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HESI Med Surg Prep Questions

Total questions: 32

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An adult is admitted to telemetry to rule out a Myocardial Infarction. The client states, “I am not sure if it is just angina, and I cannot understand the difference between angina and heart attack pain.” Which response is most appropriate for the nurse to make?

a)

Anginal pain requires morphine for relief

b)

Anginal pain produces clenching of the fists over the chest while acute MI pain does not

c)

Anginal pain radiates to the left arm while acute MI pain does not

d)

Anginal pain usually stops after resting

2.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to Isla, who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

Exercise at least three times per week

b)

Take diuretics early in the morning and before bedtime

c)

Notify the provider of a weight gain of 0.5 kg (1 lb) in a week

d)

Take naproxen for generalized discomfort

3.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin to treat angina pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

Apply a new transdermal patch once a week.

b)

Apply the transdermal patch in the morning.

c)

Apply the transdermal patch in the same location as the previous patch.

d)

Apply a new transdermal patch when chest pain is experienced.

4.

A client comes to the emergency department in acute decompensated heart failure. The client is very anxious, with a respiratory rate of 30/min and pink, frothy sputum. After placing the client on oxygen via nasal cannula, which of these actions is the next priority?

a)

Administer digoxin 0.25mg

b)

Initiate dopamine infusion at 5mcg/kg/min

c)

Administer furosemide 40mg IV push

d)

Obtain blood sample for arterial blood gases

5.

Three nursing students are studying electrocardiographic (ECG) changes. They come across a case where a client is experiencing chest pain. Which ECG change should they report to the health care provider as the most important?

a)

First-degree atrioventricular block

b)

ST-segment elevation

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Inverted P wave

6.

The nurse is reviewing a client's health history during a primary care visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as risk factors for developing hypertension? Select all that apply.

a)

African American ethnicity

b)

Diabetes mellitus type 2

c)

Smoking 1 pack of cigarettes daily

d)

Frequent stress at work

e)

LDL of 94 mg/dL

7.

Which statement made by a patient with coronary artery disease after the nurse has completed teaching about the therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) diet indicates that further teaching is needed?

a)

I can have a glass of wine with dinner if I want one.

b)

I will switch from whole milk to 1% milk.

c)

I like salmon and I will plan to eat it more often.

d)

I will miss being able to eat peanut butter sandwiches.

8.

A nurse is teaching the partner of a client who had an acute myocardial infarction (MI) about the reason blood was drawn from the client. Which of the following statements should the nurse make regarding cardiac enzyme studies?

a)

"Cardiac enzymes will identify the location of the MI."

b)

"These tests help determine the degree of damage to the heart tissues."

c)

"These tests will enable the provider to determine the heart structure and mobility of the heart valves."

d)

"Cardiac enzymes assist in diagnosing the presence of pulmonary congestion."

9.

A nurse is preparing a health education session about herpes zoster for a group of senior citizens at the local community center. What crucial information should the nurse include in her presentation?

a)

Vesicles will appear followed by pain and or itching

b)

Many clients experience pain in the affected area for weeks after the lesions have resolved

c)

The lesions are contagious to others only if they are draining

d)

Herpes zoster is easily spread to family and friends who have had chickenpox in the past

10.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a pressure ulcer. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings is a manifestation of a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

a)

Partial-thickness skin loss

b)

Necrotic subcutaneous tissue

c)

Blood-filled blisters

d)

Exposed bone

11.

GCS is based on three patient responses. Which of the following is not one of them?

a)

Eye

b)

Pain

c)

Verbal

d)

Motor

12.

Which of the following are nursing interventions for a patient with bacterial meningitis? Select all that apply.

a)

Antibiotic therapy

b)

ICP Monitoring

c)

Standard Precautions

d)

Seizure Precautions

13.

Which of the following are interventions for SIADH?

Select all that apply.

a)

Hypertonic saline

b)

Fluid restriction

c)

Seizure precautions

d)

Loop diuretics

14.

What is the purpose of continuous bladder irrigation after a TURP?

a)

Prevent postoperative bleeding

b)

Prevent infection

c)

Prevent bladder perforation

d)

Prevent clot formation

15.

