wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Exam Chapter 11-21

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient presents with limited pernatal care. She has an obstetrical history of a prior cesarean birth with a traditional incision. She is in labor and is requesting to attempt to deliver the baby vaginally. How should the nurse respond?

a)

"There is no reason to stop you at this point, we will admit you to the unit"

b)

"Based on your history, vaginal delivery is not recommended, it might cause your uterus to rupture"

c)

"We can do a trial of monitored labor, but may have to do a cesarean anyway"

d)

"This is an emergency and we need to stop your contractions right now."

2.

The primary reason for a cesarean delivery is which of the following:

a)

Non reassuring fetal status

b)

Fetal malpresentation

c)

History of previous cesarean

d)

Labor dystocia

3.

The nurse is explaining the use of a score system to determine readiness for labor. What is the name of the score system used?

a)

Nadir

b)

Bishop

c)

Partogram

d)

Analogue

4.

A patient was started on induction of labor at 0500 am. It is now 1200 noon she is only dilated to 4cm. Her contractions are every 1 min and the fetus is showing signs of distress. What is the priority intervention by the nurses?

a)

Start oxygen therapy

b)

Change position of the mother

c)

Stop the oxytocin infusion

d)

Notify the health care provider

5.

Which lochia pattern should you report immediately to the RN or primary practitioner?

a)

Moderate lochia serosa on day 4 postpartum, increasing in volume and changing to rubra on day 5

b)

Moderate flow of lochia rubra on day 3 postpartum, changing to serosa on day 5

c)

Lochia progresses from rubra to serosa to alba within 10 days

d)

Moderate lochia rubra on day 3, mixed serosa and rubra on day 4, light serosa on day 5

6.

A woman has just delivered a baby. Her prelabor vital signs were T 98.9, BP-P-R 120/70, 80, 20. Which combination of findings during the early postpartum period should be reported immediately to the RN

a)

Shaking chills with a fever of 100.3

b)

BP 90/50, P 120, R24

c)

Bradycardia and excessive, soaking diaphoresis

d)

Blood loss of 250 mL and WBC 25,000 cell/mL

7.

Which maternal reaction is cause for concern and should prompt a consultation with the RN?

a)

She hesitates to take her newborn when offered and expresses disappointment with the way the baby looks

b)

She neglects to engage with or provide care for the baby and shows little intrest in it

c)

She is tearful for several days and has difficulty eating and sleeping

d)

She expresses doubt about her ability to care for the baby as well as the nurse can

8.

Which of the following patients would the nurse be most concerned about on post partum day 1?

a)

Temp: 99.4F HR 90 RR 18 BP 112/67

b)

Temp: 97.0F HR 80 RR 20 BP 120/72

c)

Temp: 100.4F HR 65 RR 22 BP 130/78

d)

Temp 98.6F HR 74 RR 16 BP 150/85

9.

A new mother adapts to her role as a mother through four developmental stages. Which stage is the first stage of adaptation?

a)

Maternal identify

b)

Physical restoration and learning to care for infant

c)

Shift in normal life to "new normal"

d)

Beginning attachment and preparation for family

10.

The nurse is concerned with the interactions between a mother and her 2 day old infant. The nurse observes signs of impaired bonding and attachment. Which of the following should the nurse document as a cause for concern?

a)

Making eye contact with the baby

b)

Breastfeeding the infant on demand

c)

Calling the baby it or they

d)

Asking for assistance changing a diaper

11.

The nurse is aware the complications of most concern with the highest priority for assessment in the first hour is what?

a)

Infection

b)

Dehydration

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

Bladder Distention

12.

A male baby is born at 5:15am on a Wednesday. At 1:15pm on the same day, the nurse notes yellow staining of the skin on the head and face of this infant. What does this finding likely indicate?

a)

The infant has physiologic jaundice

b)

The infant has pathologic jaundice

c)

The nurse should not expect the yellow staining to occur on the truck or extremities

d)

The unconjugated bilirubin levels in the infant are less than 4mg/dL

13.

The nurse observes a newborn. He notes that the respiration rate is 66, the nostrils flare out, and the newborn makes grunting sound during respiration. What does the nurse conclude from these findings? The infant is:

a)

Burning brown fat

b)

Cold stressed

c)

In respiratory distress

d)

Experiencing radiation heat loss

14.

