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CMAA Review

Total questions: 195

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a type of physical safeguard to protect patient medical records?

a)

Firewalls

b)

Automatic log off

c)

Software that logs access history

d)

Employee training

2.

Which of the following paper filing systems can be helpful in a multiple-provider practice?

a)

Alphabetic

b)

Color

c)

Numeric

d)

Terminal digit

3.

Which of the following is accurate regarding back-up procedures for data storage in a health care organization?

a)

Medical administrative assistants perform back-up procedures daily.

b)

Downtime may be necessary when upgrades or maintenance occur.

c)

Data should be backed up in a room off the health care facility.

d)

The system should be backed up annually.

4.

Which of the following would petty cash funds cover?

a)

All items greater than $100 each

b)

Utility expenses

c)

Lunch for a medical provider

d)

Purchasing a new printer

5.

Which of the following methods of payment is typically not accepted for patient copayment amounts?

a)

Debit cards

b)

Personal check

c)

Credit card

d)

Cash

6.

Which of the following actions must be taken at the end of the day for payments collected?

a)

Balance financial transactions.

b)

Take the payments home to ensure they will not be lost.

c)

Store cash received in the petty cash fund.

d)

Put the payments on the provider’s desk to be addressed the next day.

7.

Which of the following is an opening procedure performed in a health care facility?

a)

Preparing the reception and waiting room area

b)

Sterilizing and shutting down equipment

c)

Turning on the answering service

d)

Disinfecting all common areas

8.

Which of the following should be printed out during the opening procedures for a health care organization?

a)

The schedule for the day

b)

The reconciliation of financial transactions

c)

A log that includes who enters and exits the facility

d)

An audit log that shows which medical records were accessed by whom.

9.

Who is responsible for monitoring and replenishing petty cash funds?

a)

Patients

b)

Medical administrative assistant

c)

Front desk

d)

Office manager

10.

Which of the following must be included in the inventory of equipment for the health care organization?

a)

Upgradeable options

b)

Brand comparisons

c)

Maintenance log

d)

Customer rating

11.

Which of the following should be verified when deliveries of supplies are received?

a)

The person who inventoried the prior delivery

b)

If the item goes to a specific person or department

c)

The person who placed the order researched for the best price

d)

Any discounts received for the supplies

12.

Which of the following can be used to make inventory software easier to use while maintaining accuracy?

a)

Linking the computer system to the vendors

b)

Only inventorying items greater than $500 in value

c)

Having two different employees verify

d)

Using barcodes for tracking

13.

Which of the following can be a financial repercussion of not updating the inventory regularly?

a)

A person or department not receiving their item

b)

Having an excessive number of expired supplies

c)

Having the right number of supplies

d)

Preventing a shortage of items

14.

Which of the following is a benefit of using inventory software?

a)

Eliminating downtime

b)

Determining trends of usage

c)

Having a surplus of supplies

d)

Limiting access to one person

15.

Which type of correspondence can be used to communicate a message to office staff with a date for a reference?

a)

Template

b)

Formal letter

c)

Standard form letter

d)

Memorandum

16.

Which of the following should be used when answering the telephone in a health care facility?

a)

The name of the facility

b)

A loud voice

c)

A monotone voice

d)

The date and location of facility

17.

Which of the following actions should be taken when a second call comes in while speaking with a person on the first call?

a)

Put the first person on hold, and complete the second call

b)

Let the second call go to voicemail

c)

Put the first person on hold, and screen the second call

d)

Ask the first caller to call back later so the second call can be answered

18.

When the health care facility has a downtime and paper messages are required, which of the following information must be documented?

a)

The name of the health care facility

b)

The facility's cell phone service company

c)

The facility's employer information

d)

The initials of the person who took the message

19.

Which of the following is a proper salutation?

a)

To Whom It May Concern

b)

Dear Sir or Madam

c)

Dear Nelson Fletcher

d)

Dear Mr. Nelson Fletcher

20.

Which of the following applies to written correspondence?

a)

Proofread correspondence before sending

b)

Write at a college level to patients

c)

Correspond when upset so that details are not forgotten

d)

Incorporate complex medical terms

21.

Which of the following should be followed when writing to a specific person?

a)

Use generic greetings.

b)

Use nicknames.

c)

Use Mrs. if female.

d)

Use their formal name.

22.

Which of the following is true for written correspondence in an electronic message to a patient?

a)

Incorporate positive emojis.

b)

Send test results and medical records via regular email.

c)

Include a personal signature line.

d)

Keep a copy of the correspondence in the patient’s medical records.

23.

In which of the following software programs should medical administrative assistants be proficient?

a)

Desktop publishing

b)

Word processing

c)

Slide presentation

d)

Database software

24.

Which of the following should be completed during downtime without computer access?

a)

Document each action and information.

b)

Assign one employee to document all occurrences.

c)

Record information the next day or when the computers are available.

d)

Make notes of relevant points.

25.

