)
The total value of goods and services produced by a company.
b)
The market demand for a company's products.
c)
The ability of an organization to produce goods and services with its available resources.
d)
The maximum number of employees a company can hire.
61.
What is the definition of capacity planning in business management?
a)
The management of production capabilities to meet current and future demands.
b)
The evaluation of employee performance within an organization.
c)
The analysis of market trends and consumer behavior.
d)
The process of maximizing profits through pricing strategies.
62.
What is design capacity
a)
Is the minimum theoretical output of a system
b)
Is the minimum theoretical input of a system
c)
Is the maximum theoretical input of a system
d)
Is the maximum theoretical output of a system
63.
What role does managing demand play in capacity planning?
a)
Adjusting pricing strategies.
b)
Analyzing market trends for future planning.
c)
Balancing production capabilities with current and future demand.
d)
Setting employee performance targets.
64.
Which of the following is a tactic for matching capacity to demand in capacity planning?
a)
Maintaining a constant level of production regardless of fluctuations.
b)
Ignoring changes in customer demand.
c)
Implementing flexible work shifts and cross-training employees.
d)
Adjusting production schedules based on historical data.
65.
What does 'leading demand with one-step expansion' mean in capacity planning?
a)
Proactively increasing capacity ahead of anticipated demand growth.
b)
Expanding production in many tiny steps in response to increasing demand.
c)
Expanding production in multiple steps to meet fluctuating demand.
d)
Scaling down production to match declining demand.
66.
What is the definition of management in the context of business and organizations?
a)
The implementation of technology for operational efficiency.
b)
The art of creating budgets and financial plans.
c)
The systematic process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling organizational resources to achieve specific goals.
d)
The process of selling goods and services.
67.
Which of the following is an example of the interpersonal role of a manager?
a)
Conducting employee performance appraisals
b)
Making decisions about employee promotions
c)
Creating budgets and financial plans
d)
Negotiating a contract with a new client
68.
What is the primary purpose of business planning?
a)
Setting long-term goals and strategies
b)
Generating immediate profits
c)
Managing day-to-day operational tasks
d)
Adapting to short-term market trends
69.
What is the role of Research & Development (R&D) in a business plan?
a)
Managing day-to-day operational task
b)
Focusing on immediate revenue generation
c)
Planning and allocating resources for innovation and product improvement
d)
Identifying potential investors
70.
What does the term 'break-even point' represent in business?
a)
The point where total revenue equals total costs
b)
The point where fixed costs exceed variable costs
c)
The point where a business starts making profits
d)
The highest point of revenue in a business cycle
71.
What is the definition of communications management in a business context?
a)
Managing financial resources within an organization
b)
Planning, executing, and monitoring an organization's communication processes
c)
Controlling day-to-day operational tasks
d)
Overseeing employee training and development
72.
Which of the following is an example of noise in the context of communication management?
a)
Background chatter during a virtual meeting
b)
A well-prepared presentation
c)
Direct and open communication between team members
d)
A clear and concise written message
73.
Which of the following is an example of encoding in communication management?
a)
Receiving and interpreting a message
b)
Asking questions to clarify information
c)
Listening attentively during a meeting
d)
Transmitting a written report to team members
74.
In the communications model, which component refers to the process of transforming the message back into thought at the receiver's end?
a)
Feedback
b)
Decoding
c)
Encoding
d)
Noise
75.
Which type of income is associated with the factor of production - Labor?
a)
Rent
b)
Wage
c)
Interest
d)
Profit
76.
Which income category is attributed to the factor of production - Capital?
a)
Rent
b)
Interest
c)
Wage
d)
Profit
77.
What type of income is associated with the factor of production - Entrepreneurship?
a)
Profit
b)
Interest
c)
Wage
d)
Rent
78.
What is the term used to describe the knowledge, skills, and capabilities possessed by individuals, often acquired through education and experience?
a)
Human Capital
b)
Physical Capital
c)
Social Capital
d)
Economic Capital
79.
What term is used to describe an individual who takes the initiative to start a new business, often assuming the associated risks and responsibilities?
a)
Manager
b)
Innovator
c)
Investor
d)
Entrepreneur
80.
In economics, what is the term used to describe the value of the next best alternative forgone when a decision is made?
a)
Average Cost
b)
Marginal Cost
c)
Opportunity Cost
d)
Sunk Cost
81.
