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MA clinical and lab review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which microorganism requires a host cell to replicate and is responsible for illnesses like influenza?

a)

Protozoa that move using flagella in water

b)

Fungi that form spores on moist surfaces

c)

Viruses that need host cells to reproduce

d)

Bacteria that divide independently in tissues

2.

Which list correctly orders the six links in the chain of infection?

a)

Agent, portal of entry, reservoir, exit, transmission, host

b)

Reservoir, exit, entry, transmission, agent, host

c)

Agent, reservoir, exit, transmission, entry, host

d)

Reservoir, agent, exit, transmission, entry, host

3.

Sanitization is best defined as which practice?

a)

Removing dirt and debris from surfaces or tools

b)

Killing most pathogens including bacterial spores

c)

Applying chemicals to sterilize invasive instruments

d)

Using heat to destroy all microbial life and spores

4.

Which PPE item primarily protects the wearer from airborne particles?

a)

Gloves designed to shield the hands

b)

Goggles designed to guard eyes

c)

Masks designed to filter inhaled air

d)

Gowns designed to cover clothing

5.

A patient with a draining wound coughs during dressing removal. Which link in the chain of infection is represented by droplets leaving the body?

a)

Reservoir serving as the pathogen source

b)

Portal of exit allowing pathogen escape

c)

Portal of entry enabling host invasion

d)

Susceptible host with weak defenses

6.

Which action best breaks the mode of transmission for respiratory pathogens in a clinic waiting room?

a)

Wearing gowns to cover personal clothing

b)

Screening visitors for immune disorders

c)

Encouraging cough etiquette and masking

d)

Wiping benches to remove visible soil daily

7.

A clinic must process reusable surgical instruments. Which choice correctly matches the needed level of control with the goal?

a)

Sterilization to eliminate all microbes and their spores

b)

Sanitization to reduce spore counts on metal instruments

c)

Disinfection to destroy all microorganisms including spores

d)

Hand hygiene to remove oils from stainless instruments

8.

Which scenario most likely increases the risk of a susceptible host becoming infected?

a)

A worker wearing gloves during phlebotomy

b)

A healthy adult practicing daily hygiene

c)

A teenager vaccinated against hepatitis B

d)

An older patient with a weakened immune system

9.

Which practice aligns with OSHA/CDC recommendations to prevent bloodborne pathogen exposure from needles?

a)

Dispose used needles directly in sharps containers

b)

Rinse used needles under cold running water

c)

Recap used needles before carrying to the sink

d)

Place used needles in biohazard bags for pickup

10.

Which procedure best describes sterilization (autoclaving) in instrument care?

a)

Soaking instruments overnight in mild detergent

b)

Wiping tools with alcohol pads between patients

c)

Rinsing visible soil with running tap water only

d)

Using steam under pressure to sterilize instruments

11.

Which statement correctly defines the five vital signs set used in clinical practice?

a)

Temperature, blood sugar, respirations, pain level, height

b)

Pulse, respiration, urine output, blood pressure, BMI

c)

Temperature, pulse, pain score, blood pressure, vision

d)

Temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure, oxygen saturation

12.

Orthostatic blood pressure is measured in which sequence of body positions?

a)

Lying down, then sitting, then standing sequentially

b)

Standing only after brisk walking for two minutes

c)

Sitting quietly with legs crossed for five minutes

d)

Prone position before and after deep breathing

13.

Which term matches a slow heart rate below 60 beats per minute?

a)

Bradycardia indicates slow heart rate below sixty

b)

Tachycardia indicates slow heart rate below sixty

c)

Hypotension indicates slow heart rate below sixty

d)

Hypertension indicates slow heart rate below sixty

14.

A patient’s systolic and diastolic pressures represent what measurement?

a)

Force of cardiac contractions in the atria

b)

Oxygen dissolved directly in plasma

c)

Volume of air exchanged in the lungs

d)

Arterial blood pressure within the arteries

15.

Which finding best describes a thready pulse during assessment?

a)

Weak pulse that is barely felt on palpation

b)

Very strong pulse that is forceful and bounding

c)

Regular rate with increased pulse volume only

d)

Irregular rhythm with normal pulse amplitude

16.

Which respiratory term refers to high-pitched breathing usually from airway obstruction?

a)

Stridor is high-pitched breathing from obstruction

b)

Wheezing is high-pitched breathing from obstruction

c)

Dyspnea is high-pitched breathing from obstruction

d)

Hyperventilation is high-pitched breathing from obstruction

17.

