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sports inj

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

name the structure outlined in blue

a)

navicular

b)

calcaneus

c)

cuboid

d)

talus

2.

which ligament is outlined in blue?

(a)  

3.

the fibularis/peroneus muscles are synergists to the medial ankle ligaments

a)

true

b)

false

4.

select the correct labels for the medial ankle ligaments

a)

A) TN

B) ATT

C) TC

D) PTT

b)

A) ATF

B) TN

C) TC

D) PTF

c)

A) ATT

B) TN

C) TC

D) PTT

5.

tib post and tib ant are synergists for

a)

medial ankle ligaments

b)

lateral ankle ligaments

c)

tib post = medial

tib ant = lateral

d)

tib ant = medial

tib post = lateral

6.

place the stages of healing in the correct order:

a)

1. inflammation

2. remodelling

3. proliferative

b)

1. inflammation

2. swelling

3. remodelling

c)

1. inflammation

2. proliferative

3. remodelling

d)

1. inflammation

2. proliferative

3. growth

7.

what does the acronym SHARP stand for?

(a)  

8.

how long does acute inflammation last?

(a)  

9.

heat & redness are due to:

a)

vasodilation

b)

the injury is close to the surface

c)

injured structure had lots of blood supply

d)

lack of stability within a joint

10.

chemicals released in inflammatory stage trigger ______ and make them more sensitive, which starts the pain process

a)

nociceptors

b)

histamine

c)

edema

d)

nerve endings

11.

what is the difference b/w swelling and inflammation

4 lines
12.

select the correct answer describing swelling

a)

edema is a collection of blood that escaped from vessels

b)

hemarthrosis is fluid leaking from vessels to tissues

c)

joint effusion involves the synovial membrane secreting excessive synovial fluid

d)

hematoma is bleeding into a joint cavity

13.

macrophages use _____ to clean up debris in the ____ stage

(a)  

14.

how does the proliferative stage present clinically?

a)

redness and heat should be gone

b)

swelling, pain, altered function, brusing may still be present

c)

can feel like you are healed but underlying tissue is still weak

d)

swelling is improving

15.

how does the inflammation stage present clinically?

a)

swelling and pain

b)

acute hyperalgesia (non-injured areas around target spot are tender)

c)

altered motor patterns and spasms

d)

bruising, heat, redness

16.

what is the timeline of the remodelling stage?

a)

starts 3 weeks post inj and can last 2 years

b)

starts 3 days post inj and can last 2 years

c)

starts 72 hours post inj and can last 3 weeks

d)

starts 3 weeks post inj and can last 3 years

17.

what is the correct order of the injury assessment funnel?

(a)  

18.

symptoms are objective and signs are subjective

a)

true

b)

false

19.

usually passive movements are more painful b/c the tester will bring the patient into full range

a)

true

b)

false

20.

what questions should you ask yourself when performing ROM tests?

4 lines
21.

which of the following is FALSE regarding the resistance/strength test grading system?

a)

1: flicker of a contraction but no movement at the joint

b)

0: zero contraction, might suggest a neurological injury

c)

2: joint can move but can't overcome gravity

d)

3: can overcome gravity and added force

22.

MTSS is

a)

chronic

b)

acute

23.

what are the muscles that could pull on the periosteum and contribute to MTSS

a)

FDL

b)

tib ant

c)

tib post

d)

soleus

24.

periosteum wraps around the ____

deep crural fascia wraps around ____

a)

tibia, fibula

b)

tibia & fibula, muscles

c)

tibia, muscular compartment of leg

d)

muscular compartment of leg, tibia & fibula

25.

what are the 2 hypotheses for the cause of MTSS

a)

periosteal traction & cortical bone strain

b)

periosteal traction & bone stress injury

c)

cortical bone strain & wolff's law

d)

periosteum & deep crural fascia

26.

describe wolff's law

4 lines
27.

cortical bone strain occurs because:

a)

when people run, their tibia bends

b)

the bone is adapting to different loads

c)

neighbouring muscles are injured

d)

the periosteum is irritated

28.

why aren't ankle ROMs reliable for a bone test/MTSS?

a)

you need a high level ECC contraction

b)

the ankle doesn't relate to MTSS

c)

ankle ROMS don't show injured structures

29.

