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Worksheets

1st Half Book Test

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 5hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A cell was being observed under microscope and it was seen with no flagella, centriole and lysosomes. This would be:

a)

Animal cell

b)

Plant cell

c)

Protozoan

d)

Water mold

2.

Movement of water molecules across the cell membrane can be through:

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

All A, B, C

3.

It is primary fuel for respiration:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Vitamins

4.

An enzyme that requires highly basic pH for its proper functioning is:

a)

Pepsin

b)

Pancreatic lipase

c)

Arginase

d)

Salivary amylase

5.

Bacteria form spores during _________ phase of growth:

a)

Lag

b)

Log

c)

Stationary

d)

Decline

6.

Highest degree of regeneration is present in sponges because of

a)

Highly differentiated cells

b)

Simplest organization

c)

Ability to reproduce

d)

Simple tissue formation

7.

It is a type of photosynthetic pigment present in all photosynthetic eukaryotes:

a)

Chlorophyll a

b)

Chlorophyll b

c)

Chlorophyll c

d)

Chlorophyll d

8.

Which of the following event occurs during life cycle of HIV?

a)

Transcription

b)

Reverse transcription

c)

Translation

d)

All A, B, C

9.

Net production of ATP during Glycolysis is:

a)

2 ATP

b)

4 ATP

c)

36 ATP

d)

38 ATP

10.

Each ________ consists of a light gathering antenna complex and reaction center.

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Photosystem

c)

Photon

d)

Electron

11.

Cyclic flow of photosynthesis produces:

a)

ATP and CO2

b)

ATP

c)

Only CO2

d)

Only oxygen

12.

Immediate product formed after CO2 fixation in Calvin cycle is:

a)

Unstable 6-carbon compound

b)

Unstable 5-carbon compound

c)

Unstable 4-carbon compound

d)

Unstable 3-carbon compound

13.

The inner membrane of mitochondria forms extensive infoldings called:

a)

Cristae

b)

Cisternae

c)

Lamella

d)

None of these

14.

Which one of the following is the formula structure of D ( α\alpha  ) glucose?

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.

Secondary structure of proteins is found in:

a)

Trypsin

b)

Keratin

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

16.

Phosphodiester bond is:

a)

P – O – C – P – O – C

b)

C – O – P

c)

C – O – P – O – C

d)

C – C – O – P

17.

An enzyme requires Mg++ to catalyze the substrate. The Mg++ is best identified as:

a)

Prosthetic group

b)

Activator

c)

Co-enzyme

d)

Inhibitor

18.

Which one of the following graphs shows how the rate of reaction of pepsin is affected by pH?

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.

All viruses can reproduce within living organisms only, so they are known as:

a)

Ectoparasites

b)

Endoparasites

c)

Obligate intracellular parasites

d)

Facultative intracellular parasites

20.

Taenia is an endoparasite of human, pig and cattle which belongs to phylum:

a)

Cnidaria

b)

Aschelminthes

c)

Annelida

d)

Platyhelminthes

21.

In radial symmetry all body parts are arranged around the central axis. Radial symmetry represents ___________ mode of life.

a)

Sessile

b)

Streamlined

c)

Active

d)

Parasitic

22.

Pseudocoelomates have a body cavity but it is not true coelom. Which one of the following is included in the group?

a)

Planaria

b)

Tapeworm

c)

Earthworm

d)

Ascaris

23.

Out of the given option, choose the one which shows the structures found only in plants:

a)

Vacuole, chloroplast, ribosomes

b)

Chloroplast, microtubules, peroxisomes

c)

Chloroplast, cell wall, mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast, cell wall, vacuole

24.

The basic structure of plasma membrane is provide by:

a)

Proteins

b)

Cholesterols

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Cytoskeleton

25.

Structures for attachment in Fasciola are:

a)

Hooks

b)

Stylets

c)

Suckers

d)

Rhizoids

26.

_________ is a good example of polymorphism:

a)

Hydra

b)

Star fish

c)

Obelia

d)

Euplectella

27.

Which of the following is a blood born disease?

a)

Hepatitis

b)

Cholera

c)

Influenza

d)

Candidiasis

28.

Treatment by using attenuated cultures of bacteria is called:

a)

Chemotherapy

b)

Sterilization

c)

Antisepsis

d)

Vaccination

29.

Which of the following contains peptidoglycan cell wall?

a)

Penicillium

b)

Bacterium

c)

Adiantum

d)

Polytrichum

30.