For infant body measurements, which practice is correct for weight?

a)

Keep diaper and blanket on during weighing

b)

Measure weight immediately after a feeding

c)

Measure weight without clothes for accuracy

d)

Estimate weight using length and age only

18.

Head circumference in infants is primarily used to screen for which conditions?

a)

Otitis media or sinusitis indicating ear infections

b)

Hydrocephalus or microcephaly indicating size changes

c)

Rickets or scurvy indicating vitamin deficiencies

d)

Scoliosis or kyphosis indicating spinal curves

19.

Which term best describes the main reason a patient seeks care during a visit?

a)

Objective info

b)

Open-ended query

c)

Subjective info

d)

Chief complaint

20.

During history taking, which item is objective rather than subjective?

a)

Patient reports fatigue

b)

Patient rates pain

c)

Provider notes rash

d)

Patient describes dizziness

21.

Which patient position places the person on the back with feet in stirrups for pelvic exams?

a)

Fowler’s position

b)

Lithotomy position

c)

Supine position

d)

Prone position

22.

A patient in respiratory distress needs easier breathing. Which position is most appropriate?

a)

Dorsal recumbent

b)

Fowler’s position

c)

Sims’ position

d)

Trendelenburg

23.

Before an exam, which preparation step best supports infection control and efficiency?

a)

Leave room cluttered

b)

Ignore expired supplies

c)

Skip draping process

d)

Sanitize table surfaces

24.

Which test checks distance vision using standardized letters at a set distance?

a)

Ear irrigation

b)

Ishihara test

c)

Jaeger chart

d)

Snellen chart

25.

You must assist a non–weight-bearing patient from the room to imaging. Which walking aid is most suitable?

a)

Crutches device

b)

Cane device

c)

No device

d)

Walker device

26.

A provider orders screening for color vision deficiency. Which assessment should you prepare?

a)

Ishihara test

b)

Jaeger assessment

c)

Snellen chart

d)

Pap smear kit

27.

A patient reports a severe latex allergy prior to a pelvic exam. What is the safest immediate action?

a)

Ignore draping needs

b)

Use nonlatex supplies

c)

Proceed as usual

d)

Delay documenting

28.

Which statement best describes Schedule II controlled substances?

a)

Illegal drugs with no accepted medical use

b)

Medications with low abuse potential, common refills

c)

Medications with high addiction risk, tightly regulated

d)

Medications with moderate risk, some restrictions

29.

Which item is an essential prescription component for validity?

a)

Insurance copay and refill coupons

b)

Provider signature and clear directions

c)

Family history and allergy list

d)

Patient nickname and pharmacy hours

30.

Which example matches the medication category correctly?

a)

Bronchodilators narrow airways in chronic disease

b)

Narcotics relieve strong pain but carry addiction risk

c)

Antibiotics relieve pain and reduce fever primarily

d)

Antihistamines kill bacteria causing severe infections

31.

Which record entry is MOST appropriate immediately after an injection?

a)

Medication name, dose, route, site, patient reaction

b)

Patient weight, family history, preferred pharmacy

c)

Diagnosis, discharge plan, follow‑up appointment

d)

Insurance policy, copay amount, plan deductible

32.

A capsule is ordered 0.5 g. The pharmacy supplies 250 mg capsules. How many capsules are required?

a)

Four capsules divided into two doses

b)

One capsule total for the full dose

c)

Three capsules taken with water

d)

Two capsules total for the full dose

33.

Which option lists the seven rights of medication administration most completely?

a)

Right patient, medication, dose, time, route, technique, documentation

b)

Right diagnosis, consent, storage, needle size, glove use, labeling, billing

c)

Right provider, location, policy, preparation, labeling, transport, storage

d)

Right patient, diagnosis, dilution, timing, syringe, disposal, education

34.

Which route delivers medication under the tongue for rapid absorption?

a)

Buccal route against the cheek

b)

Transdermal route via patches

c)

Topical route on intact skin

d)

Sublingual route under the tongue

35.

A patient develops hives, swelling, and difficulty breathing after penicillin. What is the PRIORITY action?

a)

Give an oral antihistamine

b)

Observe closely for thirty minutes

c)

Administer epinephrine immediately

d)

Offer water and monitor pulse

36.

