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106 Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

__ was a well-known surgeon who wrote about using carbolic acid to kill germs in Antiseptic Principle of the Practices of Surgery.

a)

Fleming

b)

Pasteur

c)

Baxter

d)

Lister

2.

The first line of defense against the spread of microorganisms is hand-washing, according to the

a)

USP

b)

ASHP

c)

CDC

d)

NCCLVP

3.

An example of a positive antibiotic is a(n)

a)

staphylococci

b)

diplococci

c)

aminoglycosides

d)

both staphylococci and aminoglycosides

4.

Compounding sterile preparations began in the early 1960s.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The basic defense mechanism for our bodies is called normal flora.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

It is important to wash your hands and forearms up to your elbows before entering the clean room.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Once the pharmacy personnel properly wash their hands, they can immediately begin compounding sterile preparations.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

With proper aseptic technique IV medications needed for home health therapy can be made at the patient's home.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Patient education should always be stressed, especially in a home health care setting.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Medications may be given parenterally when

a)

a patient has difficulty swallowing or when a patient is vomiting

b)

a medication must be absorbed quickly

c)

a patient is unconscious

d)

all of the above

11.

The most common method of administrating parenteral medications is

a)

through a central line

b)

through a peripheral line

c)

through an epidural

d)

through an intrathecal line

12.

Which of the following medications must be given parenterally because of destruction by stomach acids?

a)

Augmentin

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Heparin

d)

All of the above

13.

Devices and supplies provided for home infusion therapy include all of the following except

a)

Sharp container

b)

IV tubing

c)

Transfer sets

d)

all of the above are provided for home infusion therapy

14.

Which of the following is an example of a medication that is usually too concentrated to be given through a peripheral line?

a)

chemotherapy

b)

heparin

c)

insulin

d)

none of the above

15.

What route of administration is the fastest option for parenteral medications?

a)

intracardiac

b)

intravenous

c)

intramuscular

d)

intrathecal

16.

A(n) __ can be given in an existing IV line or IV access device.

a)

intramuscular injection

b)

subcutaneous injection

c)

IV push

d)

intracardiac injection

17.

Pumps used for pain therapy or diabetes management can be implantable.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

It is imperative for the technician to include all of the supplies needed for the IV therapy so the patient can receive treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Any condition that a drug should not be used is called a(n)

a)

contraindication

b)

indication

c)

allergy

d)

adverse reaction

20.

Undesirable yet unexpected effects that are not widely known or reported are known as

a)

side effects

b)

toxic effects

c)

adverse drug reactions

d)

allergies

21.

Which of the following is the second step involved in pharmacokinetics?

a)

excretion

b)

absorption

c)

distribution

d)

metabolism

22.

The NDC number identifies the specific

a)

drug, expiration date, and manufacturer

b)

drug, package size, and expiration date

c)

drug, manufacturer, package size

d)

manufacturer, expiration date, and package size

23.

The age variables of a child are between the ages of

a)

2 and 12 years

b)

1 and 12 years

c)

3 and 13 years

d)

2 and 15 years

24.

Which of the following reference material would be the best choice to look up an incompatibility between ampicillin IV and heparin?

a)

USP-NF

b)

Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs

c)

PDR

d)

Red Book

25.

The primary enzyme responsible for metabolism is cytochrome P450.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The liver and kidneys are not fully developed in pediatric patients. This allows metabolism and excretion to occur more slowly than it does in adults.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

As aging occurs, elderly patients experience many differences in the pharmacokinetics process.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What terms is used to describe a solution containing the concentration of dissolved substances closest to the red blood cells?

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

d)

none of the above

29.

Medications that are added to the final fluid are known as

a)

admixtures

b)

particulate matter

c)

additives

d)

isotonic fluids

30.

Drugs may need to be given the time to dilute before added back to back. This is attributable to what factor?

a)

buffer capacity

b)

complexation

c)

order of mixing

d)

IV solution

31.

Acidic solutions have a pH

a)

around 7

b)

between 8 and 14

c)

between 0 and 9

d)

between 0 and 6

32.

Storage information can be found in which reference?

a)

Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs

b)

package insert

c)

electronic databases

d)

all of the above

33.

This IV fluid contains primary electrolytes found in the plasma.

a)

5% dextrose

b)

0.9% sodium chloride

c)

Lactated Ringer

d)

10% dextrose

34.

Fluid that is too acidic or too alkaline can cause pain or discomfort when entering the body.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

The package insert of a medication sometimes states the storage requirements for the medication.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Color changes or particulate matter do not always form immediately.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

How many grams of drug are in 600 mL of a 1:350 solution?

a)

0.5g

b)

0.6g

c)

1.7g

d)

2g

38.

