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WorksheetsGenetics Exam 1 Practice 1
Total questions: 77
Worksheet time: 39mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In the 1600s, William Harvey studied reproduction and development. What is the term given to his theory which states that an organism develops from the fertilized egg by a succession of developmental events that lead to an adult?
a)
preformation
b)
spontaneous generation
c)
cell theory
d)
transduction
e)
epigenesis
2.
What is the term given to the theory which states that the gamete contains a complete miniature adult?
a)
preformation
b)
transduction
c)
transformation
d)
conjugation
e)
cell theory
3.
What is the term given to the theory which put forth the idea that living organisms could arise by incubating nonliving components?
a)
spontaneous generation
b)
natural selection
c)
evolution
d)
preformation
e)
collective combination
4.
Schleiden and Schwann proposed the cell theory which states that ________.
a)
cells contain genetic information in their nucleus
b)
cells move from the various parts of the body to the reproductive organs to produce offspring
c)
cells are derived from preexisting cells
d)
cells propagate via asexual reproduction
e)
cells represent the basic units of heredity
5.
In many species, there are two representatives of each chromosome. In such species, the characteristic number of chromosomes is called the ________ number. It is usually symbolized as ________.
a)
haploid; n
b)
haploid; 2n
c)
diploid; 2n
d)
diploid; n
e)
polyploid; n
6.
Early in the twentieth century, Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri noted that the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis is identical to the behavior of genes during gamete formation. They proposed that genes are carried on chromosomes, which led to the basis ________.
a)
of the germ-plasm theory
b)
of the chromosome theory of inheritance
c)
of the law of independent assortment
d)
for the determination of DNA as genetic material
e)
of predicting patterns of inheritance
7.
Living organisms are categorized into two major groups based on the presence or absence of a nucleus. What group is defined by the presence of a nucleus?
a)
eukaryotic organism
b)
virus
c)
eubacterium
d)
archaea
e)
bacteriophage
8.
Organized by the centrioles, what structures are important in the movement of chromosomes during cell division?
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplasts
c)
cell walls
d)
spindle fibers
e)
centromeres
9.
Which of the following is not a true statement about mitochondria?
a)
the mitochondrial genome is contained in the nucleus
b)
the mitochondria duplicate themselves
c)
the mitochondria transcribe and translate their own genetic information
d)
mitochondria are found in plants and animals
e)
mitochondria are sites for cellular respiration
10.
The diploid chromosome number of an organism is usually represented as 2n. Humans have a diploid chromosome number of 46. What would be the expected haploid chromosome number in a human?
a)
92
b)
16
c)
12
d)
24
e)
23
11.
Which of the following is incorrect?
a)
a locus is a gene site on a chromosome
b)
an allele is an alternate form of the same gene
c)
sex chromosomes are not strictly homologous
d)
homologous chromosomes contain identical genetic information
e)
a karyotype is generated from a metaphase spread
12.
During interphase of the cell cycle, ________.
a)
centrioles migrate
b)
sister chromatids move to opposite poles
c)
the nuclear membrane disappears
d)
cytokinesis occurs
e)
DNA content essentially doubles
13.
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in mitosis?
a)
prophase-metaphase-prometaphase-anaphase-telophase
b)
telophase-prophase-prometaphase-metaphase-anaphase
c)
prophase-prometaphase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase
d)
prometaphase-prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase
e)
anaphase-metaphase-prometaphase-prophase-telophase
14.
Migration of chromosomes is made possible by the binding of the spindle to the ________.
a)
kinetochore
b)
telomere
c)
centriole
d)
equatorial plate
e)
centrosome
15.
Which protein directly holds the chromatid arms together prior to anaphase of mitosis?
a)
shugoshin
b)
cohesin
c)
separase
d)
middle lamella
e)
histone
16.
The event referred to as disjunction occurs during ________.
a)
prophase
b)
prometaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
e)
telophase
17.
Normal diploid somatic (body) cells of the mosquito Culex pipiens contain six chromosomes. Assuming that all nuclear DNA is restricted to chromosomes and that the amount of nuclear DNA essentially doubles during the S phase of interphase, how much nuclear DNA would be present in metaphase I of mitosis? Note: Assume that the G1 nucleus of a mosquito cell contains 3.0 × 10-12 grams of DNA.
a)
3.0 × 10−12 g
b)
6.0 × 10−12 g
c)
1.5 × 10−12 g
d)
0.75 × 10−12 g
e)
12 × 10−12 g
18.