Endoplasmic reticulum contains a system of flattened membrane-bounded sacs which are named as:

a)

Cristae

b)

Marks

c)

Cisternae

d)

Tubules

31.

____________ is the most abundant carbohydrate in nature:

a)

Cellulose

b)

Rubisco

c)

RuBP

d)

Starch

32.

Keratin protein shows:

a)

Primary structure

b)

Secondary structure

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Quaternary structure

33.

The inhibitors that bind tightly and permanently to enzymes and destroy their globular structure as catalytic activity are:

a)

Reversible inhibitors

b)

Irreversible inhibitors

c)

Competitive inhibiters

d)

Non-competitive inhibitors

34.

All coenzymes are derived from:

a)

Proteins

b)

Vitamins

c)

Nucleic acids

d)

Carbohydrates

35.

Which one of the following diseases is caused by enveloped RNA virus and spread in epidemic form?

a)

Influenza

b)

Herpes simplex

c)

Polio

d)

Small pox

36.

The structure which contain the gene for drug resistance in bacteria are:

a)

Nucleoids

b)

Mesosomes

c)

Chromatin bodies

d)

Plasmids

37.

Mesosomes are infoldings of the cell membrane and are involved in:

a)

DNA replication

b)

RNA synthesis

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Metabolism

38.

The nervous system develops from which of the following layer during embryonic development in animals?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Mesoderm and endoderm

39.

Schistosoma is a parasite that lives in the ________of its host:

a)

Liver

b)

Blood

c)

Intestine

d)

Kidney

40.

In human, Escherichia coli is involved in the formation of:

a)

Calcium

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin K

41.

Food is stored in form of glycogen in:

a)

Prokaryotes

b)

Fungi

c)

Animals

d)

All “A” “B” “C”

42.

All of the following are true about lipids except

a)

They store high amount of energy.

b)

They play important role in insulation.

c)

They are polymers of fatty acids.

d)

They are mostly hydrophobic in nature.

43.

Form of lipids that can be stored in our body as energy reserves are:

a)

Acylglycerols

b)

Waxes

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Terpenoids

44.

All of the following types of nitrogenous bases are found in nucleic acids except:

a)

Adenine

b)

Serine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Uracil

45.

All of the following are connected through covalent bond except:

a)

Two glucose molecules

b)

Two ribonucleotides

c)

Two amino acid molecules

d)

Two DNA strands

46.

____________ C in deoxyribose is devoid of ‘OH’ as compared to ribose sugar.

a)

1'

b)

2'

c)

3'

d)

4'

47.

At unlimited substrate concentration, if concentration of enzyme is increased, rate of reaction:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remain unchanged

d)

Becomes zero

48.

During formation of phosphodiester linkage, water is released. It takes OH from:

a)

Sugar

b)

Base

c)

H3PO4

d)

Alcohol

49.

It is the factory for ribosome synthesis:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Polysome

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Mitochondria

50.

Occurrence of which process do not need presence of oxygen:

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

Oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Respiratory chain

51.

It is a function performed by both RER and SER

a)

Steroid biosynthesis

b)

Detoxification of harmful drugs

c)

Storage of Ca+2 in muscles

d)

Mechanical support

52.

‘Cisternae’ are present in:

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Golgi bodies

c)

Both “A” and “B”

d)

None of these

53.

Organelles mainly responsible for formation and release of glycoproteins are:

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Golgi bodies

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Glyoxisomes

54.

Bacterial cell membrane does not contain:

a)

Glycoprotein

b)

Glycolipid

c)

Lipoprotein

d)

Peptidoglycan

55.

Type of transportation that occurs through carrier proteins is:

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Endocytosis

56.

During translation, ribosomes are attached to mRNA through:

a)

tRNA

b)

Mg++

c)

Smaller subunit

d)

Larger subunit

57.

How many centrosomes are there in typical, non-dividing animal cell?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

58.

Capsid of polio virus is:

a)

Tubular

b)

Pyramidal

c)

Spherical

d)

Hexagonal

59.

Vascular lesions in epithelial layer of ectodermal tissue are formed in:

a)

Measles

b)

Herpes simplex

c)

Mumps

d)

Small pox

60.

Cocci forming irregular clusters are:

a)

Streptococci

b)

Staphylococci

c)

Diplococci

d)

Sarcina

61.

