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VA1005 - Tutorial F

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Your Dr is assessing the parameters of his patient during an office exam. He is reviewing the signalments to help him differentiate a possible diagnosis in assessing the patient’s condition. What is it that he is reviewing?

a)

Temperature and Heart rate

b)

Diet and Vaccination History

c)

Age and Reproductive Status

d)

Colour and Frequency of Parameters

2.

In obtaining a patient’s history it is a good idea to ask open-ended questions to obtain more detail. Indicate which questions listed below are open-ended.

a)

Has your pet had any vomiting or diarrhea?

b)

Is your pet eating normally?

c)

Have you noticed any sneezing, coughing, bleeding?

d)

What is the reason for your visit today?

3.

The assistant assists the veterinary team in nursing care every morning. She has a routine she has set up for herself in dealing with patient care. Which one of her routines/habits attends to the patient’s immediate needs?

a)

taking the animals out for a walk to urinate and have a BM

b)

checking fluid rates with corresponding rates recorded in chart

c)

checking daily treatment sheet for new updates

d)

Taking the morning baseline vital parameters

4.

In assessing a jack russell “Jock’s” mucous membranes, the Dr noted that his membranes were injected. This indicates that they were __________ in colour and indicative of______________________, which would require further diagnostics to confirm.

a)

yellow; liver dysfunction

b)

pale pink; anemic

c)

brick red; fever or sepsis

d)

blue: hypoxic

5.

Jock’s skin tented for several seconds after the Dr performed his skin pinch. Jock’s eyes were slightly sunken and his mucous membranes were dry. This indicates that Jock was:

a)

hemorrhaging

b)

infected

c)

septic

d)

deyhydrated

6.

Which method of examination is used to listen to the heart?

a)

Auscultate

b)

Percussion

c)

Palpation

d)

Inspection

7.

Why is daily weighing of a hospitalized pet important?

a)

Helps monitor hydration and nutrition status

b)

Helps monitor excretory patterns

c)

Helps assess perfusion and metabolism

d)

Indicator of condition and perfusion

8.

Baseline body temperature is obtained when a patient is hospitalized because it is:

a)

to ensure that muscle to fluid ratio is maintained

b)

to assess perfusion rates daily

c)

a good indicator of illness progression or improvement

d)

to prevent heat stroke

9.

A Bair Hugger apparatus or a fluid warmer will aid a patient who is:

a)

hypothermic

b)

hyperthermic

c)

normothermic

d)

hypoglycemic

10.

Hyperthermia can be indicative of which of the following?

a)

seizures and toxicity

b)

poor perfusion

c)

shock

d)

hypertension

11.

A kitten’s heart rate is ___________ while a cat’s average heart rate is __________.

a)

180 -240; 120-180

b)

70-100; 300 -280

c)

80 – 120; 80 – 160

d)

90 – 160; 100 – 14

12.

A pulse Oximeter is used for:

a)

identifying arrhythmias

b)

identifying abnormal heart sounds

c)

assessing oxygenation of venous blood

d)

identifying the percentage of oxygen carrying capacity of blood cells

13.

The assistant is auscultating a heart rate and simultaneously palpating the femoral pulse. She notes that intermittently every heart beat does not have a corresponding pulse. This is referred to as a:

a)

cardiac murmur

b)

ventricular premature contraction

c)

pulse deficit

d)

sinus arrhythmia

14.

Thready and Bounding identify characteristics of:

a)

Pulse

b)

Heart Rate

c)

Respiration Rate

d)

Mentation

15.

The Dr was auscultating a whippet’s heart when he detected a sinus arrhythmia which is characterized by:

a)

an increase in heart rate upon inspiration; decrease in heart rate on expiration

b)

a decrease in heart rate upon expiration; increase in heart rate on expiration

c)

an increase in heart rate upon inspiration; decrease in heart rate on inspiration

d)

an increase in heart rate upon expiration; increase in heart rate on

expiration

16.