The white thing coating on the infant at delivery should be documented as what finding?

a)

Lanugo

b)

Milia

c)

Vernix

d)

Amniotic fluid

15.

When caring for a newborn several hours after birth, you asses his respiratory rate. In a normal newborn, this would be

a)

12 to 16 breaths/min

b)

16 to 20 breaths/min

c)

20 to 30 breaths/min

d)

30 to 60 breaths/min

16.

While completing an admission assessment, the nurse notes the following: poor tone, low temp, jitteriness. The appropriate interventions if which of the following.

a)

Check infant temperature, again

b)

Complete an entire set of vital signs

c)

Assess the infant's blood sugar

d)

Check the oxygen saturation of the blood

17.

The nurse receives report from labor and delivery on an infant and mother couplet. Which reported AGPAR score would indicate a need for close observation for the entire transition period by the nurse?

a)

8 at 1 min; 9 to 5 min

b)

7 and 1 min; 8 at 5 min

c)

6 at 1 min; 7 to 5 min

d)

5 at 1 min; 6 to 5 min

18.

The LPN is aware of the importance of the initial newborn exam. The RN needs to complete the initial full physical exam in what time frame after delivery?

a)

30 min

b)

1 hr

c)

2 hr

d)

4 hr

19.

When assessing infant reflexes the nurse documents a startled response and extension of the arms and legs as which reflex?

a)

Fencing

b)

Moro

c)

Tonic neck

d)

Rooting

20.

The nurse is documenting assessment of infant reflexes. She strokes the side of the infants face and the baby turns toward the stroke. What reflex has the nurse elicited?

a)

Moro

b)

Tonic neck

c)

Rooting

d)

Sucking

21.

A very health mother delivered Baby Ambika, who had an immediate Apgar score of 10. Ambika has been cradled in a kangaroo hold by both her mother and her father for 45 min and her parents feel ready to get cleaned up and let the baby be taken care of by the health care personnel for a little while. What eye care action will the nurse now take?

a)

Instill 0.5 percent silver nitrate eye drops

b)

Instill 1 percent erythromycin eye drops

c)

Instill antibiotic 0.5 percent erythromycin or 1 percent tetracycline eye drops, if they are available, or 1 percent sliver nitrate if necessary.

d)

Wait to see if the eyes show sign of irritation before any eye care treatment is completed

22.

The nurse is working in the transition nursery. She knows the most critical transition time for a newborn is what period?

a)

First 24 hr

b)

First 12 hr

c)

First 4 hr

d)

First 2 hr

23.

A father asks the nurse what medication is in the baby's eyes and why it is needed. Which of the following is the appropriate explanation?

a)

Destroy an infectious exudate of the vaginal canal

b)

Prevent infection of the baby's eye by bacteria which may have been in the vaginal canal

c)

Prevent potentially harmful virus from invading the tear ducts.

d)

Prevent the baby's eyelids from sticking together to help see

24.

Infants receive vitamin K within the first hour after delivery. What is the rationale for administering the vitamin.

a)

Helps in formation of clotting factors, to prevent bleeding

b)

Is a routine vitamin needed by the infant

c)

Administered to give the infant better eye sight

d)

Used to help infant fight infection.

25.

The nurse providing discharge education on newborn care at home. The nurse provides instructions that infants need to be placed on their back to sleep. What is the nurse reducing the risk for with this education?

a)

Gastroesophageal reflux

b)

Sudden infant death syndrome

c)

Apnea Episodes

d)

Walking at night

26.

In response to inquires about producing enough milk for her infant, what is the correct advice a nurse can give an new mother regarding her own nutritional needs while breast feeding?

a)

Take a daily multivitamin

b)

Drink alot of milk

c)

Drink lots of fluids

d)

Consume a minimum of 3000 calories per day

27.

A 26 year old, first time mother who would like to have more children inquires about which birth control methods to use while breastfeeding her newborn. What should you advise her about the best birth control method?

a)

Tubal ligation

b)

Birth control pills

c)

Minipills

d)

Condoms

28.

A mother of a newborn is asking the nurse how long she should breastfeed her baby. How should the nurse respond to the mother?

a)

"6 weeks is a good goal, it is your choice"

b)

"It is recommended to breast feed until 1 year, longer if you want"

c)

" You can breastfeed as long as you want, but at least for 6 months"

d)

"There are no recommended guidlines"

29.