Peptidoglycan is not present in cell wall of:

a)

Gram positive bacteria

b)

Archaeobacteria

c)

Gram negative bacteria

d)

Eubacteria

62.

Chemotaxis and motility is not shown by most of:

a)

Cocci

b)

Bacilli

c)

Spirilla

d)

Spirochete

63.

All of the following are true about cell wall of Gram positive bacteria except:

a)

Thick peptidoglycan layer

b)

Wide periplasmic space

c)

Outer membrane present

d)

More permeable

64.

These are coelomates:

a)

Flatworms

b)

Roundworms

c)

Segmented worms

d)

Sponges

65.

Secondary host of liver fluke is:

a)

Snail

b)

Pig

c)

Sheep

d)

Man

66.

The effect caused by Ancylostoma duodenale is:

a)

Anemia

b)

Retards physical growth

c)

Retards mental growth

d)

All “A” “B” “C”

67.

Yeasts ferment glucose to:

a)

Lactic acid only

b)

Lactic acid & carbon dioxide

c)

Ethanol only

d)

Ethanol & carbon dioxide

68.

All of the following insects are useful to humans except:

a)

Locust

b)

Honey bee

c)

Silk worm

d)

All “A” “B” “C”

69.

Correct Boiling point trend of glycol, Ethanol and water is

a)

Glycol > water > Ethanol

b)

Ethanol > glycol > Water

c)

Water > Glycol > Ethanol

d)

Ethanol > Water > glycol

70.

100 cm3 of water was freezed, the volume of ice will be

a)

91 cm3

b)

9 cm3

c)

100 cm3

d)

109 cm3

71.

The crystals of ________ are not non polar molecular solids

a)

Sugar

b)

Dry Ice

c)

Sulphur

d)

Iodine

72.

Total number of moles of anions in one formula unit of sodium chloride are

a)

4

b)

1

c)

2

d)

8

73.

Which organic compound has lowest vapor pressure

a)

n-Pentane

b)

Neo-Pentane

c)

iso-Pentane

d)

All have same

74.

In combustion analysis, water absorbed by Mg (ClO 4)2 is ________

a)

Physical change

b)

electro chemical change

c)

Chemical change

d)

both A and C

75.

Volume of one mole of an ideal gas will be 22.414 dm3 at

a)

0°C and 2atm pressure

b)

273 K and 2atm pressure

c)

546K and 2 atm pressure

d)

546°C and 2 atm pressure

76.

How many number of moles of electrons are present in 0.01Kg of Ca

a)

5mole

b)

25mole

c)

10mole

d)

0.25mole

77.

Which of the following specie contains same number of all fundamental particles

a)

H2O

b)

OH

c)

HF

d)

F2

78.

If temperature of water decreases from 25°C to 0°C then its density will be

a)

Decrease

b)

1st increase then decrease

c)

Increase

d)

First decrease than increase

79.

The value of quantum number for the valence electron in fluorine atom is

a)

n = 2; l = 1; m = +1

b)

n = 3; l = 0; m = +2

c)

n = 3; l = 1; m = +1

d)

n = 3; l = 2; m = +3

80.

If the rate of reaction is doubled by doubling [A] and rate remain same by doubling [B], then overall order of reaction is A+B →P

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

Zero

81.

Minimum bond angle is associated with

a)

sp3 hybridization

b)

sp hybridization

c)

sp2 hybridization

d)

All have same

82.

All of the following metals lie below the SHE except

a)

Ni+2

b)

Fe+3

c)

Cu+1

d)

Hg+2

83.

What is oxidation state of chlorine in Mg(ClO4)2

a)

-1

b)

+1

c)

+7

d)

+5

84.

Lattice energy of NaCl is -787 kJ/mol and Δ\Delta  Hf is -411 what is Δ\Delta  Hx for NaCl

a)

-1198kJ/mol

b)

+1198kJ/mol

c)

-376kJ/mol

d)

+376 kJ/mol

85.

The products of electrolysis of dilute aqueous silver nitrate are

a)

Ag and O2

b)

Ag and O2

c)

H2 and O2

d)

Ag and NO2

86.

60 kJ mol-1 is the activation energy for the forward reaction X→ Z ΔH = +20 kJ mol-1. The activation energy for the reverse reaction will be

a)

80 kJ mol-1

b)

40 kJ mol-1

c)

60 kJ mol-1

d)

20 kJ mol-1

87.