Which of the following is a key factor to consider when experiencing downtime?

a)

Physical documentation

b)

Data usage

c)

Internet access

d)

Alarm system

26.
Which of the following filing systems protects patient privacy and allows for unlimited expansion? 
a)
Subject
b)
Alphabetical
c)
Numeric
d)
Chronological
27.
What is the appropriate step to take when handling a rejected health insurance claim?
a)
Cry and update the claim w a different date of service
b)
Resubmit claim w new diagnosis and procedure codes
c)
Downcode the claim to ensure payment
d)
Verify coding compliance and resubmit claim for adjudication
28.
Which of the following is a step in the annotation process?
a)
rewriting text
b)
deleting text
c)
praphrasing text
d)
highlighting text
29.
Which of the following forms is used to submit health insurance claims for a provider's office?
a)
UB-04
b)
CMS-1500
c)
CMS-1490S
d)
DE2501
30.
Which of the following is an example of an incidental disclosure?
a)
Having a sign-in sheet that includes a patient's name and provider
b)
Disclosing a patient's diagnosis to a family member who is not involved in patient's care
c)
Providing a grandparent with test results regarding a minor's prior condition without written authorization
d)
Supplying a patient's medical documentation to an insurance company.
31.
Which of the following prefixes means abnormal?
a)
Ad-
b)
Dia-
c)
Dys-
d)
Ab-
32.
Which of the following should a medical administrative assistant complete if a provider believes Medicare might not cover a procedure?
a)
Medicare Summary Notice(MSN)
b)
Remittance Advice (RA)
c)
Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)
d)
Explanation of Benefits(EOB)
33.
Which of the following is the abbreviation for an electroencephalogram?
a)
EKG
b)
EEG
c)
ECG
d)
EBB
34.
The CMAA is reviewing the release form of a patient who is a dependent minor.  The assistant should ensure that who of the following signed the release form?
a)
legal custodian
b)
the minor
c)
the attending provider
d)
a parent
35.
Which of the following approaches is appropriate when preparing a patient for surgery?
a)
mail written instructions to the patient
b)
Review written instructions with the patient
c)
Request someone to call from a surgeon's office w/instructions
d)
Advise the patient to call the surgery center for instructions
36.
A collected specimen needs to be sent to an outside lab. Which of the following actions is within the scope of practice of a medical admin. assistant?
a)
Match the specimen to the demographics on the patient's chart
b)
Process the requisition for shipment
c)
Prepare the specimen for secure transport.
d)
Ensure proper storage of the specimen prior to shipment
37.
A patient's chart indicates the need for PT as a result of a strained muscle. The CMAA should recognize the abbreviation PT as which of the following?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
Patient temperature
c)
Physical Therapy
d)
Puncture tear
38.
A patient authorizes a third-party payer to reimburse a provider directly by signing which of the following?
a)
Accept Assignment
b)
Advanced Beneficiary Notice
c)
Advance Directives
d)
Assignment of Benefits
39.
A patient is afebrile and has rhinorrhea. The CMAA should understand this as which of the following?
a)
Nasal congestion but no fever
b)
Fever and nasal congestion
c)
Runny nose but no fever
d)
Fever and runny nose
40.
Which of the following types of insurance plans was developed to provide affordable, comprehensive, prepaid healthcare to policyholders? 
a)
HMO
b)
PPO
c)
Health Savings Account
d)
Point of Service Plan
41.
A CMAA should verify a patient's CPT code for which of the following processes? 
a)
Coordination of benefits
b)
Determining eligibility of services
c)
Obtaining prior authorization
d)
Receiving a referral
42.
A CMAA should include which of the following in the compliance plan when training new medical admin. assistants?
a)
Joint commission compliance
b)
HIPAA Compliance
c)
NAHIT compliance
d)
CLIA compliance
43.
Which of the following parts of Medicare pays for hospitalization?
a)
Part A
b)
Part B
c)
Part C
d)
Part D
44.
Based on HIPAA guidelines, a CMAA should take which of the following safeguards when leaving a workstation?
a)
Lock the computer
b)
Exit the program
c)
Turn off the computer monitor
d)
Minimize open programs
45.
Which call should CMAA route directly to the provider?
a)
a health insurance carrier requests a patient's medical notes
b)
a provider from another office needs to discuss a patient's case
c)
Worker's comp needs a return to work date for patient
d)
an attorney calls to discuss a patient's case.
46.

A medical administrative assistant is reviewing remittance advice to determine how claims have been paid and to see if any errors have occurred by the third-party payer. This action occurs in which of the following phases of the revenue cycle?

a)

A. Receiving and posting reimbursement

b)

B. Payer adjudication

c)

C. Appeals and claims collections

d)

D. Health care encounter and documentation

47.

What stage is the revenue cycle considered to be completed?

a)

A. Registration and scheduling

b)

B. Payer adjudication

c)

C. Health care encounter and documentation

d)

D. Posting the payment

48.

A medical administrative assistant is checking with a patient’s insurance payer to determine if a referral or preauthorization is needed prior to performing an MRI. This action occurs in which of the following phases of the revenue cycle?

a)

A. Payer adjudication

b)

B. Appeals and claims collection

c)

C. Charge capture and coding

d)

D. Utilization management review

49.

A medical administrative assistant is contacting the insurance payer to determine benefits coverage for a procedure and is requesting approval. Which of the following steps of the revenue cycle is being followed?

a)

A. Appeal

b)

B. Payer adjudication

c)

C. Eligibility and insurance preauthorization

d)

D. Encounter documentation

50.

