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BOY Pre-Assessment

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with a rapid pulse has bradycardia.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Water-soluble vitamins are A,D,E and K.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Carbon dioxide is a waste product of metabolism.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Some states consider it legal for medical assistants to diagnose a condition and prescribe treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

It is illegal for a patient to be denied a copy of his chart if he is unable to pay the fee to obtain it.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

A physician cannot be held responsible for the actions of employees.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

A substance used to impact color to tissue or cells in order to study and identify microscopic organisms is called a stain.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Another name for a heart attack is myocardial infraction.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

A properly collected sputum specimen should contain both mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract and saliva.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The process of blood cells clumping together to form a clot is called coagulation.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The medical term for headache is

a)

cephalalgia

b)

cephalemia

c)

cephalonia

d)

cephalocele

12.

A word meaning fever is

a)

pyrexia

b)

pyrosis

c)

pyrolysis

d)

thermolysis

13.

Low blood sugar is

a)

hyperglycemia

b)

hypoglycemia

c)

subluxation

d)

infrasonic

14.

Variola is

a)

chicken pox

b)

measles

c)

whooping cough

d)

smallpox

15.

The word part which means joint is

a)

carpo

b)

cost

c)

arthro

d)

jointo

16.

Excessive tissue formation is referred to as

a)

hypoplasia

b)

hyperplasia

c)

hydroplasia

d)

megaplasia

17.

Incision into the chest wall is referred to as

a)

thoracotomy

b)

thoracic

c)

thorax

d)

thoracostomy

18.

Under the skin is referred to as

a)

intramuscular

b)

hypodermic

c)

hyperdermic

d)

hypermuscular

19.

Atriomegaly refers to

a)

injury to the atrium of the heart

b)

underdeveloped atrium of the heart

c)

enlargement of the atrium of the heart

d)

incision into the atrium of the heart

20.

One complete heartbeat, combining the contraction and relaxation phases is known as the

a)

base line cycle

b)

ECG cycle

c)

electrode cycle

d)

cardiac cycle

21.

In performing a treatment without the patient's informed consent, the physician runs the risk of a suit for

a)

negligence

b)

assault and battery

c)

defamation

d)

breach of contract

22.

For anyone to practice medicine without a license, except in a few special circumstances, is

a)

a tort

b)

a civil offense

c)

a criminal offense

d)

an act of malpractice

23.

Negligence in the medical profession is called

a)

tort

b)

assault

c)

malpractice

d)

battery

24.

A physician reports a case of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) to the state. This is called

a)

negligence

b)

breach of contract

c)

physician's public duty

d)

lack of confidentiality

25.

Bacteria that stain purple are gram positive

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The dorsal cavity is located in the front of the body.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Neoplasm's are 'new growths' and are cancerous or non-cancerous.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

The study of all factors that cause disease is known Etiology.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

When doing a red cell count, the factor by which the cells counted are multiplied is

a)

20

b)

200

c)

50

d)

10,000

30.

When focusing the microscope, one should begin with which objective?

a)

10x

b)

40x

c)

100x

d)

high power

31.

The macroscopic examination of urine consists of

a)

observing the color and character

b)

checking the specific gravity

c)

examining the specimen using microscope

d)

a and b

32.

The appropriate gauge needle to use when performing phlebotomy of veins in the foreman is

a)

15 gauge

b)

18 gauge

c)

20 or 21 gauge

d)

25 gauge

33.

When using a standard white blood cell pipette for determining a white blood cell count, the total number of cells counted is multiplied by

a)

50

b)

1,000

c)

200

d)

10,000

34.

The most common positions for chest x-rays are

a)

PA and lateral

b)

lateral

c)

lateral and oblique

d)

PA and AP

35.

On a normal ECG tracing, the first wave to show downward deflection is

a)

P wave

b)

S wave

c)

R wave

d)

Q wave

36.

The first sound heard when taking blood pressure is

a)

venous pressure

b)

systolic pressure

c)

diastolic pressure

d)

capillary pressure

37.

Normal oral temperature is 98.6 F. The equivalent Celsius temperature is

a)

37.5 c

b)

39.0 c

c)

37.0 c

d)

36.0 c

38.

Ultrasound waves are disrupted by

a)

muscle

b)

air and gas

c)

tissue

d)

bones

39.

Ultrasound is commonly

a)

given to a patient on chemotherapy

b)

given for brain tumors

c)

given with electrical stimulation

d)

none of the above

40.

Which of the following needles has the widest lumen?

a)

19 gauge

b)

21 gauge

c)

22 gauge

d)

25 gauge

41.

The median or sagittal plane divides the body

a)

into left and right

b)

into top and bottom

c)

into anterior and posterior

d)

cephalic and caudal

42.

A patient in the prone position is lying

a)

face down

b)

on the left side with the right leg flexed

c)

on the right side with the left leg flexed

d)

flat on their back with palms and face up

43.

Proximal

a)

is the opposite of dorsal

b)

is the opposite of distal

c)

means toward the top

d)

none of the above

44.

The body is divided into front and back by which of the following planes?

a)

transverse

b)

coronal

c)

sagittal

d)

mid-sagittal

45.

The opposite of ventral is

a)

anterior

b)

dorsal

c)

transverse

d)

cranial

46.

The number of bones in the body is

a)

90

b)

100

c)

206

d)

4508

47.

The longest bone in the body is the

a)

tibia

b)

femur

c)

fibula

d)

humerus

48.

Tissues are composed of

a)

muscles

b)

flesh

c)

cells

d)

organs

49.