A woman on the postpartum unit is 1 day after delivery and asking when her milk will "come in". What information on breast milk production will the nurse provide?

a)

24 to 48 hours after delivery

b)

3 to 5 days after delivery

c)

7 to 9 days after delivery

d)

2 weeks after delivery

30.

Women who are breast feeding need more calories than in a normal day. What is the recommend number of additional calories per day?

a)

300 kcal/day

b)

500 kcal/day

c)

700 kcal/day

d)

1000 kcal/day

31.

The nurse is working with a breastfeeding couplet and attempting to assist the infant with position and latch. The nurse is asking the mother to place the infant abdomen to mother abdomen and tuck the infant's lower arm between her are and breast and the mother arm on the infant's back with the infants head in the bend of the mother's elbow. What is the common name for this position?

a)

Side-lying

b)

football hold

c)

cradle hold

d)

coss cradle hold

32.

Instructions for latching the infant on the breast would NOT include which of the following?

a)

Wide open mouth

b)

Tongue down

c)

Bottom lip out

d)

Nipple tip only

33.

The nurse is assessing the breastfeeding session of a newborn. The mother has a written record of breast feeding session duration. Which of the following is an appropriate length of time to breastfeed an infant?

a)

5 to 10 min each side

b)

10 to 20 min each side

c)

20 to 30 min each side

d)

30 to 40 min each side

34.

While the nurse is weighing a pregnant woman at a regularly scheduled OB visit, the patient complains of vaginal itching, a great deal of foamy yellow-green discharge, and pain during intercourse. She says this is her first pregnancy and she didnt know this was what happened. What can the nurse tell her?

a)

This is no normal for pregnancy but the doctor might test her for a simple yeast infection. If it is a yeast infection, it can be treated with a single-dose suppository that will not harm the fetus. Remind the patient that she should call immediately if she has any symptoms that dont seem normal to her

b)

This is not normal for pregnancy; the doctor might test her for chlamydia. If it is chlamydia, she and her partner can be treated with a 7 day course of antibiotics. Remind the patient that she should call immediately if she had any symptoms that dont seem normal to her.

c)

This is not normal for pregnancy; the doctor might test her for trichomoniasis. It it is trichomoniasis, she can be treated with an oral dose of metronidazole. Remind the patient that she should call immediately if she has any symptoms that dont seem normal to her.

d)

This is not normal for pregnancy; the doctor might test her for gonorrhea. If it is gonorrhea, she and her partner will be treated with antibiotics; they might be treated with different medications because some antibiotics normally used to treat gonorrhea are damaging to the fetus. Remind the patient that she should call immediately if she has any symptoms that dont seem normal to her.

35.

The nurse is helping an indigent HIV positive pregnant patient set up a post delievery care plan for her baby. What is an appropriate question/statement during that discussion?

a)

"You understand that you cant breast-feed, right? Even though formula's expensive, you'll need to figure out a way to get it"

b)

"You're not planning to breast feed are you? That would be dangerous for the baby."

c)

"HIV can be passes to the baby from breast feeding so its important that you give the baby formula. You probably cant afford formula can you?"

d)

"HIV can be passes to the baby from breast feeding so its important that you give the baby formula. Formula's pretty expensive so I'll give you some information for places you can contact if you ever need some help getting it."

36.

Nursing care for women diagnosed with gestational diabetes includes which of the following?

a)

Encourage blood glucose control

b)

Counseling the patient on the need for cesarean birth

c)

Education for the women on life long diabetic needs

d)

Referral for the infant to diabetic care after delievery

37.

A woman develops gestational diabetes. Which of the following self assessments should the woman be instructed to make daily?

a)

Test her urine for protein with a chemical reagent strip

b)

Measure her abdominal diameter with a tape measure

c)

Measure her uterine height by hand span distance

d)

Measure serum for glucose level by a finger prick

38.

A woman's baby is HIV positive at birth. She asks the nurse if this means the baby will develop AIDS. Which of the following statements would be the nurse's best answer?

a)

"She already had AIDS. That's what being HIV positive means"

b)

"The antibodies may be those transferred across the placenta; the baby may not develop AIDS"

c)

"HIV is transmitted at birth; having a cesarean birth prevented transmission."

d)

"HIV antibodies do not cross the placenta; these means the baby will develop AIDS."