Which of the following items is required in the encounter note?

a)

A. Provider signature

b)

B. Copay amount

c)

C. Provider’s phone number

d)

D. Patient address

51.

How often should a medical administrative assistant perform charge reconciliation?

a)

A. Yearly

b)

B. Monthly

c)

C. Daily

d)

D. Weekly

52.

A medical administrative assistant notices a difference between the billed and allowed amount. Which of the following type of transaction must be posted in the patient account?

a)

A. Hardship write-off

b)

B. Contractual adjustment

c)

C. Payment posting

d)

D. Charge entry

53.

An electronic health record (EHR) system assists health care organizations with which of the following tasks?

a)

A. Provider documentation

b)

B. Interviewing and hiring new staff

c)

C. Ordering of supplies

d)

D. Attracting new patients

54.

Which of the following payers is designed for military members and their family?

a)

A. TRICARE

b)

B. Medicare

c)

C. Medicaid

d)

D. Workers' compensation

55.

A provider agrees to accept the payer's allowed amount. What is the provider's status?

a)

Non-participating provider

b)

Eligible

c)

Participating provider

d)

Value-based

56.

A fee-for-service Medicare patient arrives at a provider's office for medical services related to otitis media. Which of the following parts of Medicare should be billed?

a)

Part A

b)

Part B

c)

Part C

d)

Part D

57.

A Medicare patient presents to the office for medication refills but expresses a financial barrier. Which of the following Medicare plans might be able to assist the patient with paying for prescription medications?

a)

Part A

b)

Part B

c)

Part C

d)

Part D

58.

A provider is reimbursed for services rendered using CPT and ICD-10-CM codes. This is an example of which of the following types of payment models?

a)

Value-based payment model

b)

Capitation

c)

Pay-for-performance

d)

Fee-for-service

59.

A provider is rewarded via a bonus when quality and performance measures are met. This is an example of which of the following types of payment models?

a)

PAR provider

b)

Pay-for-performance

c)

Fee-for-service

d)

Capitation

60.

Which of the following patients is considered Medicare eligible?

a)

A patient who has any chronic disease

b)

A patient who is under 65 years of age

c)

A patient who has an acute medical condition

d)

A patient diagnosed with end-stage renal disease

61.

Which of the following is a function of a clearinghouse?

a)

Claims adjudication

b)

Submits claims to the third-party payer

c)

Files appeals

d)

Performs charge capture and coding

62.

Which of the following is the set amount established by an insurance payer for an office visit and should be collected at the time of the encounter?

a)

Premium

b)

Deductible

c)

Copay

d)

Coinsurance

63.

A medical administrative assistant notices that no payments from a certain third party payer have been received in the past month. Which type of report should the assistant review to determine the status of the submitted claims?

a)

Patient aging report

b)

Insurance aging report

c)

Daily transaction report

d)

Patient statements

64.

Which of the following programs will qualify a patient based on income?

a)

Medicare

b)

TRICARE

c)

Workers' compensation

d)

Medicaid

65.

Which of the following is a program that is available to a patient who has no income or has specific medical needs?

a)

Special needs plan (SNP)

b)

Sliding scale

c)

Hardship waiver

d)

TRICARE plan

66.

A provider is paid a set amount for each member per month. This is an example of which of the following types of payment models?

a)

Value-based payment model

b)

Medicare Advantage Plan

c)

Fee-for-service

d)

Capitation

67.

Which of the following forms is used to report claims to a third-party payer from a provider's office?

a)

UB-04

b)

CMS-1500

c)

ABN form

d)

Patient registration form

68.

Which of the following codes are reported on the claim form to represent the conditions managed at the time of the visit and are required by the third-party payer for claims processing?

a)

HCPCS

b)

CPT

c)

DRG

d)

ICD-10-CM

69.

A third-party payer's policy for the length of time to submit claims is known as which of the following?

a)

Charge entry

b)

Timely filing

c)

Claims submission

d)

Payment posting

70.

A Medicare beneficiary has enrolled in a health plan that offers inpatient, outpatient, vision, and dental coverage. In which of the following types of health plan is the beneficiary enrolled?

a)

Medicare Part A

b)

Medicare Part B

c)

Medicare Part C

d)