The valve located on the right side of the heart is

a)

tricuspid valve

b)

aortic valve

c)

pulmonary valve

d)

septal valve

50.

Qd means

a)

every day

b)

every other day

c)

alternating Mondays

d)

once an hour

51.

PRN means

a)

practical registered nurse

b)

immediately

c)

as needed

d)

only in the morning

52.

PC means

a)

personal computer

b)

after meals

c)

as soon as possible

d)

before bedtime

53.

What is the abbreviation for right eye?

a)

O.D

b)

O.S

c)

O.U

d)

R.E

54.

What is the abbreviation for left eye?

a)

O.D

b)

O.S

c)

O.U

d)

L.E

55.

HIPAA standards did not affect the development of EHRs.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

CHI is the acronym for Clinical Health Institute.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

OV is the abbreviation for Office Visit.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

One advanced method used to input data into an EHR is a keyboard.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

The catalyst for the need of electronic health records is to improve patient medical care.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Past medical history is abbreviated PMHS.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Drug formularies are databases of approved medications in drug therapy categories.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Patient of care is the time and place of care being given to the patient from the healthcare provider.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

CCR is the abbreviation for

a)

Continuity of care record

b)

current codes record

c)

computer care record

d)

clinical care records

64.

A medical note added subsequent to the original note that will be supplement the clinical information is:

a)

index

b)

addendum

c)

chart

d)

codes

65.

Practice guidelines are also known as:

a)

care plans

b)

patient care

c)

patient plans

d)

medical consumers

66.

A wired or wireless connection of computers in a single facility is a (n):

a)

PMS

b)

PHI

c)

OV

d)

LAN

67.

The privacy of personal health information contained in all prescriptions, whether written or electronic, is protected by:

a)

OSHA

b)

EHR

c)

CMS

d)

HIPAA

68.

P4P is the abbreviation for:

a)

patients for providers

b)

pay for patients

c)

pay for performance

d)

pharmacies for providers

69.

For password management, it is recommended that passwords expire every:

a)

30 days

b)

90 to 120 days

c)

year

d)

2 years

70.

Medicare covers all health care expenses.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

A medical assistant has the responsibility to interpret the patient's insurance policy or extent of coverage.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

A patient belonging to an HMO does not need pre-approval or authorization for inpatient surgery from the primary care physician or HMO.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Fold the HCFA-1500 form for OCR before mailing.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

When running a standard calibration ECG, the complexes are

a)

10mm

b)

30mm

c)

40mm

d)

60mm

75.

The most common place to take a pulse is at the

a)

carotid artery

b)

brachial artery

c)

radial artery

d)

popliteal artery

76.

If a carotid pulse was taken, it was taken at the

a)

neck

b)

wrist

c)

back of the knee

d)

temporal region

77.

During an eye examination using the Snellen's eye chart the patient should

a)

close one eye

b)

keep both eyes open but cover one of them

c)

hold one eye closed with pressure from a hand

d)

keep both eyes open

78.

Auscultation is done by using a

a)

stethoscope

b)

percussion hammer

c)

otoscope

d)

speculum

79.

Palpation is done by

a)

looking at the area

b)

listening with a stethoscope

c)

using a percussion hammer

d)

feeling a part with the hand

80.

An instrument to view the eye is an

a)

ophtalmoscope

b)

ophthalmoscope

c)

opthamoscopy

d)

ophalmoscope

81.

A patient is bleeding heavily from a wound on the forearm, you should

a)

apply a tourniquet

b)

elevate the arm

c)

clean the wound and suture as soon as possible

d)

apply direct pressure

82.

When a small sample of tissue is taken from the body and is sent to a clinical laboratory to be examined or studied, it is called

a)

examination

b)

biopsy

c)

operation

d)

none of the above

83.

In order to inflate the blood pressure cuff, the valve is turned

a)

counterclockwise

b)

clockwise

c)

not turned

d)

none of the above

84.

The normal rate of respiration for infants is

a)

8 to 14

b)

30 to 60

c)

20 to 25

d)

40 to 80

85.

The normal pulse rate for adults is

a)

40 to 60

b)

60 to 100

c)

80 to 90

d)

90 to 100

86.

The normal pulse rate for a newborn is?

a)

70 to 190

b)

80 to 100

c)

100 to 130

d)

120 to 160

87.

The most common device for obtaining cultures is the sterile swab.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

A properly collected sputum specimen should contain both mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract and saliva.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

A stool specimen that is mixed with urine is an appropriate specimen for examination.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

A physician may bill for both direct and indirect services.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

A blood-borne pathogen can be transmitted through skin that is broken or through mucous membranes.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

HBV is a highly contagious and potentially fatal disease that causes inflammation of the liver.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

A physician cannot be held responsible for the actions of employees.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Angi/o refers to

a)

veins

b)

artery

c)

lymph

d)

vessel

95.

The suffix which means incision is

a)

otomy

b)

ostomy

c)

ectomy

d)

apexy

96.

The suffix which means plastic repair is

a)

orrhapy

b)

ocentesis

c)

oplasty

d)

opexy

97.

The suffix which means pain is

a)

olgia

b)

ectomy

c)

algia

d)

ilgia

98.

The medical term for nosebleed is

a)

exudate

b)

epistaxis

c)

hemoptysis

d)

hematemesis

99.

Match the prefix with definition examination

a)

tomo

b)

scopo

c)

gastro

d)

radi

100.

Match the prefix with the definition knowledge

a)

dermato

b)

gastro

c)

noso

d)

gnoso