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General

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

(8347) A primary reason why ordinary or otherwise nonapproved cleaning compounds should not be used when washing aircraft is because their use can result in

a)

hydrogen embrittlement in metal structures.

b)

hydrogen embrittlement in nonmetallic materials.

c)

a general inability to remove compound residues.

2.

(8349) When an anodized surface coating is damaged in service, it can be partially restored by

a)

applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer.

b)

chemical surface treatment.

c)

use of a suitable mild cleaner.

3.

(8349.1) For which of the following reasons would a water break test be conducted?

a)

To make certain that a newly alodized aluminum surface is sufficiently coated.

b)

To make certain that a bare metal surface is thoroughly clean.

c)

To make certain that an anodizing coating has been sufficiently removed before an electrical bonding connection can be made.

4.

(8350) Select the solvent recommended for wipedown of cleaned surfaces just before painting.

a)

Aliphatic naptha.

b)

Dry-cleaning solvent.

c)

Aromatic naptha.

5.

(8351) Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces which have been affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with a solution of

a)

boric acid.

b)

sodium bicarbonate.

c)

potassium hydroxide.

6.

(8352) Which of the following are acceptable to use when utilizing chemical cleaning agents on aircraft? 1. Synthetic fiber wiping cloths when using a flammable agent. 2. Cotton fiber wiping cloths when using a flammable agent. 3. Atomizing spray equipment.

a)

2 and 3.

b)

1.

c)

2.

7.

(8353) Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber.

a)

Aliphatic naphtha.

b)

Methyl ethyl ketone.

c)

Aromatic naphtha.

8.

(8354) Fayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of

a)

forming passive oxides.

b)

entrapping corrosive materials.

c)

corrosion by imbedded iron oxide.

9.

(8355) Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum structures have the effect of producing

a)

passive oxidation.

b)

improved corrosion resistance.

c)

corrosion.

10.

(8356) Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur

a)

when two surfaces fit tightly together but can move relative to one another.

b)

only when two dissimilar metals are in contact.

c)

when two surfaces fit loosely together and can move relative to one another.

11.

(8358) Which of the following are the desired effects of using Alodine on aluminum alloy? 1. A slightly rough surface. 2. Relieved surface stresses. 3. A smooth painting surface. 4. Increased corrosion resistance.

a)

3 and 4.

b)

1, 2, and 4.

c)

1 and 4.

12.

(8359) Which of the listed conditions is NOT one of the requirements for corrosion to occur?

a)

The presence of an electrolyte.

b)

Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area.

c)

The presence of a passive oxide film.

13.

(8360) The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is called

a)

brinelling.

b)

granulation.

c)

exfoliation.

14.

(8361) A nonelectrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint-bonding qualities is called

a)

anodizing.

b)

alodizing.

c)

dichromating.

15.

(8362) Which of the following are acceptable to use in cleaning anodized surfaces? 1. Steel wool. 2. Brass wire brush. 3. Aluminum wool. 4. Stainless steel wire brush. 5. Fiber bristle brush.

a)

1, 3, & 5.

b)

2 & 4.

c)

3 & 5.

16.

(8363) Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts

a)

may be detected by surface pitting, and white, powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal.

b)

commonly appears as threadlike filaments of corrosion products under a dense film of paint.

c)

cannot always be detected by surface indications.

17.

(8363.1) Which of the following may not be detectable even by careful visual inspection of the surface of aluminum alloy parts or structures?

a)

Filiform corrosion.

b)

Intergranular corrosion.

c)

Uniform etch corrosion.

18.

(8364) What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel surfaces?

a)

Steel wire brushes.

b)

Fine-grit aluminum oxide.

c)

Medium-grit carborundum paper.

19.

(8153) When computing weight and balance, an airplane is considered to be in balance when

a)

the average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG range.

b)

all moment arms of the plane fall within CG range.

c)

the movement of the passengers will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range.

20.