These are heard in puppies and disappear as they grow. Heard best at the mitral valve

a)

Physiological murmurs

b)

Innocent murmurs

c)

Sinus arrhythmias

d)

Irregular heart beats

17.

Heart murmurs can be auscultated over the:

a)

Base

b)

Apex

c)

Mitral valve

d)

Aorta

18.

Physiologic Murmurs are heard in:

a)

anemic animals

b)

animals whose blood viscosity is thick

c)

3-4 month old animals

d)

a and b

19.

When taking the respiration rate of a hospitalized patient:

a)

assess it before you handle the animal

b)

take it simultaneously with heart rate

c)

take the temperature first to assess any influence on respiration

d)

assess rate and effort at the same time

20.

When assessing “Jock’s” perfusion, the Dr would examine which of the following?

a)

mucous membrane color

b)

capillary refill time

c)

pulse strength and quality

d)

all of the above

21.

When monitoring for urine production, the assistant should:

a)

Check blankets and towels in the kennel for urine

b)

Take “Jock” out for frequent walks every 4 hrs. and collect/measure urine

c)

Measure and record volume, colour and urine appearance

d)

All of the Above

22.

Which statement is incorrect regarding a recumbent patient with a closed urinary system?

a)

Does not need to be taken out for elimination

b)

Collect and measure urine frequently throughout day

c)

Plenty of bedding and padding should be supporting patient

d)

Flip patient alternating recumbent sides every 2 hrs. to prevent pressure sores

23.

When weighing urine in order to calculate production rate, the assistant must:

a)

Weigh the blankets after they have been laundered

b)

Use disposable urine pads under the blankets to catch any drippings

c)

Convert the mls into grams when weighing to get the volume produced

d)

Weigh all blankets/pads before and after they have been used for accurate measurement

24.

When monitoring the gastrointestinal system one would monitor all excretions. Which of the following are not considered excretions?

a)

Feces, saliva, urine

b)

Vomit, secretions

c)

Mucous, tears

d)

All of the above are excretions

25.

If feces contained frank blood what colour would it be?

a)

Red

b)

Black or dark colored

c)

Brown

d)

Green

26.

“Jax” a border collie is in the hospital with large volumes of very

loose diarrhea. What organ of the digestive system would be affected?

a)

Stomach

b)

Rectum

c)

Small bowel

d)

Colon

27.

If the veterinary assistant saw bloody, tarry stool in “Sachi,” the

maltipoo’s kennel she would report to Dr. Jax Rustle that “Sachi” may

have:

a)

A foreign body ingestion

b)

Ulcers

c)

Constipation

d)

Alopecia

28.

Which is not a cause of diarrhea?

a)

Dietary changes to a moist high-fat content

b)

Frequent table scraps and access to garbage

c)

Dietary changes to a meat based diet

d)

Maintaining the same diet

29.

Auscultating gut sounds can indicate

a)

An active gut

b)

A foreign body possibility (the gut should not make noise)

c)

An ulcer

d)

Constipation

30.

Comatose or Recumbent patients need which of the following addressed by the veterinary team?

a)

Change position and sides to prevent Decubital ulcers

b)

Provide oral hygiene due to bacterial buildup

c)

Provide range of motion and massage to prevent muscle atrophy/stiffness

d)

All of the above

31.

Physical Examinations should be done:

a)

Upon admittance to hospital

b)

By the Dr. during office exam

c)

By veterinary team throughout the day

d)

Upon discharge

e)

All of the above

32.

Triage is:

a)

assessing and treating each patient as they arrive

b)

a surgical procedure that relieves pressure in the chest

c)

Process of determining a patient’s treatment based on the severity of their condition

d)

to listen to sounds in a body cavity such as the chest or abdomen

33.

Blood pressure is defined as:

a)

The pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel lumen wall

b)

The pressure exerted by the blood on the heart

c)

The pressure exerted by the blood on all the capillaries during systole

d)

The pressure exerted by the blood between systole and diastole

34.