In which of the following compounds, oxidation state of Oxygen is +1?

a)

H2O2

b)

F2O2

c)

H2O

d)

BaO2

88.

For reaction, rate = k[A]2[B]1. If rate is 0.04 moldm–3 s–1, concentration of A is 0.2 M and concentration of B is 1 M. The value of rate constant ‘k’ would be

a)

0.05 mol dm–3sec–1

b)

0.5 mol+2dm–6sec–1

c)

1 mol-2dm+6 sec–1

d)

2 sec–1

89.

Which of the following reaction is the fastest?

a)

Rusting of iron

b)

Hydrolysis of ester

c)

Hydrolysis of alkyl halide

d)

Precipitation of AgCl by mixing of NaCl(aq) and AgNO3(aq)

90.

The total number of electrons present in the sub-shells having l = 0 in 29Cu

a)

21

b)

18

c)

7

d)

12

91.

Number of electrons in M-shell and N-shell of 24Cr

a)

18, 32

b)

18,2

c)

12, 2

d)

13, 1

92.

The number of total atoms in 4.4g of CO2 is

a)

6.02×1022

b)

18×1023

c)

1.8×1023

d)

1.2×1023

93.

In a container pure water is boiled maintaining the external pressure is less than 14.7 Psi. The boiling point will be

a)

100oC

b)

> 100oC

c)

< 100oC

d)

120oC

94.

Among which of the following factor the rate constant of 1st order reaction depends upon

a)

Temperature

b)

Concentration of reactants

c)

Pressure

d)

Volume

95.

In air at STP, the average kinetic energy of

a)

Nitrogen molecules is greater than oxygen molecules

b)

Oxygen molecules is less than nitrogen molecules

c)

Nitrogen molecules is less than oxygen molecules

d)

Oxygen molecules is equal to nitrogen molecules

96.

In the reaction

3Br2 + 6CO32- + 3H2 O → 5Br- + BrO-3 + 6HCO-3

a)

Bromine is oxidized and carbonate is reduced

b)

Bromine is reduced and water is oxidized

c)

Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized

d)

Bromine is both reduced and oxidized

97.

The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are –393.5 and –283 kJ mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is

a)

–676.5kJ

b)

110.5kJ

c)

–110.5kJ

d)

676.5kJ

98.

The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX2 in water is 4×10–12 the

concentration of M2+ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is

a)

1.6 × 10–4 M

b)

2.0 × 10–6

c)

4×10–10M

d)

1.0 × 10–4M

99.

How many number of hydrogen atoms are in 7.5 gram of CH2O

a)

1/2 x NA

b)

1/4 x NA

c)

1 x NA

d)

2 x NA

100.

Which of the following have lowest heat of vaporization

a)

F2

b)

I2

c)

Cl2

d)

Br2

101.

How much O2 is required for the combustion of 5cm3 of C5H12

a)

5cm3

b)

40cm3

c)

25cm3

d)

20cm3

102.

What temperature would be required to change 6dm3 of gas at 1 atm pressure and 27°C to 10dm3 at 0.8 atm pressure

a)

350 K

b)

480 K

c)

400K

d)

500 K

103.

After 3 half-lives of a chemical reaction, the percentage fraction of the amount

disintegrated is

a)

75%

b)

25%

c)

12.5%

d)

87.5%

104.

The pKa of a weak acid is 3.8 what should be the ratio of log [salt] / [acid], if a buffer of pH = 5.8 is required?

a)

1

b)

0.1

c)

10

d)

2

105.

If pressure and temperature of 1000cm3 of carbon dioxide gas is doubled, then the

volume of carbon dioxide gas would be

a)

1000dm3

b)

1000cm3

c)

2000cm3

d)

500cm3

106.

The energy of activation (Ea) of an exothermic reaction is 101.210kJ/mol. The activation energy for reverse step may be

a)

99.210 kJ/mol

b)

105.110 kJ/mol

c)

97.410 kJ/mol

d)

95.111 kJ/mol

107.

Which statement is incorrect regarding 22g of CO2

a)

It occupies 11.2dm3 of CO2 at STP

b)

It contains 3.01×1023 molecules of CO2

c)

It contains 0.5 moles of oxygen atoms

d)

It contains 0.5 moles of carbon atoms

108.

Which gas has maximum root mean square velocity at STP

a)

N2

b)

H2

c)

O2

d)

SO2

109.

During which process the particles come so close to each other that empty spaces

between them are minimum

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Sublimation

d)

Fusion

110.

