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Pre-test- Principles of Business Management

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The careful, objective study of management decisions and procedures in order to improve the operation of businesses and organizations.

a)

management science

b)

industrial revolution

c)

controling

d)

management

2.

The era of the 18th and 19th centuries in which machine power replaced human and animal power in the production process.

a)

industrial revolution

b)

behavioral management

c)

management science

d)

management strategy

3.

A manager whose main job is to direct the work of employees.

a)

supervisor

b)

executive

c)

middle manager

d)

leader

4.

A manager who completes all the functions, but spends most of the time completing specialized work in one management function or is responsible for a specific part of the company's operations.

a)

middle manager

b)

supervisor

c)

executive

d)

administrator

5.

A top-level manager who spends almost all of their time on management functions and decisions that affect the entire company.

a)

executive

b)

supervisor

c)

middle manager

d)

team leader

6.

Determining how plans can be accomplished most effectively and arranging resources for complete work.

a)

organizing

b)

controlling

c)

planning

d)

leading

7.

Evaluating results to determine if the company's objectives have been accomplished as planned.

a)

controlling

b)

leading

c)

planning

d)

organizing

8.

____ management studies the way work is organized and the procedures used to complete a job in order to increase worker productivity.

a)

classical

b)

behavioral

c)

administrative

d)

quality

9.

___ management identifies the most effective practices for organizing and managing a business.

a)

classical

b)

behavioral

c)

administrative

d)

quality

10.

a difficult situation requiring a solution

a)

problem

b)

symptom

c)

subordinate

d)

contingency plan

11.

documents that identify the tasks to be done, employees assigned to the work, and the time frame for completion of each task.

a)

work schedules

b)

contingency plan

c)

time management

d)

quality control

12.

An experienced manager who meets regularly with a new manager to provide feedback and advice

a)

work coach

b)

supervisor

c)

subordinate

d)

entrepreneur

13.

The process of making sure work meets acceptable standards

a)

quality control

b)

time management

c)

work schedules

d)

performance review

14.

an alternative course of action to be followed if a specific problem arises

a)

contingency plan

b)

performance review

c)

management role

d)

problem

15.

a computer-based system that stores, organizes, and provides information about a business

a)

Management Information System

b)

time management

c)

quality control

d)

performance review

16.

a procedure used to evaluate the work and accomplishment of an employee and provide feedback on performance

a)

performance review

b)

contingency plan

c)

MIS

d)

quality control

17.

Which of the following is NOT one of the roles of successful managers?

a)

rule enforcer

b)

decision maker

c)

relationship builder

d)

communicator

18.

A manager who is knowledgeable about industry trends, competition, and new technology is likely to influence behavior through

a)

expert power

b)

identity power

c)

position power

d)

reward power

19.

A manager who realizes that each employee has a different background, as well as different attitudes, skills & needs is demonstrating human the relations skill of

a)

communication

b)

self-awareness

c)

understanding others

d)

employee empowerment

20.

Leaders who can see all sides of a problem and not make biased judgments or statements are said to possess

a)

initiative

b)

courage

c)

judgement

d)

objectivity

21.

The type of power that results from the manager's knowledge and skills is

a)

position power

b)

reward power

c)

expert power

d)

identity power

22.

When managers increase employees' salaries when they meet the goals established for them, what type of power are the managers using?

a)

position power

b)

reward power

c)

expert power

d)

identity power

23.

A type of power often invested in experienced or well-liked employees is

a)

position power

b)

reward power

c)

expert power

d)

identity power

24.

What type of power is granted to managers by employees because the employees determine the managers are worthy of it?

a)

expert and identity

b)

expert and position

c)

power and reward

d)

identity and position

25.

Strategic planning

a)

is short-term planning

b)

provides broad goals and direction for the entire business.

c)

determines how work will be done and who will do it.

d)

is a short, specific statement of the purpose and direction of the business.

26.

Staff advice is usually illustrated on an organization chart with

a)

broken lines

b)

curved lines

c)

dots and dashes

d)

small icons

27.

To be effective, goals must be

a)

general

b)

achievable

c)

independent from each other

d)

all of these

28.