An electrolyte is available as 15mM/5mL. How many milliliters are needed to fill an order for 21mM?

a)

8.08 units

b)

0.88 units

c)

8.8 units

d)

88 units

39.

U-100 insulin is used for a patient who needs 0.9mL. How many units will he receive?

a)

90 units

b)

99 units

c)

100 units

d)

111 units

40.

A 1-L bag is running 130mL/hr. How many 1-L bags are used for a 24 hour time period?

a)

3 bags

b)

4 bags

c)

7 bags

d)

8 bags

41.

A patient is receiving 750 mg of vancomycin in 500 mL of NS over a period of 7 hours. What is the flow rate in milliliters per hour?

a)

50mL/hr

b)

61mL/hr

c)

80mL/hr

d)

71mL/hr

42.

If 1200 mL is to be infused at a rate of 100 mL/hr, how long will it last?

a)

10 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

11 hours

43.

The amount of medication in a particular volume of fluid is called the dose.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

If an error with an IV medication reaches the patient, it is quick and easy to reverse the effects.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

If the label on a vial states that 9.7 mL of diluent needs to be added to the powder to make a final volume of 10 mL, then the powder volume is 0.7 mL.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

You can clean a laminar flow hood with the following

a)

70% alcohol

b)

cleaning solution containing alcohol

c)

10% alcohol

d)

all of the above

47.

Needle size is determined by

a)

The size of the barrel

b)

the volume of fluid it can draw up in it

c)

gauge and length

d)

none of the above

48.

Choose the statement below that best describes the airflow pattern through a laminar flow hood.

a)

Room air is drawn in through pre filter and then through HEPA filter and over the work surface area in parallel lines.

b)

Room air is channeled through the HEPA filter, which removes the bacteria; then air moves through a prefilter and over the work area

c)

Room air is drawn through the prefilter, which removes relatively large contaminates; then air goes through a HEPA filter, which randomly blows over the work area.

d)

None of the above best describes the airflow pattern through a laminar flow hood

49.

Certain guidelines must be followed while preparing IVs. These guidelines are mandated by

a)

ASHP

b)

USP 797

c)

NCCLVP

d)

CSP

50.

A __ should be used on a syringe when drawing from an ampule.

a)

filter device

b)

second syringe

c)

cotton swab

d)

none of the above

51.

__ is designed to prevent the spread of infectious diseases during aseptic preparations.

a)

PEC

b)

PPE

c)

DCA

d)

CSP

52.

Touch contamination is the most common form of contamination.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The HEPA filter should be cleaned with alcohol on a daily basis.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Tamper-evident seals are used to indicate a medication has been added and ensure that there is no breach of the sterile container before administration to the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

LAFW and BSC are examples of a(n)

a)

IPA

b)

DCA

c)

PPE

d)

HEPA

56.

During IV preparation, items are to be kept __ inches from the back and all sides of the hood.

a)

6

b)

3

c)

2

d)

4

57.

All of the following are steps that should be taken in the buffer area except

a)

spray hands with disinfect

b)

perform calculations

c)

don sterile gloves

d)

clean the LAFW

58.

After disinfecting all critical sites with alcohol, the technician must wait at least

a)

1 minute

b)

10 seconds

c)

45 seconds

d)

none of the above

59.

The accurate way to read the measurement of a syringe is

a)

the top of the rubber part of the plunger

b)

the top of the point on the plunger

c)

the bottom of the rubber part of the plunger

d)

none of the above

60.

When withdrawing medication from an ampule, you must tilt the ampule at least

a)

90 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

15 degrees

d)

20 degrees

61.

All medications that need to be reconstituted must be shaken after the diluent is added.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Before performing any aseptic manipulations, you should always perform proper hand washing and garbing inside the buffer area.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

When reconstituting a medication, the technician should add the correct diluent to the manufacturer's recommendations.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Proteins are necessary for all the following except

a)

replacing cells

b)

tissue growth

c)

cell repair

d)

organ function

65.

When using an automated compounder, the amount for each ingredient is measured by

a)

volume

b)

weight

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

66.

__ is an example of a fat source used in parenteral solutions.

a)

aminosyn

b)

dextrose

c)

liposyn

d)

normal saline

67.

When making a three-in-one solution, the following are the components needed:

a)

liposyn, dextrose, amino acids

b)

dextrose, sterile water, micronutrients

c)

sterile water, amino acids, dextrose

d)

none of the above

68.

All of the following are goals for parenteral nutrition except

a)

to promote wound healing

b)

to increase weight loss

c)

to prevent malnutrition

d)

to replace nutritional deficits

69.