The different substances are given below with their boiling points in the following table

Select substance having strongest intermolecular forces

a)

HF

b)

C2H5OH

c)

NH3

d)

C2H5OC2H5

111.

Ionic solids are mostly of high density due to

a)

Chemical bonding

b)

Crystalline nature

c)

Close packing of ions

d)

Network structure

112.

Vapour pressure of liquids is inversely proportional

a)

Surface area

b)

Temperature

c)

Intermolecular forces

d)

Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

113.

How many electrons are present in penultimate shell (second last shell) of O-2

a)

Equal to H–1

b)

Equal to Na+1

c)

Equal to He+1

d)

Equal to H+1

114.

The correct set of quantum number is

a)

n = 2 , l = 1, m = –2, s = 0

b)

n = 2, l = 2, m = –1, s = –1/2

c)

n = 2, l = –2, m = 1, s = +1/2

d)

n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2

115.

The Clion present at the corner of the unit cell is NaCl crystal, contributes

a)

1/4 th

b)

1/8 th

c)

1/2 th

d)

1

116.

Select correct statement

a)

When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons take place

b)

Pure H2O does not contain any ion

c)

A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces

d)

HF is less polar than HBr

117.

Maximum number of electrons in an orbital of sub-shell having l = 1

a)

6

b)

2

c)

1

d)

10

118.

The number of hydrogen molecules present in the 0.2g is

a)

3.01 × 1023

b)

6.02 × 1020

c)

6.02 × 1023

d)

6.02 × 1022

119.

Purification of table salt (NaCl) by passing HCl gas through its saturated aqueous

solution is an example of

a)

Law of mass action

b)

Hess’s law

c)

Common ion effect

d)

Henry’s law

120.

The lowest value of lattice energy which one of these ionic compound has

a)

NaI

b)

NaF

c)

NaBr

d)

NaCl

121.

________reactions will be favoured in forward direction by increase in pressure at equilibrium

a)

H2 + I2 2HI

b)

N2 + 3H2 2NH3

c)

PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

d)

N2O4 2NO2

122.

Point out the false statement

a)

A catalyst increases the rate in both direction

b)

Low Ea is associated with fast reaction

c)

A catalyst can change equilibrium constant

d)

The activated state represents highly unstable state

123.

In a uniform circular motion:

a)

Both acceleration and speed changes

b)

Both acceleration and speed are constant

c)

Both acceleration and velocity are constant

d)

Both acceleration and velocity changes

124.

A bullet penetrates a wooden block and loses its velocity by a half. What is the ratio between the initial kinetic energy of the bullet and kinetic energy when the bullet leaves the block?

a)

1 : 2

b)

1 : 4

c)

4 : 1

d)

2 : 1

125.

A simple pendulum hangs from the roof of a train. The string is inclined towards the

rear of the train. What is the nature of motion of the train?

a)

Uniform

b)

Accelerated

c)

Retarded

d)

At rest

126.

When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied which increases the internal energy of the gas is

a)

2/5

b)

3/5

c)

3/7

d)

5/7

127.

The equation of state corresponding to 8 g of O2 is,

a)

PV=RT/2

b)

PV=RT/4

c)

PV=RT

d)

PV=8RT

128.

An iron sphere of mass 10 kg has the same diameter as an aluminium sphere of mass is 3.5 kg. Both spheres are dropped simultaneously from a tower. When they are 10 m above the ground, they have the same.

a)

Acceleration

b)

Momenta

c)

Potential energy

d)

Kinetic energy

129.

If a body starts its S.H.M from its positive extreme position its initial phase is

a)

π/2

b)

3π/2

c)

π

d)

π/4

130.

The displacement of particle executing SHM is given by y = 5 Sin 20πt. Its frequency is

a)

10 Hz

b)

20 π Hz

c)

0.1 Hz

d)

20 Hz

131.

What will be the ratio of KE to that of PE of mass spring vibrating system at the mean position?

a)

1:2

b)

\infty  

c)

2:1

d)

3:4

132.

Normal Human body Temperature is

a)

98 °F

b)

102 °F 

c)

37 °F

d)

300 K

133.

Total energy of a mass attached to a spring with amplitude X0 is

a)

1/2 kx02

b)

1/2 kx2

c)

1/2 k(x2-x20)

d)

1/2 k(1-x2/x02)

134.