A widely used financial planning tool is a

a)

budget

b)

policy

c)

standard

d)

goal

29.

To ensure that the quality of work is acceptable, businesses develop

a)

organization charts

b)

goals

c)

standards

d)

schedules

30.

The obligation of an employee to accept responsibility for the outcomes of assigned tasks is called

a)

accountability

b)

authority

c)

empowerment

d)

span of control

31.

Which of the following is NOT an important leading activity?

a)

hiring employees

b)

employee motivation

c)

effective communications

d)

consensus building

32.

A group of people who cooperate to achieve a common goal is

a)

a work team

b)

a department

c)

management

d)

a quality circle

33.

The motivation theory that describes individual needs in five categories that form a hierarchy was developed by

a)

Herzberg

b)

Iacoocca

c)

McClelland

d)

Maslow

34.

Employees who take personal responsibility for their own work and set personal goals have a high need for

a)

achievement

b)

affiliation

c)

power

d)

hygiene

35.

Who developed a motivation theory that suggests individuals are influenced most strongly by the need for achievement, affiliation, or power?

a)

Abraham Maslow

b)

David McClelland

c)

Frederick Herzberg

d)

Malcolm Baldridge

36.

According to Herzberg, pay & fringe benefits, working conditions and type of supervision are examples of

a)

motivators

b)

needs

c)

hygiene factors

d)

performance standards

37.

What type of business produces things that other businesses use to make things?

a)

goods-producing business

b)

industry

c)

small business

d)

wholesale business

38.

Laying off workers or dropping unprofitable products are examples of

a)

specialization

b)

downsizing

c)

global competition

d)

empowerment

39.

Which of the following refers to a commitment of excellence?

a)

CPI

b)

TQM

c)

GDP

d)

P&L

40.

Activities in the underground economy

a)

are taxed at a lower rate

b)

account for one-third of the GDP

c)

have decreased in relationship to GDP

d)

are not taxed

41.

According to this ethical framework, ethical actions are those that provide the greatest balance of good over evil.

a)

libertarianism

b)

utilitarianism

c)

justice principle

d)

virtue principle

42.

Which statement is incorrect about flexible scheduling?

a)

It allows employees to start work earlier than other employees.

b)

It allows employees to start work later than other employees.

c)

It discourages employees from adjusting schedules to meet family needs.

d)

It helps employees avoid rush hour traffic.

43.

Which of the following states is not considered part of the Sun Belt?

a)

Alabama

b)

Florida

c)

South Carolina

d)

Oregon

44.

Ethics are

a)

laws that can be enforced.

b)

normal behavior.

c)

rules for top management.

d)

standards of moral conduct.

45.

A formal, published collection of values and rules that reflect the firm's philosophy and goals.

a)

code of ethics

b)

stakeholders

c)

values

d)

social responsibility

46.

Independent groups which influence businesses through lobbying, publicity, and pressure tactics to alter their activities.

a)

NGO

b)

Frost Belt

c)

stakeholders

d)

telecommute

47.

All of the following are basic features of capitalism EXCEPT

a)

private property ownership

b)

governmental control over wages

c)

business competition

d)

right to make a profit

48.

Steel that is used to produce tools and machinery is classified as a

a)

consumer good

b)

capital good

c)

market good

d)

production good

49.

In which type of economy does a central planning authority determine what, how, and for whom goods and services are produced?

a)

command economy

b)

mixed economy

c)

capital economy

d)

market economy

50.

In which political-economy system does the government have extensive control over the allocation of some resources but little control over distribution?

a)

communism

b)

socialism

c)

capitalism

d)

mixed

51.

The right to own property is NOT a feature of

a)

pure communism

b)

mixed economies

c)

traditional capitalism

d)

Western Europe socialism

52.

A form of international business whereby firms agree to cooperate on certain aspects of business while remaining competitors on other aspects is a

a)

joint venture

b)

wholly owned subsidiary

c)

strategic alliance

d)

host firm

53.

The branches of an international firm are called

a)

subsidiaries

b)

parent firms

c)

foreign firms

d)

alliances

54.

The international organization that creates and enforces rules concerning trade among countries is the

a)

European Union

b)

World Trade Organization

c)

International Monetary Fund

d)

World Bank

55.