39.

Which of the following is recommended to prevent transmission of HIV to a new born if the mother has AIDS?

a)

Avoid scalp electrodes for internal fetal monitoring

b)

Admit infant to the NICU after delivery

c)

Perform amniotomy

d)

Prepare for cesarean delivery

40.

A 21 year old patient arrives at the prenatal clinical at 12 weeks gestation and has a positive STI. Which of the following should the nurse be aware of that would indicate the patient is at high risk for non compliance with treatment for the STI?

a)

Has a job and health insurance

b)

Noted to have history of substance abuse

c)

Live with parents who are supportive of pregnancy

d)

Monogamous relationship with father of baby

41.

An 18 year old pregnant patient is hospitalizes as she recovers from hyperemesis gravidarym. In the course of the LPNs care, the patient reveals that she wanted to have an abortion when she discovered her pregnancy but her own and the father’s cultural backgrounds forbade it. She is very unhappy about being pregnant and even expresses a wish that the fetus will develop a condition that will cause it to spontaneously abort. What is the best action the LPN can take to respond to the patient’s distress?

a)

Reassure the patient that her conversation with the LPN is confidential and encourage her to continue to share her feelings

b)

Contact the hospital’s psychiatry department to have someone see the patient

c)

Consult with the RN about offering the patient a chance to speak with a psychiatric or social worker

d)

Share the information with the physician and the patient’s family

42.

Which of the following is the best question the nurse can asking a woman who is leaving the hospital after experiencing a complete spontaneous abortion?

a)

“Are you going to try again?”

b)

“Do you have someone to talk to or may I give you the names and numbers for some possible grief counselors?”

c)

“Did you know that 75 percent of women who are trying to get pregnant experience spontaneous abortions like you have?”

d)

“May I give you some resources that you can use to try to stop smoking?”

43.

In returning to the hospital floor after a weekend off, the nurse takes over care of a pregnant patient who is resting in a darkened room. The patient is receiving betamethasone and magnesium sulfate. What could the nurse deduce from those findings?

a)

The patient is suffering from hypertension and the care team is trying to lower her blood pressure so that she may return home until the baby is full term.

b)

The patient is suffering from eclampsia and the care team is attempting to

prevent stroke and induce labor.

c)

The patient is suffering from severe preeclampsia and the care team is

attempting to prevent advancement of the disorder to eclampsia; they are attempting to help the baby's lungs mature quickly so that they can deliver as soon as possible.

d)

The patient is suffering from mild preeclampsia and the care team is attempting to stabilize her and the baby before discharging her to home.

44.

A woman in labor has sharp fundal pain accompanied by slight vaginal bleeding. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of these symptoms?

a)

Premature separation of the placenta

b)

Preterm labor that was undiagnosed

c)

Placenta pre via obstructing the cervix

d)

Possible fetal death or injury

45.

A primipara at 36 weeks gestation is being monitored in the prenatal clinic for risk of preeclampsia. Which of the following signs or symptoms is the priority concern for the nurse?

a)

A systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm hg.

b)

Weight gain of 1.2 lb during the past 1 week

c)

A dipstick value of 2+ for protein

d)

Pedal edema.

46.

Select the statement by the pregnant woman that indicates the need for more teaching about preeclampsia.

a)

“If I have changes in my vision, I will like down and rest.”

b)

“I will weigh myself every morning after voiding before breakfast.”

c)

“I will count my baby’s movements twice a day.”

d)

“If I have a slight headache I’kill take Tylenol and call if unrelieved.”

47.

The following hourly assessments are obtained by the nurse on a patient with preeclampsia receiving Magnesium Sulfate: 97.3, P88, R10, blood pressure 148/110. What other priority physical assessment by the nurse should be implemented to assess for potential toxicity?

a)

Lung sounds

b)

Oxygen Saturation

c)

Reflexes

d)

Magnesium sulfate levels

48.

A woman of 38 weeks gestation with a history of preeclampsia comes to the health care provider's office after experiencing dark red vaginal bleeding, and a tense distended painful abdomen. Select the assessment the nurse should implement first.

a)

Braxton Hicks contractions

b)

Vital Signs

c)

Fetal activity

d)

Urine for protein and sugar

49.