A particle of mass 1 kg is moving along a straight line. Its velocity-time graph is as

shown in Fig. Work done by the resultant of all forces acting on the particle from t = 0 to t = 8 s is:

a)

25 J

b)

50 J

c)

Zero

d)

12.5 J

135.

Car A has a mass of 1000 kg and a speed of 60 km/h, and car B has a mass of 2000 kg and a speed of 30 km/h. The kinetic energy of car A is _______.

a)

Half that of car B

b)

Equal that of car B

c)

Twice that of car B

d)

Four times that of car B

136.

The specific heat of a gas

a)

Has only one value

b)

Has two values CP and CV

c)

Is proportional to the square root of its absolute temperature

d)

Can have any value between 0 and infinity

137.

A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius R with uniform speed

v. When it moves from one point to a diametrically opposite point its

a)

Kinetic energy changes by Mv2/4

b)

Momentum does not change

c)

Momentum changes by 2 Mv

d)

Kinetic energy changes by Mv2

138.

The velocity of sound in air is 332 ms–1. The length of a closed pipe whose frequency of second overtone is 332 Hz, will be:

a)

0.51 m

b)

1.25 m

c)

0.75 m

d)

1.75 m

139.

A particle executes SHM with a time period of 2s and amplitude 5 cm. Maximum magnitude of its velocity is

a)

10 π cm s–1

b)

2.5 π cm s–1

c)

20 π cm s–1

d)

5 π cm s–1

140.

The projection of uniform circular motion along any diameter called as

a)

Periodic motion

b)

Circular motion

c)

Simple harmonic motion

d)

None of these

141.

A 0.5 kg ball moves in a circle of radius 0.4 m with a velocity of 4 ms-1. The centripetal force on the ball is

a)

10 N

b)

40 N

c)

20 N

d)

80 N

142.

What is the average power required to lift a mass of 100kg to a height of 50m in 50 Seconds?

a)

100 W

b)

980 W

c)

50 W

d)

5000 W

143.

A car has a linear velocity v on a circular track of radius r. If its speed is increasing at a rate of a m/s2, then its resultant acceleration will be

a)

(v2r)2+a2\sqrt[]{\left(\frac{v^2}{r}\right)^2+a^2}  

b)

(v2r)2a2\sqrt[]{\left(\frac{v^2}{r}\right)^2-a^2}  

c)

(v2r)2+a2\left(\frac{v^2}{r}\right)^2+a^2  

d)

(v2r)2a2\left(\frac{v^2}{r}\right)^2-a^2  

144.

Which of the following graphs best represents graphical relation between momentum P and kinetic energy K for a body in motion?

a)
b)
c)
d)
145.

If r = 1m and θ= 1 degree then what is the value of S

a)

0.01745m

b)

1m

c)

2m

d)

None

146.

A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a string of length 1.96 m is moving in

a horizontal circle. The string will break if the tension is more than 25 N. What is

the maximum speed with which the ball can be moved?

a)

14 m/s

b)

3 m/s

c)

3.92 m/s

d)

5 m/s

147.

A particle is projected at 60° to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic

energy at highest point is ...

a)

K/2

b)

K

c)

zero

d)

K/4

148.

An object is projected up wards with velocity of 100 m/sec. it will strike the ground in approximately (g=10 m/sec2)

a)

10 sec

b)

20 sec

c)

15 sec

d)

5 sec

149.

Velocity–time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. Work done by all the forces on the particle is:

a)

400 J

b)

–400 J

c)

–200 J

d)

200 J

150.

An aeroplane moving horizontally with 50 ms–1 drops a packet at 490 m height. Its time of flight is

a)

50 sec

b)

40 sec

c)

10 sec

d)

20 sec

151.

Time taken by an engine of 10 kW to lift a mass of 2 kg to a height of 5m is

a)

10–1 sec

b)

10–2 sec

c)

10–3 sec

d)

10 sec

152.

Time rate of change of position vector is called

a)

Displacement

b)

Acceleration

c)

Velocity

d)

Momentum

153.

As shown in the figure a particle moves from 0 to A, and then A to B. Find pathlength (distance) and displacement.

a)

8m, –2m

b)

8m, -8m

c)

2m, –2m

d)

2m, 2m

154.

At maximum height in projectile motion v\overrightarrow{v}  and a\overrightarrow{a}  are

a)

Parallel

b)

Anti parallel

c)

Perpendicular

d)

None

155.