Which statement accurately distinguishes side effects from adverse effects?

a)

Side effects are allergic only; adverse effects are infectious

b)

Side effects are rare and lethal; adverse effects are expected

c)

Side effects are common and mild; adverse effects are dangerous

d)

Side effects require epinephrine; adverse effects never do

37.

Which instrument category is designed primarily to cut tissue during minor surgery?

a)

Cutting instruments like scalpels and scissors

b)

Grasping instruments like forceps and needle holders

c)

Retracting instruments like hooks and skin spreaders

d)

Occluding instruments like clamps and hemostats

38.

What is the correct order of impulse conduction through the heart?

a)

SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

b)

AV node, SA node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers, bundle branches

c)

SA node, AV bundle, AV node, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

d)

Purkinje fibers, bundle branches, AV bundle, SA node, AV node

39.

During EKG setup, how many leads are recorded in a standard 12‑lead EKG?

a)

Six chest leads only without limb leads

b)

Twelve total leads across limb and chest

c)

Ten electrodes equal ten recorded leads

d)

Eight limb leads plus four chest leads

40.

Which situation most likely causes a wandering baseline on an EKG trace?

a)

Muscle shivering during the recording

b)

Electrical noise from nearby equipment

c)

Loose lead connection or deep breathing

d)

Dried gel on precordial electrodes

41.

A patient must document symptoms while wearing a device for an extended period and activate it when events occur. Which tool fits this use?

a)

Telemetry monitor used continuously in hospital

b)

Stress test performed during treadmill exercise

c)

Holter monitor worn continuously twenty four hours

d)

Event monitor used longer and patient activated

42.

Which statement best distinguishes gram‑positive from gram‑negative bacteria after staining?

a)

Gram‑negative appear purple with a thick wall

b)

Gram‑positive appear purple with a thick wall

c)

Both appear colorless with no visible wall

d)

Gram‑positive appear pink with a thin wall

43.

When choosing a diagnostic method for strep throat in a clinic, which option favors rapid clinical decisions over detailed organism identification?

a)

Traditional culturing provides immediate, highly detailed results

b)

Rapid antigen testing gives faster, less detailed results

c)

Gram staining alone confirms species and resistance patterns

d)

Microscopy alone replaces both culture and rapid tests

44.

Which microscope parts pair is essential for focusing the image on a slide?

a)

Objectives and condenser adjust clarity

b)

Stage clips and diaphragm adjust clarity

c)

Eyepiece and light source adjust clarity

d)

Coarse and fine focus knobs adjust clarity

45.

You obtain an EKG with erratic high‑frequency noise across all leads in a busy clinic. Which troubleshooting step should you prioritize first?

a)

Replace all electrodes with new adhesive pads

b)

Ask the patient to hold breath for full recording

c)

Switch to a three‑lead monitor instead of twelve

d)

Reduce electrical interference from nearby equipment

46.

What are the five types of microorganisms?

a)

Parasites, Spores, Molds, Yeasts, Algae

b)

Bacteria, Viruses, Protozoa, Fungi, Rickettsiae

c)

Antibodies, Pathogens, Antigens, Enzymes, Hormones

d)

White cells, Red cells, Plasma, Platelets, Fungi

47.

What is the first step in the chain of infection?

a)

Portal of entry

b)

Infectious agent

c)

Mode of transmission

d)

Susceptible host

48.

What is the purpose of PPE?

a)

Improve nutrition

b)

Assist in surgery

c)

Reduce medication errors

d)

Prevent pathogen exposure

49.

What is the most accurate form of sterilization?

a)

Autoclaving

b)

Sanitization

c)

Handwashing

d)

Disinfection

50.

What vital sign is measured in breaths per minute?

a)

Temperature

b)

Respiration

c)

Oxygen saturation

d)

Pulse

51.

What is bradycardia?

a)

Low oxygen levels

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Slow heart rate

d)

Fast breathing

52.

What is a Pap smear used to detect?

a)

Cervical cancer

b)

Urinary infection

c)

Pregnancy

d)

STDs

53.

Which is a right of medication administration?

a)

Right provider

b)

Right height

c)

Right schedule

d)

Right documentation

54.

What does an AED do?

a)

Starts IV fluids

b)

Measures oxygen saturation

c)

Monitors blood sugar

d)

Shocks the heart to restore rhythm

55.

Which test requires fasting for 8–12 hours?

a)

ESR

b)

A1C

c)

FBS

d)

Hemoglobin

56.