Before an American company can sell its left-side steering wheel motor vehicle to Ireland, it must change the steering wheel to the right side. This restriction imposed by Ireland is called

a)

a sanction

b)

a nontariff barrier

c)

an embargo

d)

an injuction

56.

In a sole proprietorship,

a)

creditors have first claim against assets.

b)

there are no employees.

c)

assets are safe from creditors.

d)

employees share in the liabilities.

57.

In which type of partnership is the liability of a partner limited to the amount of the partner's investment?

a)

limited partnership

b)

restricted partnership

c)

unlimited partnership

d)

unrestricted partnership

58.

An official document giving power to run a corporation is a

a)

partnership agreement

b)

proxy

c)

charter

d)

business plan

59.

Ownership of a corporation is measured in

a)

assets

b)

equity

c)

dividends

d)

shares

60.

A stockholder who cannot attend a shareholders' meeting can submit votes by

a)

contract

b)

proxy

c)

dividend

d)

waiver

61.

A written agreement between two or more people identifying how they will add capital, labor, or other assets and divide any profits or share any losses in their business is called a

a)

certificate of incorporation

b)

business plan

c)

charter

d)

Partnership agreement

62.

Which statement is FALSE about CIOs?

a)

CIOs protect information from being improperly used?

b)

CIOs do not need management skills.

c)

CIOs must know what types of equipment to purchase to meet an organization's needs.

d)

CIOs protect information from getting to people who should not have it.

63.

A general term that refers to the movement of information from one location to another electronically is

a)

local area network

b)

an optical network

c)

a wide area network

d)

telecommunications

64.

A computer that stores data and application software for all workstations in a single building or building complex is called a

a)

bus

b)

server

c)

search engine

d)

browser

65.

All of the following are types of information systems EXCEPT

a)

DSS

b)

ISP

c)

EIS

d)

MIS

66.

An information system that integrates data from various departments to make it available to help managers with day-to-day business operations is called a(n)

a)

DSS system

b)

ISP system

c)

EIS system

d)

MIS system

67.

The ability to consider alternatives by analyzing "what if" scenarios is a key capability of a(n)

a)

DSS

b)

ISP

c)

EIS

d)

MIS

68.

The primary reason businesses keep financial records is to

a)

comply with federal laws

b)

keep track of debts owed

c)

determine if they have made a profit or loss

d)

make monthly payments on time

69.

Movement of cash into and out of a business is known as

a)

profit sharing

b)

cost of goods sold

c)

operating expenses

d)

cash flow

70.

The money a business owes and the payments it makes for credit purchases are recorded in the

a)

cash record

b)

depreciation record

c)

accounts payable record

d)

accounts receivable record

71.

A business that is planning to introduce a new product will need a

a)

capital budget

b)

cash budget

c)

sales budget

d)

start-up budget

72.

The original cost of an asset less its accumulated depreciation is the

a)

balance value

b)

book value

c)

depreciated value

d)

residual value

73.

The difference between current assets and current liabilities is

a)

working capital

b)

income

c)

cash flow

d)

owner's equity

74.

Retained earnings refer to

a)

money from the sale of bonds

b)

money from the sale of stocks

c)

profits that owners do not save for used in the business

d)

profits that owners do not take out of the business

75.

Which statement is true of common stockholders?

a)

They have the right to vote at annual meetings, at one vote per share of stock owned.

b)

If the corporation makes a profit, they are paid before creditors.

c)

They are guaranteed dividends every year.

d)

They must purchase stock at its par value.

76.

The dollar value printed on the stock certificate is known as the

a)

market value

b)

book value

c)

par value

d)

purchase value

77.

Long-term debt capital is obtained by

a)

purchasing merchandise on credit

b)

getting a commercial loan from a bank

c)

issuing bonds

d)

lending money to businesses

78.

Bonds that are based upon the faith and credit of the corporation that issues them are

a)

mortgage bonds

b)

debentures

c)

coupon bonds

d)

registered bonds

79.

Businesses that sell directly to the final consumer are

a)

wholesalers

b)

retailers

c)

producers

d)

all of these

80.