The nurse through assessment can best differentiate between placenta previa and abrupt placenta by which of the following signs and or symptoms.

a)

Bleeding amount and consistency

b)

Uterine tone and contractions of the uterus

c)

Low back pain

d)

Shape of the abdomen

50.

When providing counseling on early pregnancy loss, the nurse should include what as the most common cause for spontaneous abortion?

a)

Maternal smoking

b)

Lack of prenatal care

c)

Chromosomal defect

d)

The age of the mother

51.

A patient is admitted to labor and delivery for management of severe preeclampsia. An IV infusion of magnesium sulfate is started. What is the primary goal for magnesium sulfate therapy?

a)

Decreased blood pressure

b)

Decreased protein in urine

c)

Prevent maternal seizures

d)

Reverse edema

52.

A woman presents to the delivery suite at 36 weeks' gestation reporting continuous, heavy vaginal discharge and pelvic pressure. A Nitrazine test confirms PROM. There is no sign of infection. She is admitted to the hospital for watchful waiting. You will be caring for her; which of the following interventions will you be most likely to perform?

a)

Administer 48 hours of antibiotics IV followed by 5 days PO

b)

Perform daily pelvic exams to monitor her progress.

c)

Administer IM corticosteroids to promote fetal lung maturation.

d)

Administer oxytocin to induce labor.

53.

A nonsmoking woman, pregnant for the first time at 28 years of age and expecting twins, presents at 36 weeks' gestation complaining of backache and painful uterine contractions. You examine her and find no cervical dilation or pooling of fluid. What is the best course of action?

a)

Admit her and put her on a fetal monitor

b)

Perform Nitrazine and fern tests.

c)

Admit her and consult with the practitioner or RN about the need for tocolytics.

d)

Send her home for bed rest and hydration with orders to return if her water

breaks or her contractions worsen

54.

A multigravida presents at 31 weeks' gestation with signs and symptoms of preterm labor. The diagnosis is confirmed and she is admitted and given magnesium sulfate. What must you report as part of her care?

a)

Low potassium or elevated glucose, tachycardia, chest pain

b)

Respiratory depression, hypotension, absent tendon reflexes

c)

Severe lower back pain, leg cramps, sweating

d)

Pain in the abdomen, shoulder, or back

55.

A woman near term presents to the clinic highly agitated because her membranes have just ruptured and she felt something come out when they did. You are alone with her and notice that the umbilical cord is hanging out of the vagina. What should you do next?

a)

Put her in bed immediately, call for help, and hold the presenting part of the cord.

b)

With the woman in lithotomy position, hold her legs and sharply flex them toward her shoulders.

c)

Go find the RN to confirm that the cord is in the vagina.

d)

Prep the woman for a vaginal delivery.

56.

At 31 weeks' gestation, a 37-year-old woman who has a history of preterm birth reports cramps, vaginal pain, and low, dull backache accompanied by vaginal discharge and bleeding. Her cervix is 2.1 cm long; she has fetal fibronectin in her cervical secretions, and her cervix is dilated 3 to 4 cm. For what do you prepare her?

a)

Bed rest and hydration at home

b)

Hospitalization, tocolytic therapy, and IM corticosteroids

c)

An emergency cesarean section

d)

Careful monitoring of fetal kick counts

57.

A woman at 32 weeks' gestation is admitted in preterm labor. On your admission assessment, which of following findings should cause the nurse to question the administration of a tocolytic agent?

a)

Cervical dilation of 5 cm

b)

Strong regular contractions

c)

Fetus in breech presentation

d)

A spontaneous absorption in an early pregnancy.

58.

A woman whose membranes have prematurely ruptured is discharged to home care. Which of the following therapies would you anticipate including in her teaching plan?

a)

Monitoring temperature twice a day

b)

Induction of labor by oxytocin.

c)

Bed rest in a semi-Fowler's position.

d)

Hourly assessment of Homan's sign.

59.

A woman who had preterm labor successfully halted reaches week 36 of pregnancy and is doing well on home care. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most pertinent for her?

a)

Risk for fetal infection related to early rupture of membranes

b)

Hopelessness related to potential loss of pregnancy

c)

Anticipatory grieving related to high probability for fetal death from placental dysfunction

d)

Powerlessness related to inability to sustain pregnancy

60.