Medicare Part D

71.
A CMAA is asked to schedule a CXR for a patient. What is this an x-ray of?
a)
Carpals
b)
Chest
c)
Cranium
d)
Coccyx
72.
A patient has an arrhythmia, the CMAA is asked to schedule an appointment with what type of specialist?
a)
Neurologist
b)
Cardiologist
c)
Pathologist
d)
Gastroenterologist
73.
Which of the following should a CMAA explain to new patients prior to an initial visit?
a)
The procedure to cancel an appointment
b)
The immunization requirements for staff
c)
The staff's continuing education requirements
d)
The office procedure for a no show patient
74.
The Provider asks the CMAA to schedule surgery to remove a patient's gallbladder. What procedure will the patient scheduled for?
a)
Cholecystography
b)
Cholecystogram
c)
Cholecystitis
d)
Cholecystectomy
75.
Which of the following must be provided to a patient on a first visit, as required by HIPPA?
a)
An Authorization Form
b)
Notice of Privacy Practice Form
c)
A patient Consent Form
d)
Patient's Bill of Rights
76.
Which is the best way to greet an established patient entering the office?
a)
"Hello"
b)
"Your name please"
c)
"Good afternoon, Mrs. Johnson"
d)
"You must be the 9:30 appointment"
77.
Which of the following is the purpose of an encounter form?
a)
To save time and improve accuracy in data entry
b)
To establish financial responsibility
c)
To update the status of a Workers' Compensation case
d)
To verify patient demographics
78.
Which of the following describes stream scheduling?
a)
Patients are seen according to medical necessity
b)
Patients are seen in any order they arrive
c)
Three patients are scheduled at 0900
d)
Patient's appointment is from 0900 to 0915
79.
What is included in an accurate up-to-date medical record?
a)
Only demographic information
b)
Patient medical history only
c)
Only laboratory reports
d)
 Patient medical care and insurance information
80.
What is the purpose of a provider matrix?
a)
Create flexible waiting times for patients
b)
Determine patient appointment times
c)
Differentiate between new & established patients
d)
Designates when a provider is unavailable
81.
What is the primary reason for a CMAA to document no-shows and cancellations with less than 24 hours notice
a)
Ensure billing accuracy
b)
Expedite insurance claims
c)
Maintain schedule integrity
d)
Accurate patient records
82.
What should a CMAA remember when giving instructions to a hearing impaired patient?
a)
Have conversation in a quiet area
b)
Have patient turn up hearing aid
c)
Sit side-by-side when speaking with patient
d)
Speak in a louder voice
83.
Which of the following is is the party who is financially responsible for payment?
a)
Beneficiary
b)
Adjudicator
c)
Fiscal Agent
d)
Guarantor
84.
What are CPT codes used to describe?
a)
Supplies used during surgery
b)
Type of insurance the patient has
c)
Services provided by providers
d)
Payments received from third-party payors
85.
Prior to patient leaving the office, the CMAA asks patient to pay 10% of a $100 office visit. Which best describes this fee?
a)
Coinsurance
b)
Deductible
c)
Copayment
d)
Allowed Charge
86.
When are patients scheduled in wave booking?
a)
Every 20 minutes
b)
Only before noon
c)
At the same time each hour
d)
Intermittently throughout the day
87.
Who is responsible for obtaining preauthorization for a scheduled hospital admission?
a)
Patient
b)
Hospital Business Office
c)
Plan Administrator
d)
Provider's Office
88.
How are patients scheduled in cluster or categorization booking?
a)
By age
b)
By insurance type
c)
In alphabetical order
d)
By appointment type
89.
Which of the following types of referrals is used in an emergent situation?
a)
Routine
b)
Urgent
c)
Stat
d)
Soon as possible
90.
Who is considered a guarantor?
a)
The patient's employer
b)
The insurance carrier
c)
The provider
d)
The owner of the primary insurance plan
91.
When a patient signs an Advance Directive, who should sign as a be the witness?
a)
Attorney
b)
Family Member
c)
Non-Affliated Individual
d)
Provider
92.
Which of the following terms indicates the improper release of PHI?
a)
Libel
b)
Felony
c)
Breach of Contract
d)
Breach of Confidentiality
93.
A patient needs a cast removal, the only time the provider provides this service is on Mondays mornings. What is the type of scheduling?
a)
Open Hours
b)
Wave
c)
Double- Booking
d)
Clustering
94.
Which of the following,  schedules more than one patient at the same time with the same provider while, still allowing adequate time within the hour to see all scheduled patients?
a)
Double Booking
b)
Clustering Schedule
c)
Open Hours Schedule
d)
Wave Booking
95.
Which of the following describes the "birthday rule" that designates who holds the primary insurance?
a)
Parent whose birth month & year occur last
b)
Parent whose DOB occurs earlier in the year
c)
Parent whose birth month & year occur earlier
d)
Parent whose DOB occurs later
96.

Which of the following is a pre-determined service type for optimal scheduling within the same medical organization?

a)

Same provider service within the past 3 years

b)

Service provided out-of-network

c)

Service provided with a different provider in the same medical organization

d)

Service provided via telehealth due to different geographic location

97.

A medical administrative assistant answers a call from a parent who states that their 7-year-old child has a sore throat, runny nose, and earache. The child was last seen 1 month ago for a camp physical. The assistant should schedule the appointment for which of the following durations?

a)

15 minutes

b)

20 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

60 minutes

98.

A medical administrative assistant takes a call from a patient who says they just spoke with their provider and was advised to schedule an appointment for tomorrow for high blood pressure, diabetes, and gout. For which of the following time frames should the assistant schedule the appointment?

a)

15 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

60 minutes

99.

Which of the following patient needs is appropriate to schedule for a telehealth appointment?

a)

Complete physical exam

b)

Suture removal

c)

Test results

d)

Fracture

100.

Which of the following types of equipment are required for a telehealth appointment?

a)

Printer

b)

Microphone

c)

Touchscreen

d)

Surge protector

101.