Which of the following is a Schedule II drug?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Oxycodone

57.

What does PPE stand for?

a)

Provider Performance Evaluation

b)

Personal Protective Equipment

c)

Physician Prepared Equipment

d)

Patient Protection Equipment

58.

Which patient position is used for a pap smear exam?

a)

Fowler’s

b)

Prone

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Supine

59.

What part of the microscope is used to focus the image clearly?

a)

Light source

b)

Focus knobs

c)

Stage

d)

Objective lens

60.

Which blood test shows average glucose levels over several months?

a)

Hematocrit

b)

GTT

c)

FBS

d)

A1c

61.

What is an example of a grasping instrument?

a)

Scalpel

b)

Forceps

c)

Probe

d)

Speculum

62.

What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

a)

Provide medication instructions

b)

Track surgical supplies

c)

Document patient incidents

d)

Give chemical safety information

63.

Which blood cell fights infection?

a)

Platelet

b)

Red blood cell

c)

White blood cell

d)

Plasma

64.

Which of the following describes a “thready pulse”?

a)

Weak and difficult to feel

b)

Deep and slow

c)

Rapid and irregular

d)

Strong and bounding

65.

What is the appropriate action if a patient shows signs of anaphylactic shock?

a)

Give Tylenol and monitor

b)

Administer epinephrine and call 911

c)

Apply ice to the area

d)

Give oxygen and lay them flat

66.

Why do antibiotics destroy bacterial cells but have no effect on viruses?

a)

Viruses are made up of organic molecules that are too small to be targeted by antibiotics.

b)

Viruses are not alive and do not carry out the life functions that are stopped by antibiotics

c)

Viruses do not possess the protein coat that is targeted by all antibiotics

67.
Athlete's foot is an example of this pathogen
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protozoan
68.
Some bacteria is known as ________________ and cause disease.
a)
pathogens
b)
flagella
c)
influenza
d)
ebola
69.
Which best distinguishes an infectious disease from a noninfectious disease?
a)
Infectious diseases can be cured with antibiotics; noninfectious diseases cannot.
b)
Infectious diseases can be prevented with vaccines; noninfectious diseases cannot.
c)
Infectious diseases can be spread from one organism to another; noninfectious diseases cannot.
d)
Infectious diseases cannot be transmitted from one organism to another; noninfectious diseases can.
70.
A village has an outbreak of cholera. Which would be the easiest way for a neighboring village to prevent the cholera epidemic from spreading to their village?
a)
Develop a cholera vaccination.
b)
Quarantine all individuals infected with cholera.
c)
Avoid contaminated water, or treat contaminated water before drinking it.
d)
Restrict travel to other villages that are farther away.
71.

SDS provide important information about product_____

a)

storage

b)

safety

c)

efficacy

d)

disposal

72.
Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are known as _____.
a)
sterilizers
b)
antiseptics
c)
disinfectants
d)
sanitizers
73.

The cleaning process that is required for all instruments that penetrate the skin or that come in contact with normally sterile areas of the tissue and internal organs is

a)

sterilization

b)

sanitization

c)

ultrasonic cleaning

d)

disinfection

74.
What is going on in the heart during the P wave?
a)
SA node triggers depolarization in atria
b)
AV node triggers depolarization in ventricle, the main pumpung action
c)
Delay caused by the SA node
d)
Repolarization of the ventricle 
75.

Which of the following best describes sinus bradycardia?

a)

A heart rate less than 60 bpm with a regular rhythm

b)

A heart rate more than 100 bpm with an irregular rhythm

c)

A heart rate less than 60 bpm with an irregular rhythm

d)

A heart rate more than 100 bpm with a regular rhythm

76.

Which wave represents ventricular depolarization in an ECG wave?

a)

QRS complex

b)

ST segment

c)

T wave

d)

P wave

77.
Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are known as _____.
a)
sterilizers
b)
antiseptics
c)
disinfectants
d)
sanitizers
78.

What type of bacteria is pictured?

a)

spirillium

b)

bacillus

c)

coccus

79.

What is the name for the shape of this bacteria that causes food poisoning called Staphylococcus aureus?

a)

bacillus

b)

coccus

c)

spirillum

80.

What is the name for the shape of this pathogenic bacteria called Escherichia coli?

a)

bacillus

b)

coccus

c)

spirillum

81.

The bacteria in this image are

a)

Gram positive.

b)

Gram negative.