Which of the following are advantages to using a compounding machine, as opposed to the gravity method, when preparing TPNs?

a)

There is less touch contamination

b)

compounding machines have better accuracy than the gravity method

c)

compounding machines are faster than the gravity method

d)

all of the above

70.

Which of the following is not an electrolyte?

a)

magnesium sulfate

b)

potassium chloride

c)

insulin

d)

calcium gluconate

71.

Hypometabolic states are conditions that require additional energy to heal.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

A dextrose solution with the volume of 3000 mL provides 1500 calories.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Which of the following statements are true about chemotherapy agents?

a)

chemotherapy agents are different from antineoplastic agents

b)

chemotherapy agents damage healthy cells

c)

chemotherapy agents are only given to elderly patients

d)

chemotherapy agents have very few risks

74.

Testing of specific techniques should be given at least

a)

quarterly

b)

biannually

c)

every 6 months

d)

annually

75.

A closed container that should be used to expel excess drug is called a(n)

a)

EEC

b)

CSP

c)

PPE

d)

CSTD

76.

The chemotherapeutic agents that attach side chains to the proteins within the cancer cells and interfere with their functions are called

a)

alkylating agents

b)

hormone agents

c)

miscellaneous agents

d)

antimetabolic agents

77.

BSCs should only be cleaned if a spill occurs.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Handling hazardous or cytotoxic agents is the same as any IV admixture.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The air in a BSC should be 100% vented to the outside air through HEPA filtration.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Chemotherapy agents are used to either destroy cancer cells or control their growth with minimal effect to normal cells.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Cytotoxic agents are antineoplastic agents that kill diving cells.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

A peripherally inserted central catheter can be used for __ before being changed.

a)

72 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

1 to 2 weeks

d)

5 to 10 days

83.

One type of IV line is known as the PICC line. PICC stands for

a)

physician-inserted central catheter

b)

patient-inserted central catheter

c)

peripherally inserted central catheter

d)

none of the above

84.

Which of the following infusion pumps is used primarily for enteral feedings?

a)

syringe pumps

b)

ambulatory pumps

c)

volumetric pumps

d)

peristaltic pumps

85.

The SASH method should be used for flushing IV lines. The "A" is for

a)

aspirate the patient

b)

ask the patient if he or she is comfortable

c)

administer medication

d)

administer the flush

86.

An implantable infusion device, such as a Hickman or Broviac, may be needed for

a)

chemotherapy

b)

pain therapy

c)

antiinfective therapy

d)

TPN therapy

87.

According to the __ Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990, all medical devices must be tracked.

a)

FDA

b)

Joint Commission

c)

CDC

d)

DEA

88.

Change in temperature does not have any effect on the stability of a sterile preparation.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The only role of the pharmacy technician in a home health care setting is to prepare the IV for transport to patient home.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Chemotherapy medications should be transported in protective containers.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Along with a quality assurance program, __ should be in place to ensure that personnel are trained.

a)

CSPs

b)

SOPs

c)

USPs

d)

ISOs

92.

All of the following are examples of how contamination may occur except

a)

improper hand washing

b)

interruption of first air flow

c)

selecting the incorrect medication

d)

beginning manipulations before allowing the LAFW to be on for 30 minutes

93.

One way to prevent medication errors is to

a)

follow exactly what the label says, even if there is a question

b)

double check the calculations

c)

prepare the medication the way you feel comfortable doing so

d)

prepare the medication how you interpret it

94.

An example of a low risk level compounded sterile preparation is

a)

preparing TPN

b)

a PCA cassette

c)

single transfer from a vial to bag

d)

none of the above

95.

Organizations that offer continuing education for technicians are all of the following except

a)

ASHP

b)

All BOPs

c)

PTCB

d)

Power-Pak C.E.

96.

A set of procedures, including environmental controls, personnel training, and validation of technique, is known as

a)

CSPs

b)

BOPs

c)

BUDs

d)

SOPs

97.

According to the__, all personnel who prepare CSPs are responsible for understanding the practices and precautions, for exercising the proper procedures, and for the quality of the final product to prevent harm.

a)

ASHP

b)

FDA

c)

USP 797

d)

SOP

98.

The specific standards regarding the environmental conditions to ensure sterility are set by

a)

USP

b)

SOP

c)

ASHP

d)

CSP

99.

Physicians, nurses, and pharmacists are the only individuals who should be involved with QA programs

a)

True

b)

False

100.

The most common error that can occur while compounding sterile preparations is

a)

microbacterial

b)

nonsterility

c)

a and b

d)

none of the above