(8154) What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight?

a)

Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and hydraulic fluid.

b)

Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight.

c)

Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir.

21.

(8154.1) What is meant by the term "residual fuel"?

a)

A known amount of fuel left in the tanks, lines, and engine.

b)

The fuel remaining in the tanks, lines, and engine after draining.

c)

The fuel remaining in the tank, lines, and engine before draining.

22.

(8155) The useful load of an aircraft consists of the

a)

crew, usable fuel, passengers, and cargo.

b)

crew, usable fuel, oil, and fixed equipment.

c)

crew, passengers, usable fuel, oil, cargo, and fixed equipment.

23.

(8156) Which of the following can provide the empty weight of an aircraft if the aircraft's weight and balance records become lost, destroyed, or otherwise inaccurate?

a)

Reweighing the aircraft.

b)

The applicable Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet.

c)

The applicable flight manual or pilot's operating handbook.

24.

(8156.1) Where do you look to determine the operating CG range when calculating a new aircraft weight and balance document?

a)

It is found on the airframe data plate.

b)

It is found in the type certificate data sheet.

c)

It is found in the pilot's aircraft information manual.

25.

(8157) In the theory of weight and balance, what is the name of the distance from the fulcrum to an object?

a)

Lever arm.

b)

Balance arm.

c)

Fulcrum arm.

26.

(8157.1) In the process of weighing an airplane toward obtaining the CG, the arms from the weighing points always extend

a)

parallel to the centerline of the airplane.

b)

straight forward from each of the landing gear.

c)

directly from each weighing point to the others.

27.

(8157.2) Which would have an effect on aircraft CG results when conducting a weight and balance check?

a)

Leaving the parking brake on.

b)

Leaving the parking brake off.

c)

Leaving the downlocks installed.

28.

(8157.3) When an aircraft is positioned for weighing on scales located under each landing gear wheel, which of the following may cause erroneous scale readings?

a)

Gear downlocks installed.

b)

Parking brakes set.

c)

Parking brakes not set.

29.

(8158) (1) Private aircraft are required by regulations to be weighed periodically. (2) Private aircraft are required to be weighed after making any alteration. Regarding the above statements,

a)

neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

b)

only No. 1 is true.

c)

only No. 2 is true.

30.

(8159) What FAA-approved document gives the leveling means to be used when weighing an aircraft?

a)

Type Certificate Data Sheet.

b)

AC 43.13-1B.

c)

Manufacturer's maintenance manual.

31.

(8160) To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the CG, it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed

a)

in a level flight attitude.

b)

with all items of useful load installed.

c)

with no more than minimum fuel (1/12-gallon per METO horsepower) in all fuel tanks.

32.

(8161) What type of measurement is used to designate the arm in weight and balance computation?

a)

Distance.

b)

Weight.

c)

Weight x distance.

33.

(8162) What determines whether the value of a moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign in aircraft weight and balance?

a)

The location of the weight in reference to the datum.

b)

The result of a weight being added or removed and its location relative to the datum.

c)

The location of the datum in reference to the aircraft CG.

34.

(8163) The maximum weight of an aircraft is the

a)

empty weight plus crew, maximum fuel, cargo, and baggage.

b)

empty weight plus crew, passengers, and fixed equipment.

c)

empty weight plus useful load.

35.

(8164) Which statement is true regarding helicopter weight and balance?

a)

Regardless of internal or external loading, lateral axis cg control is ordinarily not a factor in maintaining helicopter weight and balance.

b)

The moment of tail-mounted components is subject to constant change.

c)

Weight and balance procedures for airplanes generally also apply to helicopters.

36.

(8165) What should be clearly indicated on the aircraft weighing form?

a)

Minimum allowable gross weight.

b)

Weight of unusable fuel.

c)

Weighing points.

37.

(8167) Maximum zero fuel weight is the

a)

dry weight plus the weight of full crew, passengers, and cargo.

b)

basic operating weight without crew, fuel, and cargo.

c)

maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (passengers, crew, and cargo) without fuel.