82.
Area where the causative agent can live 
a)
mode of transmission
b)
portal of exit
c)
reservoir
d)
portal of entry
83.

What is the term used to describe the removal of a sample of tissue for examination under a microscope?

a)

Biopsy

b)

Autopsy

c)

Endoscopy

d)

Laparotomy

84.

What is the main difference between disinfection and sterilisation?

a)

Disinfection kills all microorganisms, while sterilisation only reduces their number

b)

Disinfection is used only on living tissues, while sterilisation is used on equipment

c)

Disinfection reduces the number of harmful microorganisms, while sterilisation kills all microorganisms

d)

There is no difference; they are interchangeable terms

85.
The purpose of infection control is to:
a)
remind all staff to wear gloves
b)
isolate patients with diseases.
c)
encourage good handwashing.
d)
disrupt the chain of infection.
86.

What disinfectant is effective against bacteria, viruses and fungi but not bacterial spores?

a)

Ethyl alcohol

b)

Chlorhexadine

c)

Iodine

d)

Biguanides

87.

An autoclave kills pathogens, viruses and spores using: (circle the correct answer)

a)
chemical disinfectants
b)
ultraviolet light
c)
steam under pressure
d)
dry heat
88.

Which of the following accurately describes the rhythm and volume of a pulse?

a)
The rhythm is inconsistent, and the volume is either faint or loud.
b)
The rhythm is always steady, and the volume is either high or low.
c)
The rhythm can only be steady, and the volume is always moderate.
d)
The rhythm is regular or irregular, and the volume is strong, weak, or normal.
89.

How many sutures would be needed to close a wound that is 5 inches long if the physician puts in one suture every 2 cm (1 in = 2.54 cm)?

a)
10
b)
5
c)
8
d)
7
90.

Platelets are distinguished by which of the following characteristics or traits?

a)

Single nucleated cells that make up more than 40-50% of the total blood volume

b)

Specialized cells that seek out, identify, and bind to alien protein on bacteria and viruses.

c)

. Contain sugars, salts and fats. Supplies nourishment and removes waste products.

d)

Non-nucleated cell fragments that plug ruptured vessels and release coagulating chemicals.

91.

Michael is an 18 month-old male toddler that is in the 50% percentile for length-age. Using the chart , determine how many more centimeters Michael will need to grow to reach the 95% percentile by 24 months? (circle the correct answer)

a)

6 cm

b)

93 cm

c)

11cm

d)

88 cm

92.

A man suddenly stops chewing, looks frightened, and points to his throat. What should the healthcare worker do FIRST?

a)

Ask the man to sit up straight and raise his arms above his head.

b)

Move the man to a safe location and give five abdominal thrusts.

c)

Perform a mouth sweep.

d)

Ask the man, "Are you choking?

93.

Biohazardous waste should be

a)

separated from other waste and placed in a biohazard bag.

b)

separated from other waste and placed in a clear plastic bag.

c)

discarded in a biohazardous bag with all other trash.

d)

discarded in the nearest waste receptacle

94.

. A doctor changes a dressing on a patient and asks you to disinfect the bedside table because it has become contaminated. What personal protective equipment should you wear?

a)

gloves only

b)

mask only

c)

no PPE

d)

full PPE

95.

You should consult a Material Safety Data Sheet to get information about cleaning up an exposure to

a)

saline

b)

urine

c)

formaldehyde

d)

blood

96.

Which organization sets and enforces protective workplace safety and work standards

a)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
b)

JCAHO

c)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
d)

CDC

97.

Which of the following artifacts is a result of patient movement with breathing?

a)

60 cycle interference

b)

interrupted baseline

c)

wandering baseline

d)

somatic tremor

98.

Which of the following places should the electrode for lead V4 be placed?

a)

left leg

b)

tight arm

c)

The left side of the sternum, fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line

d)

The left side of the sternum, fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line

99.

A medical assistant notices frequent, regular spikes on the EKG tracing. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

reattach the faulty electrode

b)

have patient hold their breath 10 sec

c)

turn off nearby electrical equipment

d)

offer patient warm blanket

100.

Which of the following demonstrates how somatic tremors can differentiate from 60-cycle interference?

a)

somatic tremors produce an interrupted baseline

b)

somatic tremors produce irregular spikes

c)

60 cycle interference produces a wandering baseline

d)

60 cycle interference produces irregular QRS