At 35 weeks, gestation a woman experiences pre-term labor. Tocolytics are administered and she is on bed rest at home. Select the teaching intervention that should be implemented by the nurse?

a)

Assess pulse daily and if over 100 call the health care provider

b)

Fetal kick counts should be 10 per hour, call if under 3 are felt

c)

A non stress test will be done to evaluate late deceleration

d)

Sexual intercourse can be resumed when the contractions stop for two days

61.

When a woman in labor reached 8 cm dilation, you notice the fetal heart rate suddenly slows. On peritoneal inspection, you observe the fetal cord has prolapsed. You first action would be to

a)

Turn her to her left side

b)

Place her in a knee-chest position

c)

Replace the cord with gentle pressure

d)

Cover the exposed cord with a dry, sterile wrap.

62.

At the hospital, a client is attached to the fetal monitor for uterine rupture. The nurse would assess for which pattern indicating change in the uterus impacting the fetus?

a)

Late decelerations

b)

Early decelerations

c)

Variable decelerations

d)

Mild decelerations

63.

The nurse providing care for a woman with preterm labor on terbutaline (Brethine) would include which of the following assessments for safe administration of the drug?

a)

Deep tendon reflexes

b)

Breath sounds

c)

For tachycardia

d)

For elevated blood glucose

64.

A patient is 32 weeks gestation and sent home on modified bed rest for preterm labor. She is on tocolyitits and wants to know when she can have intercourse again with her husband. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

a)

"You will not be able to have intercourse again until 6 weeks after you deliver."

b)

"The need to keep the infant safe should be of more concern than when to have sex."

c)

"That is a question to ask your health care provider, at this point you are on pelvic rest to try and stop any further labor."

d)

"Intercourse has nothing to do with preterm labor; you can have sex with you husband."

65.

A patient is 23 weeks gestation and was admitted for induction and delivery after noting the infant was an intrauterine fetal death. The patient had fallen 3 days prior to the diagnosis and landed on her side. What is the most likely attributable cause to the fetal death.

a)

Genetic abnormality

b)

Premature rupture of membranes

c)

Preeclampsia

d)

Placental abruption

66.

Within 24 hours of delivery, Diane begins to complain of pain in the pelvic region. Comfort measures and medication fail to eliminate the pain, her pulse is rapid, and her blood pressure, hematocrit, and hemoglobin are low. Her fundus is firm, however, and her lochia is dark red and flowing in only moderate amounts; no pooling is evident. You tell the RN you suspect

a)

Retained placental fragments

b)

Deep-vein thrombosis

c)

Lacerations in the uterus

d)

Deep pelvic hematoma

67.

Samantha delivered her fourth child after protracted and difficult labor during which oxytocin was used to augment her contractions. The next day, her vaginal bleeding continues to be moderately heavy with numerous large clots. Palpating her fundus, you find that it is in the midline but boggy and above the level of the umbilicus. Fundal massage is indicated; what should you do first?

a)

Ensure that her bladder is empty

b)

Place one hand over the symphysis pubis

c)

Seek an order to obtain and administer an oxytocic

d)

Insert uterine packing to control the hemorrhage

68.

Initial measures to stop Jessica's bleeding have not proved successful and she is being transferred to the ICU. Her family is frightened by the IV lines and the nasal cannula; Jessica's brother suddenly says to her partner, “This is all your fault!” What is the best response by the nurse?

a)

Leave the room quietly; this is a family matter

b)

Draw the brother aside and tell him that if he can't control himself, he'll have to

leave.

c)

Explain Jessica's care, focusing on any signs of improvement, while

acknowledging that this is a difficult time for them

d)

Tell them that the RN will be notified, who will explain Jessica's treatment to

them.

69.

Brenda develops mastitis 3 weeks after delivery. What part of self-care do you tell her is most important

a)

To take her antibiotic medication for the full 10 days even if she begins to feel

better sooner

b)

To use NSAIDs, warm showers, and warm compresses to relieve her discomfort

c)

To breast-feed or otherwise empty her breasts every 1 to 2 hours

d)

To increase her fluid intake to ensure that she will continue to produce adequate

milk

70.

Which of the following is the most frequent redoing for postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Endometritis

b)

Uterine atony

c)

Perineal lacerations

d)

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

71.

A postpartal woman calls you into her room because she is having a very heavy lochia flow containing large clots. Your first action would be

a)

Assess her blood pressure

b)

Palpate her fundus

c)

Have her turn to her left side

d)

Assess her perineum

72.