38.

What type of line material would be used between stationary and moving parts?

a)

Aluminum

b)

Corrosion resistant steel

c)

Teflon

39.

What is the outside diameter of a -10 line?

a)

1/2 inch

b)

5/8 inch

c)

7/8 inch

40.

What factors must be considered when selecting fluid line materials for a particular application?

a)

Location, system fluid, system temperatures and system pressure

b)

Environment, corrosives and vibration

c)

Exposure, movement, low pressure and high pressure

41.

Which material is not suitable for phosphate ester base hydraulic fluids?

a)

Teflon

b)

Butyl

c)

Neoprene

42.

Which dimension is used to determine tubing size?

a)

Inside diameter

b)

Wall thickness

c)

Outside diameter

43.

Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and

a)

outside diameter in 1/32 inch increments

b)

outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments

c)

inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments

44.

Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size according to the

a)

inside diameter

b)

outside diameter

c)

wall thickness

45.

Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids?

1. Butyl.

2. Teflon.

3. Buna-N

4. Neoprene

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 4

c)

1 and 3

46.

A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN

a)

is carrying a substance that cannot be made non-toxic

b)

is a high pressure line. The letters mean Pressure High, Discharge at Nacelle

c)

is carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel

47.
Bernoulli's principle creates ___ in airplanes
a)
Drag
b)
Lift
c)
Weight
d)
Friction
48.
Fluids tend to move from an area of ______pressure to an area of ______pressure
a)
high, low
b)
low, high
c)
fluids don't flow
49.
Air travels  ______________ over the top of a wing.
a)
faster
b)
slower 
c)
doesn't move at all
d)
the same speed as
50.
What is Thermal Contraction 
a)
A Potato
b)
A decrease in a materials  volume when its temperature decreases 
c)
The movement of fluids in a cycle because of convection 
d)
A material through which  thermal energy does not flow easily.
51.
What is Thermal expansion?
a)
The transfer of thermal energy between materials by the collisions of particles 
b)
Is a decrease in a materials volume when temperature decreases 
c)
An increase in a materials volume when temperature increases
d)
Chicken fried rice
52.

Temperature is related to the average kinetic energy of the particles in an object due to their random motions through space.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Thermal expansion occurs when particles of matter move farther apart as temperature increase.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

When temperature increases, distance between molecules ______________.

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

stays the same

55.

When temperature decreases, distance between molecules ____________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

56.
States that the pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas), decreases as the fluid (liquid or gas),
flows faster.
a)
Bernoulli Effect
b)
Air foil
c)
Barometric pressure
d)
Lubrication
57.
Force acting on an object in motion through a fluid (in this case air) in an opposite
direction to the objects (chassis) motion, produced by friction.
a)
Friction on axels
b)
Cyclonic effect
c)
Drag
d)
Underinflated tires
58.
A body structure that derives its strength and rigidity from unitized construction, rather than a framework
of thick members.
a)
Stamped metal
b)
Square tubing
c)
Frame and panel
d)
Monocoque
59.
Using air or gas pressure to operate mechanical devices.
a)
Pnuematic
b)
Hydraulic
c)
Laminar flow
d)
Aerodynamics
60.
The upward reaction of an aircraft to the flow of air forced over the shape of the wing
(airfoil). The front and rear wings of ground effect cars are shaped like inverted wings to create downforce
or negative lift.
a)
Pnuematics
b)
Friction
c)
Lubrication
d)
Lift
61.
Using fluids to transmit and regulate the forces in a machine or device
a)
Transmission fluid
b)
Hydrualics
c)
Internal combustion engine
d)
Laminar flow
62.

The differences between Aviation Gasoline (AVGAS) and Motor Gasoline (MOGAS) are....


Select every option that applies

a)

AVGAS is manufactured to a higher quality standard

b)

MOGAS has a higher lead content

c)

100LL AVGAS is coloured blue

d)

AVGAS is more volatile than MOGAS

63.