Indirect blood pressure is measured with a _______while direct is measured with a _________.

a)

Doppler; stethoscope

b)

Oscillometric device; arterial catheter

c)

Transducer; Doppler

d)

Doppler; sphygmomanometer

35.

The waves produced in an Oscillometric device are produced by:

a)

The pressure on the arterial diameter caused by changes in heart rate

b)

changes in arterial diameter caused by changes in pulse pressure

c)

arrhythmias and changes in cardiac output

d)

the blood flow into and out of the cardiac muscle

36.

Which is not a location for cuff placement in a dog or cat?

a)

Cephalic vein region

b)

Tail

c)

Dorsal pedal artery

d)

Auricle vein

37.

The components of a blood pressure are:

a)

Diastolic, Systolic

b)

Diastolic, Mean Arterial Pressure and Systolic

c)

Diastolic, MAP, Cytolic

d)

Diastolic, Lumen Pressure, Mean Arterial and Systolic

38.

Which does not interfere with blood pressure reading?

a)

Movement

b)

lateral recumbency

c)

Improper cuff size

d)

Limb edema interference

39.

The Doppler measures:

a)

Only systolic

b)

Only MAP

c)

Only diastolic

d)

Only arterial intraluminal pressure

40.

To obtain the most accurate blood pressure value one should choose a cuff that:

a)

Is 1/3 - ¼ of the limb’s circumference

b)

Is ½ of the limb’s circumference

c)

Goes around the whole circumference of the limb

d)

Is 3/4 of the limb’s circumference

41.

Silver nitrate sticks and quick stop are used to:

a)

Stop hemorrhaging of nail quick when cut

b)

Prevent nail avulsion

c)

Smooths out the rough edges of the nail when cut

d)

Stimulates the quick to recede with every nail trim

42.

Which statement is true

a)

the quick will regress with regular trimming

b)

“Quicking” is referred to as cutting the nail to regress the quick

c)

Over time long nails will fray and wear down

d)

Nails growing into nail beds will eventually break off from the pressure

43.

A dog that sits and scoots on its hind end is displaying this behaviour due to:

a)

empty anal glands

b)

impacted / distended anal glands

c)

natural emptying display

d)

attracting a mate

44.

External expression of anal glands does:

a)

completely empty the glands

b)

requires digital insertion into the rectum

c)

not completely empty the glands

d)

is more painful than internal expression

45.

The __________ must be intact before any products other than saline or water are instilled into the ear otherwise instilling medication can cause vestibular function loss or hearing loss.

a)

cochlea

b)

stapes/incus

c)

tympanic membrane

d)

vestibule

46.

An aural hematoma is

a)

thickening of the pinna indicative of burst blood vessels

b)

a result of a ruptured tympanic membrane

c)

A thickening of the ear canal due to allergies/skin condition

d)

A tumour in the ear canal

47.

Which of the following is not a sign of ear disease?

a)

ear shaking/scratching

b)

nystagmus

c)

head tilt

d)

facial asymmetry

48.

To facilitate absorption of topical meds:

a)

rub the medication vigorously into the skin

b)

apply and let dry

c)

part fur

d)

shave and clean area

49.

If oral cavity is damaged liquid medication should not be administered

through:

a)

an esophageal tube

b)

a gastrotomy tube

c)

a nasogastric tube

d)

a jugular catheter

50.

When pilling a cat one should not use

a)

Their fingers

b)

A hemostat

c)

A pilling gun

d)

Water to flush the medication down

51.

Buprenorphine is an analgesic that is given transmucosally. In which of the following locations can this drug be administered?

a)

Buccal mucosa

b)

Cheek mucosa

c)

Cephalic

d)

Oral mucosa

52.

What is the purpose of an enema?

a)

To stimulate bowel activity

b)

To cause nausea and thus vomiting to eliminate toxins ingested

c)

To lubricate the colon for a colonoscopy

d)

To stimulate urination

53.

