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Exam 1 Review

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define anatomy and physiology

a)

Anatomy is the study of structure and physiology is the study of function

b)

Anatomy is the study of living organisms and physiology is the study of non-living organisms

c)

Anatomy is the study of function and physiology is the study of structure

d)

Both anatomy and physiology mean the same thing

2.

Organize the body's levels of organization in order from simplest to most complex

a)

organism, organ systems, organs, tissues, cells, atoms

b)

organs, tissues, atoms, organ systems, organism,cells

c)

tissues, atoms, organs, organ systems, cells, organism

d)

atoms, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism

3.

What are the 11 organ systems of the body?

a)

1.Integumentary

2. Skeletal

3. Muscular

4. Nervous

5. Endocrine

6. Cardiovascular

7. Lymphatic

8.Respiratory

9.Digestive

10. Urinary

11. Reproductive

b)

1.Glands

2. Hormones

3. Muscular

4.Esophageal

5. Microbiological

6. Parasitic

7.Integumentary

8.Hypochondriac

9. Endocrine

10.Cardiac

11.Ocular

c)

1. Lymphatic

2.Skeletal

3.Arthrotic

3. Peritoneal

4. Cranial

5.Dorsal

6.Coronary

7.Ventral

8.Enzymatic

9.Urinary

10.Pharyngeal

11.Adrenal

d)

The body is composed of a single universal system

4.

The digestive system includes

a)

large intestine, small intestine, stomach, liver, oral cavity,esophagus,rectum, anus

b)

urinary bladder, lungs, spleen, thymus

c)

liver, pancreas, cerebrum, spinal cord

5.

The urinary system includes

a)

kidneys, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra

b)

mammary and sweat glands, pelvis, alveoli, glomeruli

c)

esophagus, larynx, thymus, adrenal gland

6.

Describe homeostasis with one word

a)

balance

b)

mitosis

c)

regeneration

d)

proliferation

7.

What are the three components of a homeostatic control system?

a)

reflex arc, control center, multipolar neurons

b)

negative feedback, psotive feedback and neutral feedback

c)

Receptor, control center, effector

d)

periosteum, endosteum, medullary cavity

8.

a midsaggital plane divides the body in

a)

equal right and left halves

b)

rigth and left

c)

anterior and posterior

d)

superior and inferior

9.

A transverse plane divides the body into

(a)  

10.

Anatomical term that means neck

a)

cervical

b)

sternal

c)

carpal

d)

tarsal

11.

What is one organ found in the RUQ (Right Upper Quadrant)?

a)

liver

b)

stomach

c)

spleen

d)

esophagus

12.

another word for ventral is

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

lateral

d)

proximal

13.

the term proximal refers to

a)

closest to the body trunk

b)

farthest from the body trunk

c)

lateral to the body trunk

d)

medial to the body trunk

14.

medial is opposite of

a)

lateral

b)

superior

c)

inferior

d)

cervical

15.

What makes up the nucleus of an atom?

a)

nucleus and valence shell

b)

protons and neutrons

c)

neutrons and electrones

d)

electrones and protons

16.

The 4 main elements that conpose the body are:

a)

Carbon

Hydrogen

Oxygen

Nitrogen

b)

Phosphorus

Nitrogen

Oxygen

Water

c)

Carbon

Glucose

Oxygen

Sulfur

d)

Sulfate

Halogens

Carbon

Hydrogen

17.

Isotopes are

a)

structural variations of the same element, different # of neutrons

b)

structural variations of the same element,different # of protons

c)

structural variations of the same element,different # of electrones

18.

What does a mole of glucose weight?

a)

180g

b)

250g

c)

0.9g

d)

2500g

19.

The heart is located in

a)

The dorsal cavity

b)

the thoracic cavity

c)

the abdominal cavity

d)

the dental cavity

20.

The cephalic region is _________ to the thoracic region.  

a)

Superior

b)

Proximal

c)

deep

d)

both A and C

21.

What molecules are required for cells to produce ATP?

a)

(a)Oxygen

b)

(b) Carbon dioxide

c)

(c) Glucose

d)

(d) Both A and C

22.

Each known element is designated with a one-to two letter chemical shorthand known as the

a)

atomic weight

b)

atomic symbol

c)

atomic number

d)

atomic mass unit

23.

