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DH 31 Exam #1

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Antiinfective Agents

These agents are very important to us as health providers because they are frequently prescribed for oral infection. In dentistry, pain meds are the most frequently prescribed and antibiotics are second.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

For early infections penicillin is quite effective

a)

True

b)

False

3.

For more developed infections with many anaerobic organisms ............................. is more effective

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Penicillin

4.

......................... is effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Penicillin

5.

Antiinfectives include the following:

a)

Antimicrobials

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antifungal agents

d)

Antiviral agents

e)

Antiinfective agents

6.

Bactericidal - the ability to kill bacteria. This process is

a)

Reversible

b)

Irreversible

7.

Bacteriostatic - the ability to inhibit or slow the multiplication or growth of bacteria. This process is

a)

Irreversible

b)

Reversible.

8.

An ................... in the use of an antibiotic increases the proportion of resistant organisms in that population

a)

increase

b)

decrease

9.

A ........................... in the use of an antibiotic decreases the proportion of organisms resistant to that antibiotic in that given population

a)

decrease

b)

increase

10.

range of activity of a drug

a)

Spectrum

b)

Synergism

11.

sometimes the combination of two antibiotics produces more of an effect than would be expected if their individual effects were added (1+1=3)

a)

Synergism

b)

Spectrum

12.

refers to infection caused by the proliferation of microorganisms different from those causing the original infection

a)

superinfection

b)

synergism

13.

Antagonism - when a combination of a bactericidal agent and a bacteriostatic agent is used, the effect is less than either medication alone (1+1< 2)

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What reduces the effectiveness of antibiotics

a)

Alcohol

b)

Oral contraceptives

15.

Is tetracycline safe for kids?

a)

Yes

b)

No

16.

Pseudomembranous colitis, also called antibiotic-associated colitis or C. difficile colitis, is inflammation of the colon associated with an overgrowth of the bacterium Chloridoids

a)

True

b)

False

17.

All antiinfective drugs can cause a variety of GI problems including: stomach pain, increased motility, diarrhea.

....................................... has the highest incidence of GI complaints of all

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Clindamycin

18.

secondary infection caused by an opportunistic infection

a)

suprainfection

b)

allergic reactions

c)

sensitivity

19.

What is the most common antibiotic that people are allergic to.

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Penicillin

c)

Clindamycin

20.

Pregnancy

Certain drug preparations have not been associated with teratogenic effects:

a)

Penicillins

b)

Erythromycins

c)

Clindamycin

d)

all are correct

21.

In dentistry, we usually prescribe penicillins from groups 1 and 3

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Indications for Antimicrobial Agents

Antibiotics are used to prevent bacteremia and colonization of the heart by microorganisms

a)

Prophylactic

b)

Therapeutic

23.

Indications for Antimicrobial Agents

Help current infection

a)

Therapeutic

b)

Prophlatctic

24.

What is a complication with Indications for Antimicrobial Agents

a)

Achilles tendon

b)

Severe tendonitis

c)

Both are incorrect

25.

Antibiotics with the best spectrum for penicillinase-resistant bugs are .................. and

........................

a)

cloxacillin

b)

dicloxacillin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Amoxicillin

26.

Penicillin Uses in Dentistry

Lack of toxicity

Desirable spectrum of action

Bactericidal potency

Agent of choice for antibiotic prophylaxis

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Amoxicillin is preferred because

a)

Produces higher blood levels

b)

Less frequent dosing

c)

Better absorbed

d)

Absorption is not impaired by food

e)

Drug of choice for prophylaxis

28.

Both of these meds are bacteriostatic

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Clarithromycin

c)

Clindamycin

d)

Erythromycin

29.

Limited to use for anaerobic organisms such as “Bacteroides” when patient is allergic to Penicillin

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Tetracycline

30.

This drug causes a severe reaction in patients who drink alcohol. It is caused by an accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood. Also called a disulfiram (antabuse) reaction.

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Clindamycin

31.

This anti-infective is a synthetic nitroimidazole ´ It is trichomonacidal, amoebicidal and has exceptional action against most obligate anaerobes (Bacteroides) ´ Bactericidal

a)

Metronidazole

b)

clindamycin

32.

Which antibiotics will interact with coumadin/warfarin

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Clindamycin

33.

Metronidazole Uses

a)

This drug is used in the treatment of trichomoniasis, giardiasis, amebiasis, and susceptible anaerobic bacterial infections.

b)

It is effective against serious anaerobic infections of the abdomen, skeleton, and female genital tract

c)

both are correct

34.

Dental use: prophylaxis for patients with “at-risk” joints

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

Metronidazole

35.

It is taken orally to eradicate organisms that cause pseudomembranous colitis

a)

Vancomycin

b)

clindamycin

36.

Patients taking these medications need to be told to drink plenty of water because these drugs can precipitate in the kidney ( renal crystallization)

a)

Sulfonamides

b)

Vancomycin

37.

4 drugs are administered concurrently in all active cases of TB

a)

Isoniazid (INH)

9 to 12 months

b)

Rifampin

9 to 12 months

c)

Pyrazinamide

2 months

d)

Ethambutol

first 2 months of tx

38.

Potentiates the effects of anticoagulants and may leave a ................. ............... in the mouth

a)

Metal taste

b)

Bitter taste

c)

Sweet taste

39.

Diabetics need to be aware of sucrose content of Nystatin

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Candida albicans - treated with

a)

Amoxicillin

(antibiotic)

b)

Nystatin

(Antifungal Agent)

41.