At which stage of cell division do sister chromatids go to opposite poles?
a)
mitotic anaphase and anaphase of meiosis I
b)
mitotic anaphase and anaphase of meiosis II
c)
anaphase of meiosis I only
d)
mitotic anaphase only
e)
when they don't get along
19.
Which of the following are the areas where chromatids intertwine during meiosis?
a)
synapsis
b)
chiasma
c)
tetrad
d)
bivalent
e)
nondisjunction
20.
During meiosis, chromosome number reduction takes place in ________.
a)
anaphase II
b)
anaphase I
c)
metaphase I
d)
prophase I
e)
telophase II
21.
The meiotic cell cycle involves ________ number of cell division(s) and ________ number of DNA replication(s).
a)
one; one
b)
one; two
c)
two; one
d)
two; two
e)
two; zero
22.
In an organism with 52 chromosomes, how many tetrads would be expected to form during meiosis?
a)
13
b)
26
c)
52
d)
104
e)
208
23.
In an organism with 52 chromosomes, how many chromatids would be expected in each cell after the second meiotic division?
a)
52
b)
26
c)
13
d)
104
e)
208
24.
A bivalent at prophase I contains ________ chromatids.
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
e)
eight
25.
If a typical somatic cell has 64 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are expected in each gamete of that organism?
a)
8
b)
16
c)
32
d)
64
e)
128
26.
For the purposes of this question, assume that a G1 somatic cell nucleus in a female Myrmecia pilosula contains 2 picograms of DNA. How much DNA would be expected in a metaphase I cell of a female?
a)
16 picograms
b)
32 picograms
c)
8 picograms
d)
4 picograms
e)
Not enough information is provided to answer the question
27.
What is the outcome of synapsis, a significant event in meiosis?
a)
side-by-side alignment of nonhomologous chromosomes
b)
dyad formation
c)
monad movement to opposite poles
d)
side-by-side alignment of homologous chromosomes
e)
chiasma segregation
28.
Which of the following is true about the second meiotic division?
a)
Sister chromatids disjoin and are pulled to opposite poles
b)
Homologous chromosomes are pulled apart resulting in dyads at each pole
c)
Nondisjunction would lead to extra bivalents forming
d)
Synapsis occurs in the second meiotic division
e)
The products are four identical gametes
29.
The horse (Equus caballus) has 32 pairs of chromosomes, whereas the donkey (Equus asinus) has 31 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be expected in the somatic tissue of a mule, which is a hybrid of these two animals?
a)
63
b)
64
c)
62
d)
60
e)
126
30.
Mendel's significant contributions in genetics published in 1866 went largely unnoticed until the discovery of ________.
a)
chromosomal patterns during meiosis
b)
the double helical structure of DNA
c)
methods to sequence DNA
d)
recombinant DNA technology
e)
confirmation with fruit fly crosses
31.
Mendel utilized the garden pea, Pisum sativum for his studies based on features that include all but ________.
a)
easy to grow
b)
being able to hybridize artificially
c)
reaches maturity in a single season
d)
has visible features with a wide spectrum of intermediates
e)
can generate a large number of progeny
32.
Which of the following statements was not a contributing factor in the generation of Mendel's first three postulates?
a)
true-breeding plants were used for the parental generation
b)
all offspring of the first filial generation demonstrated the same trait
c)
reciprocal crosses did not change the patterns of inheritance
d)
the proposal that there are basic units of heredity to explain results of monohybrid crosses
e)
monohybrid crosses for several analyzed characteristics yielded similar patterns of inheritance
33.
The physical expression of a trait is referred to as a(n) ________.
a)
allele
b)
genotype
c)
phenotype
d)
gene
e)
homozygote
34.
The process that leads to the development of haploid gametes is best described as ________.
a)
segregation
b)
independent assortment
c)
Mendelian inheritance
d)
replication
e)
dominance or recessiveness
35.
Mendel indicated that traits were made up of unit factors. Today, we call unit factors ________.
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
c)
alleles
d)
characters
e)
genes.
36.
Assuming a typical monohybrid cross in which one allele is completely dominant to the other, what phenotypic ratio is expected if the F1s are crossed?
a)
3:1
b)
2:1
c)
3:2
d)
4:3
e)
1:1
37.