Which substances should not be used in enemas?

a)

phosphates

b)

glycerin

c)

soap

d)

commercial enemas used in humans

54.

Which of the following is an indication for an enema?

a)

perforation of the bowel

b)

inflammation of the colon

c)

constipation

d)

recent surgery of the colon to help stimulate peristalsis

55.

If an enema is administered too quickly it can elicit:

a)

Vomiting

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Ataxia

d)

Tenesmus

56.

Nasal Cannulas are used to supply:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nutrition

c)

Medication

d)

Humidified air

57.

Nasoesophageal and nasogastric tubes are not used to provide which of the following:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nutrition

c)

Water

d)

Medication

58.

If more than one ophthalmic solution is used:

a)

Apply the ointments first

b)

Apply the solutions first and wait 10 min. before applying the next medication.

c)

Apply solutions first then wait a few seconds and apply ointments

d)

Does not matter which medication you apply first

59.

To straighten the ear canal apply lateral tension on the pinna (ear flap) this

a)

opens up the ear canal

b)

closes the tympanic membrane

c)

is less pressure on the cochlea

d)

isolates the stapes, incus and anvil

60.

Which of the following are parenteral administrations?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Intradermal

d)

Subcutaneous

e)

Transdermal

61.

Complications of parenteral administration of medication are:

a)

pain / inflammation

b)

nerve damage and anaphylactic shock

c)

vomiting and diarrhea

d)

constipation

62.

Which of the following does not reduce the absorption of a subcutaneous injection?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Over hydration

c)

Shock

d)

Poor perfusion

63.

Sloughing of the skin after a subcutaneous injection can be caused by:

a)

hypertonic solutions

b)

hypotonic solutions

c)

some vaccines

d)

antibiotics

64.

Feline leukemia vaccines are associated with:

a)

fibrosarcoma

b)

ataxia

c)

nystagmus

d)

Tenesmus

65.

Dr. Germaine Shepherd vaccinated “Mazy,” an Australian shepherd. She was being monitored for vaccine reactions by the clinic assistant, Falicia. Which of the following symptoms would Falicia be watching for?

a)

Facial swelling

b)

Urticaria

c)

Hypersalivation/vomiting

d)

All of the above

66.

Fluids are not administered intramuscularly because:

a)

Muscles do not absorb fluids well

b)

Muscles cannot take more than 2-5 mls of fluids

c)

Increases the chance of involuntary muscular contractions

d)

There is a concern of tissue sloughing

67.

When administering a drug generally if it is or becomes _________in colour does not administer.

a)

Clear

b)

Translucent

c)

Opaque

d)

Transparent

68.

The two most common veins for I.V. fluids are:

a)

Cephalic and saphenous

b)

Jugular and dorsal pedal

c)

Medial saphenous and lingual

d)

Femoral and auricle

69.

Why is it a good idea to place the catheter at the most distal portion of the limb and work your way up?

a)

To prevent hematoma formation impeding catheter placement

b)

To ensure catheter does not get trapped against the vessel’s valves

c)

To prevent kinking of the vessel and catheter

d)

To ensure that there is room for the whole length of the catheter

70.

Which statement is not correct regarding an Intraosseus catheter placement?

a)

used in pediatrics when vein is hard to find

b)

Intraosseus space is always available no matter how small the patient is or how dehydrated

c)

Intraosseus space rapidly absorbs fluids and drugs.

d)

these catheters can stay in longer than 72 hrs. since they aren’t in a vein

71.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding an epidural administration

of a medication?

a)

Pain relief during painful rear limb procedures

b)

Single injection through an epidural catheter

c)

Location is between S6-S7

d)

Can provide a continuous flow of anesthesia

72.

Which of the following cannot be administered through an I.V. Catheter?

a)

Nutrients

b)

Medication

c)

Blood transfusions

d)

none of the above

73.