A patient is scheduled for a recurring therapy session next week and wants to know if they can change the appointment to telehealth. Which of the following actions are required prior to the telehealth appointment?

a)

The patient will need to sign a medical records release form

b)

The patient will need to consent to telehealth

c)

The provider will need to notify the patient that telehealth is not available for therapy

d)

The medical assistant must obtain preauthorization for the use of telehealth

102.

To initiate the patient registration process, the medical administrative assistant will ask for which of the following types of verification information?

a)

Proof of bank account number

b)

Credit card on file

c)

License plate number

d)

Medical insurance policy numbers

103.

Which of the following information can be located on the patient registration form?

a)

Allergies

b)

Telehealth platform

c)

Health history

d)

Religious affiliation

104.

Prior to scheduling the appointment, which of the following is the first step after collecting the patient's insurance information?

a)

Assist the patient while completing the registration form

b)

Call the previous provider and obtain the insurance information

c)

Repeat insurance information and compare insurance card and photo identification

d)

Ask the emergency contact person for the insurance information

105.

When are intervals used in the appointment schedule?

a)

For new patient appointments

b)

Between scheduled appointments

c)

During patient registration

d)

To add extra time for difficult appointments

106.

Which of the following is a difference between electronic and manual scheduling?

a)

Appointment type

b)

Schedule logs

c)

Acceptable forms of payment

d)

Templates

107.

Whether scheduling electronically or manually, a scheduled preparedness training is which of the following types of scheduling consideration?

a)

Equipment consideration

b)

Building safety

c)

Urgent

d)

Provider's chosen working hours, days, and specified times

108.

Which of the following electronic communication methods can be used to confirm a patient's scheduled appointment day, date, month, and time?

a)

Patient portal

b)

Mail

c)

Reminder card

d)

Verbal acknowledgement

109.

Which of the following is the appropriate time to remind the patient of payment expectations?

a)

During the initial registration

b)

During the arrival check-in

c)

During the appointment confirmation

d)

During the follow-up

110.

Besides insurance and payment expectations, which of the following is another confirmation essential to help reduce workflow gaps?

a)

No-show and cancellation policies

b)

Operational hours

c)

Bring financial records

d)

Bring reading material

111.

When a patient misses a recurring follow-up appointment, besides contacting the patient, which of the following actions should the medical administrative assistant take?

a)

Document the instance and reschedule the appointment

b)

Inform the insurance provider

c)

Resend the welcome materials

d)

Automatically assess a no-show fee

112.

If an hour left in the day's schedule, one of the providers has an unexpected situation and needs to leave immediately. The provider has the last seven patients of the day already checked in, waiting in the reception area. How should the remainder of the day's schedule be managed?

a)

Make a general announcement and tell the patients to leave

b)

Make a general announcement that another provider will see all today's scheduled patients in the next 2 hours

c)

Talk to each patient privately, apologize for the inconvenience, and offer another provider as an option or reschedule to a different day that is convenient for the patient

d)

Talk to each patient privately and offer to reschedule with same provider the next morning first appointment of the day

113.

An established patient confirmed the time-specified scheduled appointment for a complete annual physical appointment 48 hours prior; however, the patient arrives 3 hours late. Which of the following is the best approach to managing the schedule?

a)

Educate the patient on the scheduling impact and document the exchange

b)

Reschedule the 60-minute appointment for an alternative day and document the exchange

c)

Honor the late arrival and use the interval time to catch-up

d)

Tell the patient they will be called back next and document the late arrival

114.

Which of the following is necessary to confirm insurance authorization, coverage, and patient financial responsibility for an elective procedure appointment?

a)

Referral

b)

Preauthorization

c)

Consultation

d)

Adjudication

115.

Which of the following processes must be accomplished when scheduling a patient for a specialty consultation?

a)

Provide a welcome packet

b)

Consider provider preference

c)

Schedule preadmission testing

d)

Obtain a referral

116.

For which of the following reasons is it necessary for the medical administrative assistant to obtain preauthorization prior to specialized testing or procedures prior to scheduling an appointment?

a)

To determine medical necessity of the service

b)

To determine the amount the insurance plan will pay

c)

To determine the patient’s probability of paying for the service

d)

To determine when the appointment should be scheduled

117.

For which of the following reasons are vaccination questions a necessary part of the pre-appointment screening?

a)

To determine the need for precertification

b)

To determine the insurance coverage

c)

To determine the cost of vaccinations

d)

To determine immunity status as part of the overall health check.

118.

Which of the following is considered a mental health status question during the pre-appointment screening?

a)

Immunization changes

b)

Insurance changes

c)

Family dynamic changes

d)

Patient portal changes

119.

Which of the following is part of the symptom screening questionnaire?

a)

Test results

b)

Constipation

c)

Copayment

d)

Vacation plans

120.

During the telehealth pre-appointment screening and confirmation, which of the following technological considerations is necessary to share with the patient?

a)

Equipment brand

b)

Equipment weight

c)

Equipment positioning

d)

Equipment maintenance

121.

Which of the following is a type of physical safeguard to protect patient medical records?

a)

Firewalls

b)

Automatic log off

c)

Software that logs access history

d)

Employee training

122.

Which of the following paper filing systems can be helpful in a multiple-provider practice?

a)

Alphabetic

b)

Color

c)

Numeric

d)

Terminal digit

123.