The nurse assesses the patient who is one hour postpartum and observes a heavy steady gush of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus. Select the most likely cause of the signs and symptoms

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Lacerations

c)

Perineal hematoma

d)

Infection of the uterus

73.

On examining a woman who gave birth 5 hours ago, the nurse finds that the woman

has completely saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. should be implemented first?

a)

Begin an IV infusion of Ringer's lactate solution

b)

Assess the woman's vital signs

c)

Call the woman's health care provider

d)

Assess the woman's fundus

74.

The nurse assess the fungus of a woman who delivered 1 hour ago. The fungus is boggy and 2 cm about the umbilicus and to the right. Choose the major complication which would be mostly likely to occur?

a)

Urinary infection

b)

Excessive bleeding

c)

A ruptured bladder

d)

Bladder wall distention

75.

When assessing a postpartum patient who was diagnosed with a cervical laceration which has been repaired, what sign should the nurse report as a possible development of hypovolemic shock

a)

Warm and flushed skin

b)

Weak and rapid pulse

c)

Elevated blood pressure

d)

Decreased respiratory rate

76.

. The nurse has attempted to massage a boggy uterus to firm state without success. The next intervention the nurse should anticipate is the administration of what medication

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Digoxin

77.

When assessing the patient for postpartum hemorrhage the nurse monitors which of the following every hour?

a)

Complete blood count

b)

Vital signs

c)

Pad count

d)

Urine volume excreted

78.

The nurse is assessing the breast of a woman who is 1 month postpartum. The woman is complaining of a painful area on one breast with a red area. The nurse notes a local area on one breast, red and warm to touch. Which of the following should the nurse suspect is the potential diagnosis?

a)

Breast yeast

b)

Mastitis

c)

Plugged milk duct

d)

Engorgement

79.

The nurse is caring for 22-hour-old neonate Antonio, who had a good Apgar score, nursed without difficulty, and seemed healthy when the nursing shift began. As the nurse's shift goes on, the nurse notices that the whites of his eyes and his skin have begun to take on a yellow hue. The nurse would report this as a possible indication of what condition

a)

Heroin withdrawal

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Hemolytic disease

80.

While the nurse is weighing and measuring a toddler during his annual checkup, the toddler's mother mentions that she is thinking of having another child. The toddler is small in stature and seems mildly developmentally delayed. His eyelid folds are short and his nose is flat. What do the toddler's characteristics suggest is the best advice the nurse can give this mother about pregnancy?

a)

It's a good idea to stop drinking alcohol 3 months before trying to get pregnant

b)

It's important to add iron and vitamin B supplements to your diet

c)

It would be good to stop smoking before getting pregnant

d)

It's important to keep insulin levels controlled during pregnancy

81.

. The nurse is discussing factors related to preterm birth with a group of peers. Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to a preterm birth?

a)

The use of tocolytics to relax the uterus

b)

The use of corticosteroids to enhance lung maturity

c)

The use of fertility treatments resulting in multiple births

d)

The use of antibiotics to treat prenatal infections

82.

In comparing the preterm infant with the term infant the nurse recognizes which of the following characteristics would likely be seen in the male preterm infant?

a)

Smooth skin

b)

Lanugo on the back and shoulders

c)

Descended testicles

d)

Subcutaneous fat on the extremities

83.

The nurse recognizes that the preterm newborn's physiologic immaturity causes many difficulties involving virtually all body systems. The most critical concern of this physiologic immaturity relates to which body system?

a)

The genitourinary system

b)

The musculoskeletal system

c)

The endocrine system

d)

The respiratory system

84.

The nurse recognizes that there are complications commonly associated with preterm newborns. Of the following complications, which would most likely be a concern for the preterm newborn?

a)

Decreased muscle tone

b)

Loss of body heat

c)

Excess antibodies acquired from the mother

d)

Increased caloric intake

85.

The nurse is caring for a newborn with hyaline membrane disease. Which of the following is the best explanation of this disorder?

a)

The infant's liver is unable to manage the bilirubin produced by hemolysis

b)

The infant has bleeding into the ventricles of the brain

c)

The infant's lungs are immature and deficient in surfactant

d)

The infant has a degenerative disease of the retina

86.