In economics, what term is used to describe a simplified representation of economic processes or systems that helps in understanding and analyzing economic phenomena?
a)
Macro Model
b)
Market Model
c)
Economic Model
d)
Supply-Demand Model
82.
Which set of questions represents the three fundamental economic questions that help determine an economy's production, allocation, and consumption?
a)
What gets produced? How is it produced? Who consumes what is produced?
b)
When to produce? Where to produce? How to distribute the production?
c)
Why is it produced? When is it produced? Where is it consumed?
d)
How much to produce? When to consume? Where to allocate resources?
83.
In a command economy, what is the primary determinant of what goods and services are produced, how they are produced, and who consumes them?
a)
Government
b)
Market Forces
c)
Producers' Decisions
d)
Consumers' Preferences
84.
In a market economy, how are the decisions regarding what to produce, how to produce, and for whom to produce determined?
a)
Private Individuals
b)
Government Authorities
c)
Random Allocation
d)
Community Consensus
85.
Who emphasized the importance of planning in preparation for battle while acknowledging the inherent limitations of rigid plans?
a)
George S. Patton
b)
Dwight D. Eisenhower
c)
Franklin D. Roosevelt
d)
Winston Churchill
86.
What is the primary objective of enterprises in pursuing their activities and operations?
a)
Political Influence
b)
Technological Innovation
c)
Social Development
d)
Economic Profits
87.
Which of the following represents a typical long-term goal for an enterprise?
a)
Increase in Monthly Revenue
b)
Achieving Sustainable Growth Over the Next 5 Years
c)
Market Expansion within the Next Quarter
d)
Cost Reduction in the Current Financial Year
88.
What is a primary function of an enterprise in the business context?
a)
Strategic Planning
b)
Social Advocacy
c)
Technological Advancement
d)
Individual Enrichment
89.
In terms of ownership, which classification of enterprises typically includes organizations owned and operated by private individuals or shareholders?
a)
Public Enterprises
b)
Government Enterprises
c)
Private Enterprises
d)
Cooperative Enterprises
90.
Which of the following represents a non-manufacturing enterprise?
a)
Textile Factory
b)
Electronics Assembly Plant
c)
Automobile Manufacturing Company
d)
Software Development Company
91.
In terms of the structure of costs, which classification of enterprises is often associated with a higher proportion of fixed costs, such as investments in machinery and technology?
a)
Service-Oriented Enterprises
b)
Capital-Intensive Enterprises
c)
Cooperative Enterprises
d)
Labor-Intensive Enterprises
92.
What type of merger occurs when two companies operating at the same stage of the production process in the same industry combine?
a)
Market Mergers
b)
Vertical Mergers
c)
Horizontal Mergers
d)
Conglomerate Mergers
93.
Which type of merger involves the combination of companies that operate at different stages of the production process or supply chain?
a)
Vertical Mergers
b)
Horizontal Mergers
c)
Strategic Mergers
d)
Conglomerate Mergers
94.
What type of merger occurs when companies from unrelated industries come together to form a new entity?
a)
Horizontal Mergers
b)
Conglomerate Mergers
c)
Vertical Mergers
d)
Diversification Mergers
95.
In which market orientation does a company focus primarily on efficient production processes, cost reduction, and economies of scale, assuming that consumers will favor products that are widely available and affordable?
a)
Product Orientation
b)
Production Orientation
c)
Sales Orientation
d)
Market Orientation
96.
Which orientation places a strong emphasis on persuading customers to buy existing products rather than focusing on understanding and satisfying customer needs?
a)
Customer-Centric Orientation
b)
Sales Orientation
c)
Marketing Orientation
d)
Production Orientation
97.
What is a key distinction between sales orientation and marketing orientation in marketing?
a)
Emphasis on Advertising
b)
Short-Term Profit Maximization
c)
Product-Centric Approach
d)
Focus on Customer Needs
98.
What phase of the strategic planning process involves assessing the current state of the organization, its strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats?
a)
Tactics - how do we get there?
b)
Analysis/Audit - where are we now?
c)
Objectives - where do we want to be?
d)
Strategies - which way is best?
99.
In the strategic planning process, which phase is primarily concerned with defining the desired future state and setting measurable goals for the organization?
a)
Analysis/Audit - where are we now?
b)
Objectives - where do we want to be?
c)
Strategies - which way is best?
d)
Tactics - how do we get there?
100.
How many processes presented in communaction management?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
e)
5
Reset