Which of the following is accurate regarding back-up procedures for data storage in a health care organization?

a)

Medical administrative assistants perform back-up procedures daily.

b)

Downtime may be necessary when upgrades or maintenance occur.

c)

Data should be backed up in a room of the health care facility.

d)

The system should be backed up annually.

124.

Which of the following would petty cash funds cover?

a)

All items greater than $100 each

b)

Utility expenses

c)

Lunch for a medical provider

d)

Purchasing a new printer

125.

Which of the following methods of payment is typically not accepted for patient copayment amounts?

a)

Debit cards

b)

Personal check

c)

Credit card

d)

Cash

126.

Which of the following actions must be taken at the end of the day for payments collected?

a)

Balance financial transactions.

b)

Take the payments home to ensure they will not be lost.

c)

Store cash received in the petty cash fund.

d)

Put the payments on the provider’s desk to be addressed the next day.

127.

Which of the following is an opening procedure performed in a health care facility?

a)

Preparing the reception and waiting room area

b)

Sterilizing and shutting down equipment

c)

Turning on the answering service

d)

Disinfecting all common areas

128.

Which of the following should be printed out during the opening procedures for a health care organization?

a)

The schedule for the day

b)

The reconciliation of financial transactions

c)

A log that includes who enters and exits the facility

d)

An audit log that shows which medical records were accessed by whom.

129.

Who is responsible for monitoring and replenishing petty cash funds?

a)

Patients

b)

Medical administrative assistant

c)

Front desk

d)

Office manager

130.

Which of the following must be included in the inventory of equipment for the health care organization?

a)

Upgradeable options

b)

Brand comparisons

c)

Maintenance log

d)

Customer rating

131.

Which of the following should be verified when deliveries of supplies are received?

a)

A. The person who inventoried the prior delivery

b)

B. If the item goes to a specific person or department

c)

C. If the person who placed the order researched for the best price

d)

D. Any discounts received for the supplies

132.

Which of the following can be used to make inventory software easier to use while maintaining accuracy?

a)

A. Linking the computer system to the vendors

b)

B. Only inventorying items greater than $500 in value

c)

C. Having two different employees verify

d)

D. Using barcodes for tracking

133.

Which of the following can be a financial repercussion of not updating the inventory regularly?

a)

A. A person or department not receiving their item

b)

B. Having an excessive number of expired supplies

c)

C. Having the right number of supplies

d)

D. Preventing a shortage of items

134.

Which of the following is a benefit of using inventory software?

a)

A. Eliminating downtime

b)

B. Determining trends of usage

c)

C. Having a surplus of supplies

d)

D. Limiting access to one person

135.

Which type of correspondence can be used to communicate a message to office staff with a date for a reference?

a)

A. Template

b)

B. Formal letter

c)

C. Standard form letter

d)

D. Memorandum

136.

Which of the following should be used when answering the telephone in a health care facility?

a)

A. The name of the facility

b)

B. A loud voice

c)

C. A monotone voice

d)

D. The date and location of facility

137.

Which of the following actions should be taken when a second call comes in while speaking with a person on the first call?

a)

A. Put the first person on hold, and complete the second call

b)

B. Let the second call go to voicemail

c)

C. Put the first person on hold, and screen the second call

d)

D. Ask the first caller to call back later so the second call can be answered

138.

When the health care facility has a downtime and the power messages are required, which of the following information must be documented?

a)

A. The facility's cell phone service company

b)

B. The facility's employer information

c)

C. The initials of the person who took the message

d)

D. The message itself

139.

Which of the following is a proper salutation?

a)

A. To Whom It May Concern

b)

B. Dear Sir or Madam

c)

C. Dear Nelson Fletcher

d)

D. Dear Mr. Nelson Fletcher

140.

Which of the following applies to written correspondence?

a)

A. Proofread correspondence before sending

b)

B. Write at a college level to patients

c)

C. Correspond when upset so that details are not forgotten

d)

D. Incorporate complex medical terms

141.

Which of the following should be followed when writing to a specific person?

a)

Use generic greetings

b)

Use nicknames

c)

Use Mrs. if female

d)

Use their formal name

142.

Which of the following is true for written correspondence in an electronic message to a patient?

a)

Incorporate positive emojis

b)

Send test results and medical records via regular email

c)

Include a personal signature line

d)

Keep a copy of the correspondence in the patient's medical records

143.

In which of the following software programs should medical administrative assistants be proficient?

a)

Desktop publishing

b)

Word processing

c)

Slide presentation

d)

Database software

144.

Which of the following should be completed during downtime without computer access?

a)

Document each action and information

b)

Assign one employee to document all occurrences

c)

Record information the next day or when the computers are available

d)

Make notes of relevant points

145.

Which of the following is a key factor to consider when experiencing downtime?

a)

Physical documentation

b)

Data usage

c)

Internet access

d)

Alarm system

146.

A medical administrative assistant is reviewing remittance advice to determine how claims have been paid and to see if any errors have occurred by the third-party payer. This action occurs in which of the following phases of the revenue cycle?

a)

A. Receiving and posting reimbursement

b)

B. Payer adjudication

c)

C. Appeals and claims collections

d)

D. Health care encounter and documentation

147.