The nurse is caring for a newborn with retinopathy of prematurity (ROP). Which of the following is the best explanation of this disorder?

a)

The infant's liver is unable to manage the bilirubin produced by hemolysis

b)

The infant has bleeding into the ventricles of the brain

c)

The infant's lungs are immature and deficient in surfactant

d)

The infant has a degenerative disease of the retina

87.

The nurse is caring for a preterm infant in the newborn nursery. Which of the following would be appropriate nursing diagnosis for this infant? (Select all that apply

a)

Ineffective breathing pattern

b)

Ineffective thermoregulation

c)

Risk for fluid volume excess

d)

Risk for imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements

e)

Risk for impaired skin integrity

88.

The nurse is caring for a newborn with hemolytic disease of the newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate for the nurse to do?

a)

The nurse leaves the light off for one hour 6 times a day

b)

The nurse dresses the newborn in a lightweight gown at night

c)

The nurse turns the newborn every 3 or 4 hours

d)

The nurse removes and changes the eye patches every hour

89.

The nurse is caring for a newborn of a substance abusing mother who is withdrawing from alcohol. Which of the following would the nurse likely see in this newborn?

a)

The newborn is above average birth weight

b)

The newborn has a large head circumference

c)

The newborn is lethargic and sleepy

d)

The newborn is hyperactive and irritable

90.

After conferring with the care provider, the nurse who is caring for the newborn with spina bifida can best increase the baby's comfort and development by teaching the parents how to

a)

Diaper the baby safely

b)

Hold the baby during feeding

c)

Cuddle the baby in a chest-to-chest position

d)

Clean and moisturize the myelomeningocele sac

91.

Which of the following best describes the disorder known as spina bifida with myelomeningocele

a)

There is protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges, with nerve roots embedded

b)

The spinal meninges protrude through the bony defect and form a cystic sac

c)

There is no protrusion of the spinal cord, only soft-tissue inflammation occurs

d)

There is a bony defect that occurs without soft-tissue involvement

92.

Which of the following best describes the disorder known as spina bifida occulta?

a)

There is protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges, with nerve roots embedded

b)

The spinal meninges protrude through the bony defect and form a cystic sac

c)

There is no protrusion of the spinal cord, only soft-tissue inflammation occurs

d)

There is a bony defect that occurs without soft-tissue involvement

93.

Which of the following best describes the disorder known as spina bifida with meningocele?

a)

There is protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges, with nerve roots embedded

b)

The spinal meninges protrude through the bony defect and form a cystic sac

c)

There is no protrusion of the spinal cord, only soft-tissue inflammation occurs

d)

There is a bony defect that occurs without soft-tissue involvement

94.

A nurse is working with a child who has spina bifida. The highest priority nursing goal for this child would be which of the following?

a)

Reducing family anxiety

b)

Preventing infection

c)

Providing caregiver teaching

d)

Promoting comfort measures

95.

A group of nursing students is discussing hydrocephalus. The students make the following statements related to the noncommunicating type of congenital hydrocephalus. Which statement is the most accurate?

a)

“There is a decreased production of cerebrospinal fluid

b)

“There is an obstruction that keeps cerebrospinal fluid from passing between the ventricles and the spinal cord

c)

“There is an opening between the ventricles and the spinal cord that usually closes at birth

d)

There is defective absorption of cerebrospinal fluid

96.

A group of nursing students is discussing hydrocephalus. The students make the following statements related to the communicating type of congenital hydrocephalus. Which statement is the most accurate?

a)

“There is a decreased production of cerebrospinal fluid.”

b)

“There is an obstruction that keeps cerebrospinal fluid from passing between the ventricles and the spinal cord.”

c)

“There is an opening between the ventricles and the spinal cord that usually closes at birth.

d)

“There is defective absorption of cerebrospinal fluid.”

97.

When collecting data on a child with hydrocephalus, in addition to the child likely having a large head at birth and rapid head growth, which of the following signs might be the nurse recognize as manifestations of this disorder?

a)

Posterior fontanelle bulging and tense

b)

Eyes appear to be pushed downward

c)

Hands short with curved fingers

d)

Neck area is thickened and strong

98.

The nurse is caring for a child following a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following will be the highest priority for the nurse during the first 12 hours post procedure?

a)

Keeping the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees

b)

Observing the extremity

c)

Changing the dressing at least every three hours

d)

Monitoring for signs of infection