If you use motor gasoline (MOGAS) in an aircraft engine you risk...

Select all of the options that apply

a)

Vapour locks

b)

Lower power output

c)

Spark plug fouling

d)

Detonation

64.

Aviation Turbine Fuel (AVTUR) has distinct properties. Some of these are...


Select all that apply

a)

straw or clear coloured

b)

smells like kerosene

c)

green coloured

d)

only available from tankers

65.

An engine driven fuel pump...

a)

cannot be turned off by the pilot

b)

is turned on for landing, take off and other critical phases of flight only

c)

exists to pressurise the fuel line in the event of a blockage

d)

allows additional fuel to be provided in emergencies

66.

Fuel strainers are located at what part of the fuel system?

a)

the lowest point

b)

the highest point

c)

the point where there is the highest pressure

d)

the point where there is the lowest pressure

67.

Where an aircraft engine has a pump which supplies fuel to a header tank, and then fuel from that header tank flows into the engine/carburetor, that fuel system is known as...

a)

gravity-fed

b)

pump-fed

c)

pump-free

d)

normally aspirated

68.

Engine primers are needed...

a)

when there has been an engine failure

b)

to inject fuel into the cylinders when starting a cold engine

c)

when starting a warm engine, to ensure equal pressure in the cylinders

d)

when starting when there has been a magneto failure

69.

Which major structural area of an aircraft is used to create lift for the aircraft and also provide stability/support during flight?

a)

Engines

b)

Vertical Stabilizer

c)

Wings

d)

Landing Gear

70.

Which aircraft structure is designed to reduce the left/right swaying motion of the tail?

a)

Horizontal Stabilizer

b)

Vertical Stabilizer

c)

Wings

d)

Fuselage

71.

Engines provide the power needed for the forward ________ of the aircraft.

a)

Drag

b)

Thrust

c)

Lift

d)

Gravity

72.

What is the aft section of the aircraft that mounts to the fuselage?

a)

Empanada

b)

Empoleon

c)

Empennage

d)

Rearnage

73.

Which aircraft structure is designed to reduce unwanted up and down movements of the tail?

a)

Empennage

b)

Fuselage

c)

Vertical Stabilizer

d)

Horizontal Stabilizer

74.

What are streamlined enclosures used primarily to house and protect the engine and its components, the landing gear when retracted and stowed in the wheel well, and the external fuel tanks if installed?

a)

Fuselages

b)

Empennages

c)

Nacelles

d)

Wings

75.

Where would the Vertical Stabilizer & Horizontal Stabilizer be located at?

a)

On the fuselage

b)

On the empennage

c)

On the wings

d)

On the landing gear

76.

An increase in load factor will cause an unmanned aircraft to

a)

stall at a higher airspeed

b)

have a tendency to spin

c)

be easier to control

77.

A stall occurs when the smooth airflow over the unmanned aircrafts wing/propeller(s) is disrupted and the lift reduces rapidly. This is caused when the wing/propeller

a)

exceeds maximum allowable operating weight

b)

exceeds the maximum speed

c)

exceeds its critical angle of attack

d)

exceeds the maximum rotational speed

78.

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

a)

position of the CG

b)

speed of the airplane

c)

abruptness at which the load is applied

79.

Which of the following is true regarding weight and balance of small unmanned aircraft?

a)

CG cannot change during flight

b)

lateral CG is not important to small unmanned aircraft operations

c)

operations outside weight and balance limitations may result in loss of control

d)

CG stands for "constant grind" as in "I'm always on a CG."

80.

When operating an aircraft, the remote PIC is responsible for using

a)

weight and balance data from the factory

b)

the most current weight and balance data

c)

recent weight and balance data

d)

outdated weight and balance data

81.

To ensure that the unmanned aircraft center of gravity (CG) limits are not exceeded, follow the aircraft loading instructions specified in the

a)

aircraft weight and balance handbook

b)

pilots operating handbook or UAS flight manual

c)

aeronautical information manual (AIM)

d)

FAA handbook for all sUAS

82.