What stage is the revenue cycle considered to be completed?

a)

A. Registration and scheduling

b)

B. Payer adjudication

c)

C. Health care encounter and documentation

d)

D. Posting the payment

148.

A medical administrative assistant is checking with a patient’s insurance payer to determine if a referral or preauthorization is needed prior to performing an MRI. This action occurs in which of the following phases of the revenue cycle?

a)

A. Payer adjudication

b)

B. Appeals and claims collection

c)

C. Charge capture and coding

d)

D. Utilization management review

149.

A medical administrative assistant is contacting the insurance payer to determine benefits coverage for a procedure and is requesting approval. Which of the following steps of the revenue cycle is being followed?

a)

A. Appeal

b)

B. Payer adjudication

c)

C. Eligibility and insurance preauthorization

d)

D. Encounter documentation

150.

Which of the following items is required in the encounter note?

a)

A. Provider signature

b)

B. Copay amount

c)

C. Provider’s phone number

d)

D. Patient address

151.

How often should a medical administrative assistant perform charge reconciliation?

a)

A. Yearly

b)

B. Monthly

c)

C. Daily

d)

D. Weekly

152.

A medical administrative assistant notices a difference between the billed and allowed amount. Which of the following type of transaction must be posted in the patient account?

a)

A. Hardship write-off

b)

B. Contractual adjustment

c)

C. Payment posting

d)

D. Charge entry

153.

An electronic health record (EHR) system assists health care organizations with which of the following tasks?

a)

A. Provider documentation

b)

B. Interviewing and hiring new staff

c)

C. Ordering of supplies

d)

D. Attracting new patients

154.

Which of the following payers is designed for military members and their family?

a)

A. TRICARE

b)

B. Medicare

c)

C. Medicaid

d)

D. Workers' compensation

155.

A provider agrees to accept the payer's allowed amount. What is the provider's status?

a)

Non-participating provider

b)

Eligible

c)

Participating provider

d)

Value-based

156.

A fee-for-service Medicare patient arrives at a provider's office for medical services related to otitis media. Which of the following parts of Medicare should be billed?

a)

Part A

b)

Part B

c)

Part C

d)

Part D

157.

A Medicare patient presents to the office for medication refills but expresses a financial barrier. Which of the following Medicare plans might be able to assist the patient with paying for prescription medications?

a)

Part A

b)

Part B

c)

Part C

d)

Part D

158.

A provider is reimbursed for services rendered using CPT and ICD-10-CM codes. This is an example of which of the following types of payment models?

a)

Value-based payment model

b)

Capitation

c)

Pay-for-performance

d)

Fee-for-service

159.

A provider is rewarded via a bonus when quality and performance measures are met. This is an example of which of the following types of payment models?

a)

PAR provider

b)

Pay-for-performance

c)

Fee-for-service

d)

Capitation

160.

Which of the following patients is considered Medicare eligible?

a)

A patient who has any chronic disease

b)

A patient who is under 65 years of age

c)

A patient who has an acute medical condition

d)

A patient diagnosed with end-stage renal disease

161.

Which of the following is a function of a clearinghouse?

a)

Claims adjudication

b)

Submits claims to the third-party payer

c)

Files appeals

d)

Performs charge capture and coding

162.

Which of the following is the set amount established by an insurance payer for an office visit and should be collected at the time of the encounter?

a)

Premium

b)

Deductible

c)

Copay

d)

Coinsurance

163.

A medical administrative assistant notices that no payments from a certain third party payer have been received in the past month. Which type of report should the assistant review to determine the status of the submitted claims?

a)

Patient aging report

b)

Insurance aging report

c)

Daily transaction report

d)

Patient statements

164.

Which of the following programs will qualify a patient based on income?

a)

Medicare

b)

TRICARE

c)

Workers' compensation

d)

Medicaid

165.

Which of the following is a program that is available to a patient who has no income or has specific medical needs?

a)

Special needs plan (SNP)

b)

Sliding scale

c)

Hardship waiver

d)

TRICARE plan

166.

A provider is paid a set amount for each member per month. This is an example of which of the following types of payment models?

a)

Value-based payment model

b)

Medicare Advantage Plan

c)

Fee-for-service

d)

Capitation

167.

Which of the following forms is used to report claims to a third-party payer from a provider's office?

a)

UB-04

b)

CMS-1500

c)

ABN form

d)

Patient registration form

168.

Which of the following codes are reported on the claim form to represent the conditions managed at the time of the visit and are required by the third-party payer for claims processing?

a)

HCPCS

b)

CPT

c)

DRG

d)

ICD-10-CM

169.

A third-party payer's policy for the length of time to submit claims is known as which of the following?

a)

Charge entry

b)

Timely filing

c)

Claims submission

d)

Payment posting

170.

A Medicare beneficiary has enrolled in a health plan that offers inpatient, outpatient, vision, and dental coverage. In which of the following types of health plan is the beneficiary enrolled?

a)

Medicare Part A

b)

Medicare Part B

c)

Medicare Part C

d)

Medicare Part D

171.