Mendel crossed two pea plants with round seeds. All seeds of the offspring were round. He then crossed a plant with round seeds to a plant with wrinkled seeds and all offspring had wrinkled seeds. Which of the following is true?
a)
round is dominant
b)
wrinkled is dominant
c)
the plants he used were not true breeding
d)
a mutation occurred
e)
the trait does not breed true
38.
A cross between two individuals with different phenotypes that resulted in approximately 50% of each type of offspring would indicate the cross was ________.
a)
true breeding dominant to recessive
b)
a heterozygous dominant crossed to a heterozygous recessive
c)
a heterozygous dominant crossed to a homozygous recessive
d)
a homozygous recessive crossed to a heterozygous recessive
e)
true dominant to a heterozygous dominant
39.
If an F2 generation from a F1 self-cross always yields offspring in a 3:1 phenotypic ratio, which of the following P crosses could have occurred?
a)
AA × aa
b)
AA × AA
c)
aa × aa
d)
Aa × AA
e)
aa × Aa
40.
A recessive allele in dogs causes white spots. If two solid colored dogs are mated and produce a spotted offspring, what is the percentage chance their next puppy would be solid colored?
a)
0.25
b)
0.5
c)
about 66%
d)
0.75
e)
about 90%
41.
Polydactyly is expressed when an individual has extra fingers and/or toes, and is transmitted via an autosomal dominant allele. Assume that a man with six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot marries a woman with a normal number of digits. The couple has a son with normal hands and feet, but the couple's second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next child will have polydactyly?
a)
1/32
b)
1/8
c)
7/16
d)
1/2
e)
3/4
42.
A researcher crossed two plants, and informed an assistant researcher to determine the genotypes and phenotypes of the plants that were crossed by analyzing the offspring. The assistant counted 30 plants with green pods and 10 plants with yellow pods. Which of the following conclusions can accurately be made by the assistant?
a)
The researcher had crossed two plants with yellow pods
b)
The researcher had crossed true-breeding plants of differing pod colors
c)
The researcher had crossed two heterozygous plants
d)
The researcher had crossed a plant with green pods to a plant with yellow pods
e)
The researcher had selfed a true-breeding plant with green pods
43.
Albinism, lack of pigmentation in humans, results from an autosomal recessive gene. Two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child. What is the probability that their next two children will be albino? (Hint: Use the Product Rule or the Sum Rule, as appropriate)
a)
1/4
b)
1/3
c)
1/2
d)
3/4
e)
1/16
44.
The autosomal (not X-linked) gene for brachydactyly, short fingers, is dominant to normal finger length. Assume that a female with brachydactyly in the heterozygous condition is married to a man with normal fingers. What is the probability that their first child will have brachydactyly?
a)
1/4
b)
1/2
c)
1/8
d)
3/4
e)
2/3
45.
A certain type of congenital deafness in humans is caused by a rare autosomal dominant gene. In a mating involving a deaf man and a deaf woman, could all the children have normal hearing?
a)
No, because it is dominant. Children always get the dominant alleles
b)
No, because children favor their parents
c)
Yes, assuming that the parents are heterozygotes (because the gene is rare), it is possible that all of the children could have normal hearing
d)
Yes, because traits assort independently
e)
Yes, because it must be recessive if it's rare
46.
A certain type of congenital deafness in humans is caused by a rare autosomal recessive gene. In a mating involving a deaf man and a deaf woman, could some of the children have normal hearing?
a)
Yes, because it's rare
b)
Yes, because traits assort independently
c)
No, since the gene in question is recessive, both of the parents are homozygous and one would not expect normal hearing in the offspring
d)
No, traits get passed down from father to child and the father is deaf
e)
No, because the parents would teach their children sign language
47.
Which of the following postulates was not attainable from a monohybrid cross?
a)
unit factors are in pairs
b)
dominance/recessiveness
c)
segregation
d)
independent assortment
48.
What are expected ratios for monohybrid and dihybrid testcrosses, respectively in which the parent with the dominant phenotype is heterozygous for all traits?
a)
1:1 and 9:3:3:1
b)
1:1 and 1:1:1:1
c)
3:1 and 9:3:3:1
d)
3:1 and 1:1:1:1
49.