A small motor requires 50 W of electrical power in order to produce 40 W of mechanical energy output. The efficiency of the motor is:

a)

10%

b)

80%

c)

40%

d)

90%

156.

If θ > 900 work is said to be

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Zero

d)

None of these

157.

Work done by gravity when P.E of body is increased is

a)

Positive

b)

Zero

c)

Negative

d)

Both positive and negative

158.

Range of projectile is same as that for θ and 2θ. The value of θ is:

a)

15°

b)

45°

c)

30°

d)

60°

159.

If linear momentum of body is increased by 1.5%, its kinetic energy increases by.......%

a)

0%

b)

3%

c)

10%

d)

5%

160.

Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 5 kg moving in concentric orbits of radii R and r

such that their periods are the same. Then the ratio between their centripetal

acceleration is

a)

R/r

b)

r/R

c)

R2/r2

d)

r2/R2

161.

If s represents distance and S\overrightarrow{S}   represents displacement, then S\left|\overrightarrow{S}\right| /s is.

a)

> 1

b)

< 1

c)

= 1

d)

≤ 1

162.

A shell initially at rest explodes into two pieces of equal mass, then the two pieces will

a)

Move with different velocities in different directions

b)

Be at rest

c)

Move with the same velocity in the same direction

d)

Move with the same velocity in opposite directions

163.

A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on a horizontal frictionless table. What is conserved?

a)

Momentum and kinetic energy

b)

Kinetic energy alone

c)

Momentum alone

d)

Neither momentum nor kinetic energy

164.

It is possible to distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves form the property of

a)

Refraction

b)

Polarization

c)

Interference

d)

Diffraction

165.

The velocity of sound in air would become double than its velocity at 0°C at temperature

a)

313°C

b)

586°C

c)

819° C

d)

1172°C

166.

Doppler effect applies to

a)

Soundwave only

b)

Light wave only

c)

Both sound and light waves

d)

Neither sound nor light wave

167.

What kind of wave is formed in organ pipes?

a)

Transverse stationary waves

b)

Electromagnetic waves

c)

Mechanical waves

d)

Longitudinal stationary waves

168.

At antinodes produced in sound waves:

a)

The pressure is minimum and velocity is maximum

b)

The pressure is maximum and velocity is minimum

c)

Pressure is maximum

d)

None of these

169.

The frequency of the first harmonic of a string stretched between two points is 100HZ. The frequency of the third overtone is

a)

200Hz

b)

300Hz

c)

400Hz

d)

600Hz

170.

Consider the standing wave pattern shown below. A wave generated at the left end of the medium undergoes reflection at the fixed end on the right side of the medium. The number of antinodes in the diagram is

a)

3.0

b)

4.0

c)

6.0

d)

7.0

171.

The ratio of phase difference and path difference is:

a)

2P

b)

2π/λ

c)

λ/

d)

π/λ

172.

Two light waves being produced by two sources S1 and S2. Both sources have zero phase difference and have wavelength λ. The destructive interference of both the waves will occur of point P if (S1P – S2P) has the value

a)

11/2 λ

b)

3/4 λ

c)

d)

173.

A system is provided with 200 cal of heat and the work done by the system on the

surrounding is 40 J. Then its internal energy

a)

Increases by 600 J

b)

Decreases by 800 J

c)

Increases by 800 J

d)

Decreases by 50 J

174.

An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state. Four

processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric, and isochoric. Out of 1, 2, 3 and 4 which one is adiabatic?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

175.

In an isochoric process if T1=27oC and T2=127oC, then P1/P2 will be equal to

a)

9 / 59

b)

2 / 3

c)

3 / 4

d)

None of these

176.

When heat is given to a gas in an isothermal change, the result will be

a)

External work done

b)

Rise in temperature

c)

Increase in internal energy

d)

External work done and also rise in temp.

177.

Spot the error:

He is the only one of the persons on the staff who affect me emotionally; however ,everyone else I know is wonderful and easy.

a)

on

b)

affect

c)

however

d)

is

178.

Spot the error:

To cope with all the ships bringing the cargoes and other eatables were not easy.

a)

To cope

b)

with

c)

bringing

d)

were

179.

Spot the error:

About 33% of deaths from major operations was due to bacteria in pre-Listerian days.

a)

deaths

b)

from

c)

was

d)

pre-Listerian

180.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

None of the staff at Brookfield remembers his wife.

b)

None of the staff in Brookfield remember his wife.

c)

None of the staffs at Brookfield remember his wife.

d)

None of the staffs in Brookfield remembers his wife.