What type of molecule is this?

a)

Triglyceride

b)

Disaccharide

c)

Monosaccharide

d)

Nucleic Acid

e)

Protein

24.

What type of molecule is glucose: 

 

a)

Nucleic Acid

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Lipid

25.

The plasma membrane of the cell contains: 

a)

Phospholipids. 

b)

Proteins

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Both phospholipids and proteins

e)

All of the above

26.

Susy has a solution with a concentration of hydrogen ions:  [H+] = 10^-3. This solution is: 

a)

Acidic

b)

Basic

c)

Neutral

d)

Budweiser

27.

Susy has a solution with a concentration of hydrogen ions:  [H+] = 10^-3. The pH of the solution is: 

a)

10

b)

0.01

c)

3

d)

None of the above

28.

What kind of bonds hold glucose together?

a)

A)       Ionic bonds

b)

Covalent bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

James Bond

29.

How many molecules of glucose are in 1 mole?

a)

A)           24

b)

6.02 x1023

c)

1

d)

Can’t tell from the data given.

 

30.

Nitrogen has five electrons in its valence shell. How many covalent bonds can it form?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

2

d)

6

31.

Covalent bonds are characterized by

a)

sharing electrones

b)

giving away electrones

c)

taking electrones

d)

not sharing electrones

32.

acidic is anything

4 lines
33.

basic is anything

 

4 lines
34.

Proteins are polymers made of:

 

a)

nucleotides

b)

glucose

c)

phospholipids

d)

amino acids

35.

Phospholipids are found at:

a)

plasma membrane

b)

nuclear envelope

c)

mitochondria

d)

all of the above

36.

Chromosomes are found in:

a)

Mitochondria

b)

the nucleus

c)

microtubules

d)

ribosomes

37.

A cell needs to keep sodium (Na+) outside the plasma membrane. Even though the concentration of Na+ is higher outside than inside the cell, the cell keeps pumping Na++ out through an Na+-specific channel. This is an example of:

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

passive membrane transport

c)

active membrane transport

d)

vesicular transport

38.

In the lab, Cindy is studying a molecule with the nucleotide sequence of:

AUCGAAUUCUGA

This is molecule is:

 

a)

A carbohydrate

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

Protein

39.

In a beaker of water, the water-water bonds can properly be called:

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Polar covalent bonds

c)

Nonpolar covalent bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

40.

Acids:

a)

Release hydroxyl ions when dissolved in water.

b)

Are proton (H+) acceptors.

c)

Are proton (H+) acceptors.

d)

Release protons (H+) when dissolved in water.

41.

A phospholipid consists of:

a)

Glycerol plus three fatty acids

b)

A sugar-phosphate backbone with two amino groups added

c)

A hydrophilic ‘head’ group plus two fatty acid chains

d)

Amino acids saturated with hydrogen

42.

Suzy puts some glucose (C6H12O6) into a container of water. What happens to the glucose?

a)

Covalent bonds are broken and the glucose degrades.

b)

Ionic bonds are broken and the glucose degrades.

c)

Each individual glucose molecule is surrounded by water molecules.

d)

Both A and B.

43.

A chain of amino acids

a)

Polypeptide

b)

Central dogma of biology

c)

Structural component of ribosomes

d)

Eukaryotes

44.

What is exocytosis?

a)

pinocytosis

b)

secretion

c)

phagocytosis

d)

mitosis

45.

A solution with a pH of 8.6 would be

a)

basic

b)

acidic

c)

normal

d)

neutral

46.

 

_______ is made during transcription and ________ is made during translation.

a)

mRNA / a protein

b)

Ribosome / Nucleus

c)

a protein / mRNA

d)

mRNA / tRNA

47.

 

Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 

a)

GCAUCC

b)

GCATCC

c)

ATGCTT

d)

AUGCUU 

48.

 

Bonds are broken during which type of reaction?

a)

Anabolic

b)

Synthesis

c)

Catabolic

d)

Endergonic

49.

A hypertonic solution would cause the following in a cell

a)

crenation (shrinking)

b)

bursting (lysing)

c)

no change

50.

A hypotonic solution would cause the following change in a cell

a)

crenation (shrinking)

b)

bursting (lysing)

c)

no change

51.

Mitosis is the division of the ____.

a)

Cell

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

all of the above

d)

nucelus