Which of the following describes the product law?
a)
The probably of two linked events occurring simultaneously is equal to the probabilities of each individual event
b)
The probability of two or more independent events occurring simultaneously is equal to the product of their individual probabilities
c)
The probability of two or more independent events occurring simultaneously is equal to the sum of their individual probabilities
d)
The product of the sum of the probabilities of two simultaneous events describes the ability of those two events to occur together
e)
The probabilities of two events occurring in a specific sequence are the product of their individual probabilities squared
50.
What is segregation?
a)
During gamete formation, segregating pairs of unit factors assort independently of each other
b)
Fertilization is random
c)
During gamete formation, allele pairs are separated to form haploid gametes
d)
Genes lie on chromosomes
e)
Chromosomes can swap information during meiosis
51.
What is independent assortment?
a)
During gamete formation, a pair of unit factors segregates randomly from another pair of unit factors
b)
Fertilization is random
c)
During gamete formation, allele pairs are separated to form haploid gametes
d)
Genes lie on chromosomes
e)
Chromosomes can swap information during meiosis
52.
When performing a dihybrid cross for the traits round/wrinkled and yellow/green, which of the following results best demonstrates that the unit factors from each trait was assorting independently?
a)
the 9:3:3:1 ratio of the F2 generation
b)
finding a 3:1 ratio of round:wrinkled and a 3:1 ratio of yellow:green in the F2 generation
c)
finding the Punnett square and branched diagram methods yielded the same results
d)
finding only two visible traits in the F1 generation, but four visible traits among the F2 offspring
e)
finding that round is dominant to wrinkled and yellow is dominant to green
53.
Under what conditions does one expect a 1:1:1:1 ratio?
a)
AABB × aabb
b)
AaBb × AaBb
c)
AaBb × aabb
d)
AAbb × aaBB
e)
Aabb × AABB
54.
How many different possible gametes can be obtained from an organism with the following genotype AaBbCc?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
8
d)
9
e)
16
55.
According to Mendel's model, because of the ________ of chromosomes during meiosis, all possible combinations of gametes will be formed in equal frequency.
a)
product rule
b)
law of segregation
c)
law of unit factors
d)
independent assortment
e)
chromosomal theory of inheritance
56.
In tomato plants smooth texture (P) is dominant to peach (p), red color (R) is dominant to yellow (r), and normal leaf (B) is dominant to broad leaf (b). In the cross PpRrbb × Pprrbb what percent of the offspring will be smooth, yellow and broad?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
3/8
e)
1/8
57.
Which of the following groups of scientists were influential around the year 1900 in setting the stage for our present understanding of transmission genetics?
a)
Beadle, Tatum, and Lederberg
b)
Watson, Crick, Wilkins, and Franklin
c)
de Vries, Correns, Tschermak, Sutton, and Boveri
d)
Darwin, Mendel, and Lamarck
e)
Hippocrates, Aristotle, and Kölreuter
58.
The number of possible gametes, each with different chromosome compositions, is 2n, where n equals ________.
a)
the diploid number
b)
the haploid number
c)
the number of genes
d)
the number of offspring
e)
the number of alleles
59.
For which of the following questions would you use the sum law?
a)
determining the chance of having a baby girl
b)
determining the chance of having a tall plant with purple flowers
c)
determining the change of rolling a 5 on a six-sided die
d)
determining the chance of pulling either a club or a heart from a deck of cards
e)
determining the chance of pulling an ace from a deck of cards
60.
What is the probability of rolling a 2 or a 3 on a six-sided die?
a)
1/3
b)
1/6
c)
1/12
d)
1/18
e)
1/36
61.
In studies of human genetics, usually a single individual brings the condition to the attention of a scientist or physician. When pedigrees are developed to illustrate transmission of the trait, what term does one use to refer to this individual?
a)
mutant
b)
proband
c)
cousin
d)
F1 B
e)
child
62.
In a pedigree analysis a male child with a particular trait has two parents that do not exhibit the trait. Which of the following represents the most likely scenario?
a)
the trait is inherited as an autosomal dominant and the genotypes of the child and his parents can be determined
b)
the trait is inherited as an autosomal recessive and the genotypes of the child and his parents can be determined
c)
the trait is inherited as an autosomal dominant and the genotypes of the child and parents cannot be determined
d)
the trait is inherited as an autosomal recessive and the genotypes of the child and parents cannot be determined
e)
the trait is inherited as an autosomal recessive and the genotype of the child can be determined but not the genotypes of the parents
63.