Antifungal Agents: Nystatin

Mechanism of action

Binds to sterols in the fungal cell membrane • Increases membrane permeability (allows leakage of potassium) • Bacteria do not contain sterols in their cell membranes and are therefore not affected by the antifungal medications

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Antifungal Agents: Nystatin

Contains ...........% sucrose

a)

40

b)

50

43.

Antifungal Agents: Nystatin

Advantage is the slow release of the antifungal agent

Disadvantage is that it contains sucrose which makes it a bad choice for xerostomia and/or caries-prone patients

a)

true

b)

false

44.

Nystatin products are often used for

a)

10-14 days

b)

5-10 days

45.

........................................ can increase blood levels of cyclosporine, warfarin corticosteroids, phenytoin, digoxin, lovastatin and simvastatin

a)

Ketoconazole

b)

Clotrimazole (Mycelex)

46.

........................... is a synthetic antifungal

a)

Clotrimazole (Mycelex)

b)

Nystatin

47.

Higher doses can inhibit secretion of corticosteroids and lowers testosterone levels in men

a)

Ketoconazole

b)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

48.

Useful against herpes simplex

Initial herpes genitalis

Not effective for recurrent herpes genitalis or labialis

a)

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

b)

Penciclovir (Denavir)

49.

Shown to reduce duration and pain of the lesions on the lips and face associated with both primary and recurrent herpes simplex

a)

Penciclovir (Denavir)

b)

Acyclovir

(Zovirax)

50.

Acyclovir has not been shown to effectively treat herpes labialis in topical, tablet, or capsule forms

a)

true

b)

false

51.

Indicated for the treatment of recurrent genital herpes

a)

Famciclovir, Valacyclovir

b)

Penciclovir (Denavir)

52.

what medication has no effect on cells already containing HIV

a)

Zidovudine (AZT)

b)

Nevirapine (VP)

c)

Valacyclovir

53.

prevents the maturation of HIV-infected cells

a)

Nevirapine (VP)

b)

Saquinavir

c)

Zidovudine (AZT)

54.

Synthesis of viral DNA is terminated, therefore viral replication is terminated

a)

Zidovudine (AZT)

b)

Nevirapine (VP)

c)

Saquinavir

55.

Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors [NNRTIs] .......................................... is specific for HIV-1

a)

Nevirapine (VP)

b)

Zidovudine (AZT)

c)

Saquinavir

56.

3 classes of Antiviral Agents: AIDS

a)

Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Nevirapine (VP) is specific for HIV-1

b)

Protease inhibitors

Saquinavir prevents the maturation of HIV-infected cells

c)

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors [NRTIs] Zidovudine (AZT) Synthesis of viral DNA is terminated, therefore viral replication is terminated

d)

all 3 are correct

57.

Antiviral Agents: AIDS

Most common uses of interferon are for Hepatitis C and Multiple Sclerosis

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Treats HIV and Hep B viral infections

a)

Truvada

b)

Saquinavir

59.

Erythromycin Drug Interactions

a)

Theophylline

b)

Digoxin

c)

Triazolam

d)

Warfarin

e)

Cyclosporine

and

Carbamazepine

60.

Which antibiotic affects patients taking Lithium

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Clindamycin

61.

Adrenergic agents are

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Amphetamines

c)

Isoproterenol

d)

Norepinephrine

e)

Levonordefrin

And

Ventolin

62.

Adrenergic agents used in medicine/dentistry

a)

Local Aesthetic

b)

Anaphylaxis

c)

Asthma

d)

Shock and cardiac arrest

e)

ADD

63.

Side effects

Increase a blood pressure, increase heart rate, increase heart contractility, bronchodilation, Xerostomia, digestion on hold and mydriasis

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Pilocarpine

64.

Beta receptors

Beta 1

a)

Heart

b)

Lungs

65.

Beta receptors

Beta 2

a)

Heart

b)

Lungs

66.

Betta blockers are in anti-adrenergic category and slow the heart rate and BP

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and dystonic blood pressure

a)

True

b)

False

68.

What are the major Nero transmitters used in the SANS

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Acetylcholine

69.

The advantage of select beta blockers are

a)

Fewer side effects

b)

Mild side effects

c)

No side effects

70.

SLUD

a)

Salvation

b)

Lacrimation

c)

Urination

d)

Defecation

e)

Emesis

71.

Fight or flight response effects on the eyes, bronchi, heart and glands

a)

Constriction

b)

Relaxation

72.

Contraindications

DO NOT use with asthma, ulcers and cardiac disease

a)

Cholinergic agents

b)

Anticholinergic agents

c)

Adrenergic agents

73.

Cholinergic Agents PANS

Effect the eyes by………….a……….. and the mouth by ………..b……….

a)

A

Miosis

b)

A

Mydriasis

c)

B

Increased saliva flow

d)

B

Xerostomia

74.

Cholinergic agent that increases salvia flow

a)

Malathion

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Salagen

75.

PANS

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that acts as a Cholinergic receptors that creates REST & DIGEST

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Pilocarpine is used by eye doctors to treat glaucoma

a)

True

b)

False

77.

What drug classification is Atropine and Propantheline

a)

Anticholinergics

b)

Cholinergics

78.

Atropine and Propantheline are used in dentistry for

a)

Saliva reduction

b)

Saliva production

c)

Motion sickness

79.

Gastric motility

Decreased movement urinary stasis

a)

Anticholinergics

b)

Cholinergics

80.

Gastric motility

Increases mentality improves urinary flow

a)

Anticholinergics

b)

Cholinergics