The auricular vein is used most commonly in which breeds?

a)

The basset and the dachshund

b)

the Pekingese and the shih Tzu

c)

the cocker and the springer

d)

the greyhound and the whippet

74.

Which statement is not correct regarding smaller gauge catheters?

a)

less traumatic to the vessel

b)

used for rapid fluid administration

c)

easily occludes with fibrin clots

d)

not recommended for blood collection – hemolyzes blood

75.

Which statement is not correct regarding a larger gauge catheter?

a)

more trauma to a vessel

b)

used for slower rate fluid administration

c)

does not occlude as readily with fibrin clots

d)

used for blood collection

76.

What should be performed on a catheter bandage on a daily basis?

a)

new catheter placed daily

b)

flushed with heparin/saline to prevent clotting

c)

bandage removed and catheter site examined for infection/irritation

d)

b and c

77.

The longer the catheter the more stable it is inside the vessel

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Butterfly catheters are used for subcutaneous fluids and multiple injections.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

All catheters should be removed at 72 hrs. from their site to prevent infection

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Wrapping a catheter bandage too tightly will result in swelling of the limb.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Phlebitis is caused by contamination and mechanical irritation.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

A multi lumen catheter reduces the need for more catheters

a)

True

b)

False

83.

What are the advantages of placing a urinary catheter?



(a)  

84.

Which catheters contain a balloon to keep the catheter anchored in the

Urethra?

a)

Foley Catheter

b)

Polypropylene catheter

c)

Olive tipped catheter

d)

Red Rubber Catheter

85.

Urinary collection bags should be emptied every:

a)

2 hrs

b)

at the end of every shift

c)

at the start of a new Dr.’s shift

d)

every 4 hrs.

86.

A good indication of thrombosis is:

a)

when palpating the toes they are cold to the touch or blue in colour

b)

using a Doppler machine to locate a pulse in the catheter limb

c)

when palpating the vein the site feels thickened and chord-like

d)

all of the above

87.

“Shorty,” a long haired dachshund, is displaying the following signs: injected mucous membranes, fever and leukocytosis. These are signs of:

a)

Bloat

b)

Septicemia

c)

Gastroenteritis

d)

Gastric ulcer

88.

A catheter should be removed at first notice of:

a)

Phlebitis/thrombosis

b)

Fever

c)

Sepsis

d)

All of the above

89.

What precautions should one take with an orogastric tube?

a)

Premeasure from mouth to caudal rib and mark the tube

b)

Kink the tube prior to removing it so as to not aspirate any liquids into trachea

c)

Syringe air into tube prior to removing it to ensure tube is empty

d)

All of the above

90.

Pain elicits which of the following responses?

a)

ataxia

b)

hunger

c)

cardiovascular and respiratory irregularities

d)

nystagmus

91.

When placing a nasogastric tube if you aspirate air; negative pressure; fluid; you are in:

a)

Trachea, esophagus; stomach

b)

Esophagus; trachea; stomach

c)

Trachea; stomach; esophagus

d)

Esophagus; bronchi; stomach

92.

Which type of injection will prolong the initiation of pain relief but

duration will last longer?

a)

Subcutaneous, I.V. , intramuscular

b)

intramuscular, IV subcutaneous

c)

Subcutaneous, intramuscular, IV

d)

IV, subcutaneous, intramuscular

93.

The fentanyl topical patch takes how long to take effect?

a)

4 hrs.

b)

6hrs.

c)

8 hrs

d)

24 hrs

94.

The proper way to eliminate secretions from the lungs is to:

a)

coupage, walk, nebulize

b)

nebulize, coupage, walk

c)

coupage, nebulize, walk

d)

nebulize, walk, coupage

95.

Applying heat to a traumatized region will:

a)

stimulate muscle activity

b)

stimulate circulation

c)

draw heat and thus soreness away from the area

d)

draw inflammatory agents out of the region

96.

Which of the following is not a contraindication for coupaging?

a)

bleeding disorders

b)

pneumonia

c)

chest tube

d)

chest trauma