Rare autosomal dominant diseases are ________.
a)
typically more severe in homozygous dominant individuals
b)
typically similar in severity in homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals
c)
typically less severe in homozygous dominant individuals than heterozygous individuals
d)
typically more severe in homozygous recessive individuals than in homozygous dominant individuals
e)
typically not passed on to offspring
64.
Name the single individual whose work in the mid-1800s contributed to our understanding of the particulate nature of inheritance as well as the basic genetic transmission patterns. With what organism did this person work?
a)
Gregor Mendel; Pisum sativum
b)
George Beadle; Neurospora
c)
Thomas Hunt Morgan; Drosophila
d)
Calvin Bridges; Drosophila
e)
Boris Ephrussi; Ephestia
65.
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a rare, autosomal, dominantly inherited disease of the teeth that occurs in about one in 8000 people. The teeth are somewhat brown in color, and the crowns wear down rapidly. Assume that a male with dentinogenesis imperfecta and no family history of the disease marries a woman with normal teeth. What is the probability that their first child will have dentinogenesis imperfecta?
a)
1/8
b)
1/4
c)
1/2
d)
3/4
e)
1
66.
Which of the following best describes the relationship at the molecular level between mutant alleles and phenotype?
a)
A mutant allele will cause the wild-type protein not to be made
b)
A mutant allele will cause only one phenotype
c)
A mutant allele can have different effects depending on the gene product's function
d)
The wild-type allele is always dominant
e)
Mutant alleles will only cause problems when seen in the homozygous form, no matter the gene affected
67.
If the wrinkled-wing mutation in Drosophila is dominant and designated Wr, a fruit fly with the genotype Wr+ Wr+ would exhibit what phenotype?
a)
wrinkled wings
b)
wild-type wings
c)
partially wrinkled wings
d)
no wings
e)
one wrinkled wing and one normal wing
68.
With incomplete dominance, a likely ratio resulting from a monohybrid cross would be ________.
a)
1:2
b)
1:2:2:4
c)
1:2:1
d)
9:3:3:1
e)
3:1
69.
The MN blood group is a codominant trait as a result of which of the following?
a)
presence of both M and N cell surface glycoproteins on the same blood cell
b)
presence of a M/N intermediate cell surface glycoprotein on blood cells
c)
presence of M cell surface glycoproteins on some blood cells and N glycoproteins on others
d)
presence of M, M/N intermediate, and N cell surface glycoproteins on blood cells
e)
presence of either M, M/N intermediate, or N cell surface glycoproteins on different blood cells
70.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the ABO gene locus?
a)
multiple alleles
b)
dominance/recessiveness
c)
codominance
d)
epistasis
e)
four possible phenotypes
71.
The presence of more than two alternative forms of a given gene would be called ________.
a)
multiple alleles
b)
alternation of generations
c)
codominance
d)
incomplete dominance
e)
hemizygosity
72.
A couple each with blood type AB and normal pigmentation have a child with AB blood type and albinism. What is the probability that their next child will have the same phenotype as the first child?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/8
d)
1/4
e)
1/16
73.
A couple in which one parent is blood type A and the other is blood type B, and both have normal pigmentation, have a child that is blood type O and has albinism. What is the probability that their next child will have normal pigmentation and blood type A?
a)
0
b)
1/16
c)
3/16
d)
1/8
e)
9/16
74.
A condition in which one gene pair masks the expression of a nonallelic gene pair is called ________.
a)
codominance
b)
epistasis
c)
dominance
d)
recessiveness
e)
additive alleles
75.
In the mouse, gene B can produce black pigment from a colorless precursor molecule. A mouse having at least one B allele can produce black pigment, whereas the homozygous recessive mouse (bb) cannot and is albino. The agouti locus (A) can convert the black pigment to brown in the presence of at least one dominant A allele, whereas the homozygous recessive (aa) cannot convert the black pigment to brown. What color fur would a mouse have with the genotype aaBB?
a)
albino
b)
black
c)
brown
d)
patches of brown and white
e)
can't be determined
76.
The phenomenon of a gene which has multiple phenotypic effects on an individual is referred to as ________.
a)
continuous variation
b)
pleiotropy
c)
expressivity
d)
penetrance
e)
epistasis
77.
Because of the mechanism of sex determination, males of many species can be neither homozygous nor heterozygous. Such males are said to be ________.
a)
dominant
b)
hemizygous
c)
recessive
d)
complementary
e)
None of the answers listed is correct
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