Which of the following is NOT an element of the marketing mix?

a)

Place

b)

Price

c)

Product

d)

Purpose

81.

Companies emphasize promotion and price of their products in which stage of the product life cycle?

a)

introduction

b)

growth

c)

maturity

d)

decline

82.

When customers purchase a product regularly without a great deal of thought, the product is a(n)

a)

convenience good

b)

shopping good

c)

specialty good

d)

unsought good

83.

Products designed for use by other businesses

a)

industrial goods

b)

consumer goods

c)

convenience goods

d)

target markets

84.

Unilever's products include dishwashing liquid, soap, body wash, toothpaste, and hand lotion. This is an example of

a)

a product line

b)

a product assortment

c)

brand names

d)

extended products

85.

Which type of utility is created when customers are able to purchase a product when they need it?

a)

time utliity

b)

place utility

c)

possession utility

d)

form utility

86.

A business that owns the organizations at other levels of a channel of distribution is involved in

a)

wholesaling

b)

channel integration

c)

an administered channel

d)

illegal trade practices

87.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that producers consider when deciding which channels to select for distribution?

a)

perishability

b)

special handling

c)

number of users

d)

containerization

88.

A company that produces only one product is most likely to sell that product to

a)

wholesalers

b)

retailers

c)

consumers

d)

other producers

89.

The advancement of an employee within a company to a position with more authority and responsibility is

a)

Transfer

b)

Promotion

c)

Layoff

d)

Training Opportunity

90.

The law that requires employers to pay covered employees overtime pay at 1-1/2 times the regular rate of pay is the

a)

Civil Rights Act 1964

b)

Fair Labor Standards Act

c)

Occupational Safety and Health Act

d)

Workers' Compensation Law

91.

Discrimination is hiring based on race, ethnicity, religion, gender, or national origin is prohibited by the

a)

Civil Rights Act

b)

Equal Pay Act

c)

Fair Labor Standards Act

d)

Immigration Reform and Control Act

92.

A fund to pay an income to workers who lose their jobs through no fault of their own is

a)

unemployment insurance

b)

workers' compensation

c)

social security

d)

severance

93.

The list of skills and qualifications needed to perform a particular job is known as

a)

human resources info sheet

b)

job specification

c)

human resources description

d)

job description

94.

Paying an executive $140,000 a year is an example of what kind of compensation plan?

a)

piece-rate plan

b)

performance plan

c)

time plan

d)

commission plan

95.

The plan for paying employees that has the advantages of various pay systems is the

a)

commission plan

b)

profit-sharing plan

c)

piece-rate plan

d)

combination plan

96.

Federal law requires businesses to offer unpaid family and medical leave if they have

a)

10 or more employees

b)

20 or more employees

c)

50 or more employees

d)

more than 50 employees

97.

Pay based on an hourly rate.

a)

wage

b)

commission plan

c)

combination plan

d)

flex-time

98.

Compensation plan that pays a percentage of the volume of sales for which an employee is responsible.

a)

commission plan

b)

piece-rate plan

c)

salary

d)

wage

99.

Planning for an organizational change is the responsibility of

a)

individual employees

b)

the human resources department

c)

the product department

d)

only large organizations

100.

The kinds of tasks that make up a job and the way the workers perform the tasks is

a)

job design

b)

job enrichment

c)

job enlargement

d)

cross training

101.

Jobs that are part of the employee's career path are identified in the employee's

a)

career plan

b)

performance standards

c)

evaluation

d)

career center

102.

A treaty between two or more countries that eliminates almost all trade restrictions and subsidies between the countries is a(n)

a)

trade cartel

b)

international market system

c)

free-market consortium

d)

free-trade agreement

103.

Training an employee to do the work of another employee when the second employee is sick is an example of

a)

career planning

b)

job design

c)

cross training

d)

job enrichment

104.

The level of employment in which people had the authority to control some of their work and make some decisions is

a)

entry level

b)

specialist level

c)

executive level

d)

career level

105.

Which of the following is the MOST sought-after attribute employers look for on a candidate's resume?

a)

leadership skills

b)

friendly personality

c)

detail oriented

d)

computer skills