What purpose does a rudder perform on an sUAS airplane?

a)

the rudder controls yaw

b)

the rudder controls bank

c)

the rudder controls pitch

d)

the rudder directly controls speed

83.

Why must the rotor under load never be allowed to go slow?

a)

The helicopter will stall

b)

Blades will bend/warp and cause structural damage

c)

you will be forced to jettison your load

d)

The blades will "cone"

84.

What does MSN stand for?

a)

Maintenance Serial Number

b)

Manufacturer Serial Number

c)

Mailfunction Serial Number

d)

Malpractice Serial Number

85.

An aircraft can fly when_________________________.

a)

it has a CAA certificate

b)

it has an authorized release certficate from the applicable authority

c)

it has a FAA certificate

86.

When an operator gets an SB it means that he/she must_____________.

a)

Service the aircraft

b)

Change a component

c)

Change the oil

d)

Change the crewmembers

87.

A SB is a notice that comes from _______________.

a)

The manufacturer of the aircraft

b)

The FAA

c)

A local authority

d)

The ICAO

88.

When the operator gets a SB he/she will probably issue a________________________.

a)

service order

b)

engineer order

c)

work order

d)

any of the above could be issued

89.

An operator needs a certificate of airworthiness,_____________.

a)

after landing

b)

before take off

c)

before landing

90.

The elevators helps an aircraft do what?

a)

Tilt

b)

Turn Right

c)

Turn Left

d)

Go up and down

91.

What function does a rudder on an aircraft serve?

a)

Helps slow down the plane

b)

For speed

c)

Allows the plane to turn

d)

Provides lift

92.

Define the principal of weight as it acts on an airplane

a)

Downward force caused by lift

b)

Downward force cause by gravity

c)

Downward force caused by a forward motion

d)

A force

93.

Flight controls are operated by:

a)

Cables, Drums and Pulleys

b)

Flaps, Ailerons and Rudder

c)

Cables, Pushrods and Bell cranks

94.

What aircraft cleaning methods removes oil, grease, or carbon deposits and most soils, with the exception of corrosion and oxide films?

a)

WET WASH

b)

DRY WASH

c)

POLISHING

95.

What aircraft cleaning methods used to remove airport film, dust, and small accumulations of dirt and soil when the use of liquids is neither desirable nor practical?

a)

WET WASH

b)

DRY WASH

c)

POLISHING

96.

Restores the luster to painted and unpainted surfaces of the aircraft, and is usually performed after the surfaces have been cleaned?

a)

WET WASH

b)

DRY WASH

c)

POLISHING

97.

What is the meaning of X in the head of the bolt

a)

Steel

b)

Stainless Steel

c)

Corrosion Resistant Steel

d)

Aluminum Alloy

98.

What is the meaning of a triangle in the head marking of a bolt

a)

Steel

b)

Corrosion Resistant Steel

c)

Close Tolerance

d)

Aluminum Alloy

99.

What is the meaning of single dash in the head marking of the bolt?

a)

Steel

b)

Aluminum Alloy

c)

Corrosion Resistant Steel

d)

Close Tolerance

100.

What is the meaning of double dash in the head marking of the bolt?

a)

Steel

b)

Aluminum alloy

c)

Corrosion resistant steel

d)

Close Tolerance

101.

What are the two types of cooling systems:

a)

Air and Vent

b)

Vent and Electric

c)

Liquid and Electric

d)

Liquid and Air

102.

True or False: An engines cooling system is designed to transfer excess heat from the engine to the atmosphere.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Another name for air resistance is...

a)

Buoyancy

b)

Streamline

c)

Gravity

d)

Drag

104.

As the temperature of oil increases...

a)

its viscosity increases and it flows more readily

b)

its viscosity decreases and it flows more readily

c)

its viscosity increases and it flows more slowly

d)

its viscosity decreases and it flows more slowly