181.

Spot the error:

I followed him down the little path between the pasture along with the meadow.

a)

down

b)

little

c)

along with

d)

meadow

182.

Spot the Error:

After five years, she switched to ambulatory dialysis, which she could do at home and tried to live as full a life that possible.

a)

which

b)

could

c)

to live

d)

that

183.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

The whole building shook as if it was being lifted off its foundations.

b)

The whole building shook as if it were being lifted off its foundations.

c)

The whole building shook as if it had been lifted off its foundations.

d)

The whole building shook as if it were being lilted of its foundations.

184.

Spot the error:

He would ask the new boys that if they had any family connections at Brookfield.

a)

that

b)

they

c)

any

d)

at

185.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

I'd end up with my family at this farm that if I tried to make a living here.

b)

I'd end up with my family at this farm whether if I tried to make a living here.

c)

I'd end up with my family at this farm if I tried to make a living here.

d)

I'd end up with my family at this farm that I tried to make a living here.

186.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

People have had to change their old ideas as a result of new discoveries done by scientists.

b)

People have had to change their old ideas because of the result of new discoveries led by scientists.

c)

People have had to change their old ideas as a result of new discoveries made by scientists.

d)

People have had to change their old ideas as a result of new discoveries conducted by scientists.

187.

Spot the error:

Rumours that he had been suspended had swept across the center two weeks ago, but the shopping center’s management company refused to admit or deny the claims

a)

had been

b)

had swept

c)

refused

d)

deny

188.

Some people passed, stopped, turned to look, and some stood watched.

a)

passed

b)

stopped

c)

turned

d)

watched

189.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

I propose that Sajid can be asked to perform in the program.

b)

I propose that Sajid be asked to perform in the program.

c)

I propose that Sajid was asked to perform in the program.

d)

I propose that Sajid had to be asked to perform in the program.

190.

Simplification of the language was urgent necessary, for Turkish had been a mixture of Turkish, Arabic, and Persian

a)

Simplification

b)

urgent

c)

for

d)

Turkish, Arabic, and Persian

191.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

I, therefore, had to throw them away or wipe them off the map altogether.

b)

I therefore, had to throw them away or wipe them off the map all together.

c)

I therefore, had to throw them away or wipe it off the map altogether.

d)

I; therefore, had to throw them away or wipe them off the map all together.

192.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

They may replace foreign machines because they are superior than foreign equipments.

b)

They may replace foreign machineries because they are superior than foreign equipment

c)

They may replace foreign machineries because they are superior to foreign equipments.

d)

They may replace foreign machines because they are superior to foreign equipment

193.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

She is incredible artist who has endured public derision and scorn for well over a decade.

b)

She is an incredible artist who has endured public derision and scorn for well over a decade.

c)

She is an incredibly artist who has endured public derision and scorn for well over decade.

d)

She is an incredible artist who has endured a public derision and scorn for well over decade.

194.

Spot the error:

 I stopped here twenty-four years ago because I decided I wasn't looking for something anymore.

a)

twenty-four

b)

ago

c)

for

d)

something

195.
a)

42

b)

46

c)

48

d)

50

196.

Find the wrong term

2,5,10,17,26,37,50,64

a)

17

b)

26

c)

37

d)

64

197.

Statements:

All aeroplanes are trains. Some trains are chairs.

Conclusions:

I. Some aeroplanes are chairs.

II. Some chairs are aeroplanes.

III. Some chairs are trains.

IV. Some trains are aeroplanes

a)

Only III and IV

b)

Only I and II

c)

Only II and III

d)

III and IV are inappropriate

198.

 

Tanya is older than Eric.

Cliff is older than Tanya.

Eric is older than Cliff.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Uncertain

199.

Anam, Mehwish Raju, Laraib and Dua are five cousins. Anam is twice as old as Mehwish. Raju is half the age Mehwish. Anam is half the age of Dua and Raju is twice the age of Laraib.

Who is the youngest?

a)

Dua

b)

Raju

c)

Laraib

d)

Anam

200.

Ali starts walking in the North direction and travels 5 km then he turns to his left and walks 10 km and he again he turns to his left and walks for 5 km. How far is he from his starting point?

a)

5 Km

b)

15 Km

c)

10 Km

d)

20 Km