A medical administrative assistant is reviewing remittance advice to determine how claims have been paid and to see if any errors have occurred by the third-party payer. This action occurs in which of the following phases of the revenue cycle?

a)

A. Receiving and posting reimbursement

b)

B. Payer adjudication

c)

C. Appeals and claims collections

d)

D. Health care encounter and documentation

172.

What stage is the revenue cycle considered to be completed?

a)

A. Registration and scheduling

b)

B. Payer adjudication

c)

C. Health care encounter and documentation

d)

D. Posting the payment

173.

A medical administrative assistant is checking with a patient’s insurance payer to determine if a referral or preauthorization is needed prior to performing an MRI. This action occurs in which of the following phases of the revenue cycle?

a)

A. Payer adjudication

b)

B. Appeals and claims collection

c)

C. Charge capture and coding

d)

D. Utilization management review

174.

A medical administrative assistant is contacting the insurance payer to determine benefits coverage for a procedure and is requesting approval. Which of the following steps of the revenue cycle is being followed?

a)

A. Appeal

b)

B. Payer adjudication

c)

C. Eligibility and insurance preauthorization

d)

D. Encounter documentation

175.

Which of the following items is required in the encounter note?

a)

A. Provider signature

b)

B. Copay amount

c)

C. Provider’s phone number

d)

D. Patient address

176.

How often should a medical administrative assistant perform charge reconciliation?

a)

A. Yearly

b)

B. Monthly

c)

C. Daily

d)

D. Weekly

177.

A medical administrative assistant notices a difference between the billed and allowed amount. Which of the following type of transaction must be posted in the patient account?

a)

A. Hardship write-off

b)

B. Contractual adjustment

c)

C. Payment posting

d)

D. Charge entry

178.

An electronic health record (EHR) system assists health care organizations with which of the following tasks?

a)

A. Provider documentation

b)

B. Interviewing and hiring new staff

c)

C. Ordering of supplies

d)

D. Attracting new patients

179.

Which of the following payers is designed for military members and their family?

a)

A. TRICARE

b)

B. Medicare

c)

C. Medicaid

d)

D. Workers' compensation

180.

A provider agrees to accept the payer's allowed amount. What is the provider's status?

a)

Non-participating provider

b)

Eligible

c)

Participating provider

d)

Value-based

181.

A fee-for-service Medicare patient arrives at a provider's office for medical services related to otitis media. Which of the following parts of Medicare should be billed?

a)

Part A

b)

Part B

c)

Part C

d)

Part D

182.

A Medicare patient presents to the office for medication refills but expresses a financial barrier. Which of the following Medicare plans might be able to assist the patient with paying for prescription medications?

a)

Part A

b)

Part B

c)

Part C

d)

Part D

183.

A provider is reimbursed for services rendered using CPT and ICD-10-CM codes. This is an example of which of the following types of payment models?

a)

Value-based payment model

b)

Capitation

c)

Pay-for-performance

d)

Fee-for-service

184.

A provider is rewarded via a bonus when quality and performance measures are met. This is an example of which of the following types of payment models?

a)

PAR provider

b)

Pay-for-performance

c)

Fee-for-service

d)

Capitation

185.

Which of the following patients is considered Medicare eligible?

a)

A patient who has any chronic disease

b)

A patient who is under 65 years of age

c)

A patient who has an acute medical condition

d)

A patient diagnosed with end-stage renal disease

186.

Which of the following is a function of a clearinghouse?

a)

Claims adjudication

b)

Submits claims to the third-party payer

c)

Files appeals

d)

Performs charge capture and coding

187.

Which of the following is the set amount established by an insurance payer for an office visit and should be collected at the time of the encounter?

a)

Premium

b)

Deductible

c)

Copay

d)

Coinsurance

188.

A medical administrative assistant notices that no payments from a certain third party payer have been received in the past month. Which type of report should the assistant review to determine the status of the submitted claims?

a)

Patient aging report

b)

Insurance aging report

c)

Daily transaction report

d)

Patient statements

189.

Which of the following programs will qualify a patient based on income?

a)

Medicare

b)

TRICARE

c)

Workers' compensation

d)

Medicaid

190.

Which of the following is a program that is available to a patient who has no income or has specific medical needs?

a)

Special needs plan (SNP)

b)

Sliding scale

c)

Hardship waiver

d)

TRICARE plan

191.

A provider is paid a set amount for each member per month. This is an example of which of the following types of payment models?

a)

Value-based payment model

b)

Medicare Advantage Plan

c)

Fee-for-service

d)

Capitation

192.

Which of the following forms is used to report claims to a third-party payer from a provider's office?

a)

UB-04

b)

CMS-1500

c)

ABN form

d)

Patient registration form

193.

Which of the following codes are reported on the claim form to represent the conditions managed at the time of the visit and are required by the third-party payer for claims processing?

a)

HCPCS

b)

CPT

c)

DRG

d)

ICD-10-CM

194.

A third-party payer's policy for the length of time to submit claims is known as which of the following?

a)

Charge entry

b)

Timely filing

c)

Claims submission

d)

Payment posting

195.

A Medicare beneficiary has enrolled in a health plan that offers inpatient, outpatient, vision, and dental coverage. In which of the following types of health plan is the beneficiary enrolled?

a)

Medicare Part A

b)

Medicare Part B

c)

Medicare Part C

d)

Medicare Part D

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