A nursing student is shadowing a senior nurse in a hospital. They just performed a thoracentesis on a patient. The nursing student is instructed to monitor the patient's vital signs. Which of the following findings should she report to the senior nurse immediately?

a)

Pain level 6/10

b)

SpO2 88%

c)

Respiratory Rate of 24

d)

Blood pressure 160/90

16.

A RN is caring for a client with cirrhosis and portal hypertension. Which of the following is a serious complication?

a)

Intestinal obstruction

b)

Perforation of the duodenum

c)

Hemorrhage of esophageal varices

d)

Liver abscess

17.

A nurse encounters a patient with abdominal pain and elevated amylase and lipase levels. What should be the nurse's primary intervention?

a)

NG Decompression

b)

Monitor I's and O's

c)

Restrict Carbohydrates

d)

Place the client in a supine position

18.

Three students are studying the 5 P's of Compartment Syndrome. They want to know which of the 5 P's are early signs of the condition. Can you help them?

a)

Pallor

b)

Pulselessness

c)

Paresthesias

d)

Pain out of proportion or on passive stretch

e)

Paralysis

19.

A surgeon is about to perform a valve replacement surgery on a patient. She needs to choose a type of valve that requires anticoagulation and is considered most durable. Which type of valve should she choose?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Bovine

c)

Porcine

20.

Fat embolisms are associated with what type of fracture?

a)

Comminuted

b)

Long bone

c)

Transverse

d)

Compound

21.

The RN observes a UAP providing care to a client in skeletal traction. What action by the UAP prompts the RN to intervene?

Select all that apply.

a)

Allows the weights to touch the floor

b)

Ensures the client is appropriately aligned in bed

c)

Assists the client with passive ROM on the unaffected extremity

d)

Adjusts the weights on the traction

22.

Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with stomatitis?

a)

Electric toothbrush

b)

Drinking hot tea at frequent intervals

c)

Gargling with antiseptic wash

d)

Eating a soft bland diet

23.

A client is in the acute phase of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following should the nurse identify as lowest priority in the plan of care?

a)

Maintaining usual ways of accomplishing tasks.

b)

Relieving pain.

c)

Preventing joint deformity.

d)

Preserving joint function.

24.

A nurse is monitoring the effectiveness of antiretrovirals for a client with AIDS. What findings indicate the medications are working?

Select all the Apply

a)

Decreased neutrophil count

b)

Decreased white blood cell count

c)

Increased CD4+ T cell count

d)

Decreased viral load

25.

What interventions can the perioperative nurse employ to prevent hypothermia in the surgical client?

a)

Wrap extremities in pressure dressings to maintain heat

b)

Enforce regular incentive spirometer use after the procedure

c)

Use forced air warming blankets

d)

Place hot packs under the axilla and lower back

26.

Three students are studying for their nursing exams. They come across a question about the most life-threatening risk during the perioperative period. Which of the following is the most life-threatening risk during the perioperative period?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Delirium

c)

Malignant hypertension

d)

Malignant hyperthermia

27.

A nurse is assessing a patient with COPD. Which of the following symptoms should she consider as a priority complication of COPD?

a)

Crackles and edema

b)

Tachypnea and drowsiness

c)

Cough with thick green sputum

d)

Barrel chest

28.

The most common causes of AKI include which of the following? (SATA)

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Hypertension

c)

Nephrotoxic medications

d)

Diabetes

29.

What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with a thrombotic stroke?

a)

Cholesterol level

b)

EKG Rhythm

c)

Pupil size and pupillary response

d)


Bowel sounds

30.

A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with numbness and weakness of the left arm and slurred speech. Which nursing intervention is a priority?

a)

Prepare to administer recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA)

b)

Discuss the precipitating factors that caused the symptoms

c)

Schedule for A STAT computer tomography (CT) scan of the head

d)

Notify the speech pathologist for an emergency consultation.

31.

A patient is receiving treatment for Crohn's Disease. Which food found on the patient's food tray should the patient avoid?

a)

Fresh salad

b)

Baked chicken

c)

Cooked skinless apples

d)

White rice

32.

The nurse is assessing an older adult client. Which finding should cause the nurse to suspect the client has Parkinson disease (PD)? (Select all that​ apply.)

a)

The​ client's facial expression shows no emotion.

b)

The client has a slurred speech.

c)

The client does not remember what he ate for breakfast.

d)

The​ client's blood pressure increases when the client stands up.

e)

The client has hand tremors at rest.