what are the mechanisms of CECS?

a)

when we exercise, we get increased blood flow to active muscles & they get bigger

b)

the CT that wraps around the muscle group can't expand

c)

pressure inside the compartment rises

d)

increase in pressure compromises nerve & vessel function

30.

symptoms of CECS:

a)

pins & needles in the foot

b)

cold feet, pressure in the calf

c)

symptoms resolve very quickly

d)

heavy swelling, bruising, and redness

31.

factors associated with CECS:

a)

weak hip AB

b)

greater rearfoot inversion

c)

larger hip ER

d)

large supination

32.

which of the following correctly describes the degree of sprains (ankle):

a)

1st degree: still walking, function is still there

b)

3rd degree: not as painful, can still walk

c)

3rd degree: large lack of function, dramatic swelling, crutches

d)

1st degree: not functional, need crutches

33.

an ankle x-ray is required if:

a)

bony tenderness along post edge of fibula or tip of lateral mall

b)

bony tenderness along base of 5th metatarsal

c)

bony tenderness along post edge of tibia or tip of medial mall

d)

bony tenderness at the navicular

34.

its better to test ROM during inflammation stage

a)

true

b)

false

35.

which values are correct standard ankle ROM values?

a)

dorsiflexion 30 deg

b)

inversion 50 deg

c)

eversion 10 deg

d)

plantar 50 deg

36.

which of the following are correct knee ROM standard values?

a)

flexion 140 deg

b)

extension 15 deg

c)

med rotation 15 deg

d)

lat rotation 40 deg

37.

in an ATF sprain, which is most likely to NOT be painful?

a)

active inversion

b)

passive inversion

c)

active & passive plantar flexion

d)

passive eversion

38.

why are active & passive PF painful for a tib ant strain?

a)

an injured structure is being pulled apart

b)

the joint surface is being compressed

c)

an injured muscle is contracting

39.

in DF, the talus rolls (a)   into the mortise and pushes the tib & fib apart

40.

how does a syndesmosis sprain occur?

(a)  

41.

special tests for ankles include:

a)

inversion stress test

b)

eversion stress test

c)

lachman's

d)

mcmurray's

42.

special tests for high ankle sprain:

a)

EV stress test in dorsiflexion

b)

jump and land

c)

inversion stress test

d)

plantar flexion

43.

what is the structure that retains the patella in the femoral groove

(a)  

44.

which of the following is FALSE?

a)

ACL limits anterior translation of tibia

b)

extension pulls ACL apart

c)

PCL limits posterior translation of fibula

d)

flexion pulls PCL apart

45.

deep fibres of LCL integrate with outer layers of meniscus

a)

true

b)

false

46.

hyperflexion can damage: ___, _______

hyperextension can damage: ___, ___, ___

(a)  

47.

if the injured structure looks fine the first day but is swollen the next day, this suggests:

(a)  

48.

if the swelling (knee) happens within an hour, it indicates you might have damaged a _____ ______

(a)  

49.

why are females at a higher risk for ACL injury?

a)

females have a more natural valgus

b)

females tend to be more quad dominant

c)

females have less hamstring activation

d)

females have a more natural hyperextension

50.

why are MCL & LCL less likely to show swelling

a)

b/c they are inside the knee

b)

b/c they are outside the joint capsule

c)

b/c they are stronger than ACL & PCL

d)

b/c they are weaker than ACL & PCL

51.

why are MCL & LCL more likely to show bruising?

a)

they will cause bleeding outside the joint capsule

b)

ACL & PCL don't have blood supply

c)

MCL & LCL have higher vascular supply

d)

they will cause bleeding inside the joint capsule

52.

extra fluid in the knee triggers a reflex that inhibits the ____ and turns up the ____

(a)  

53.

which structures are pulled apart in extension and lateral rotation?

a)

ACL

b)

PCL

c)

MCL

d)

LCL

54.

medial meniscus is pulled apart by _____ _____

lateral meniscus is pulled apart by _____ ______

(a)  

55.

which tests are matched with their correct structures

a)

Lachman's & PCL

b)

McMurray's & meniscus

c)

varus & LCL

d)

posterior drawer & ACL

56.

the primary anchor point of the patellar tendon is:

(a)  

57.

what is crepitus

a)

grating sound in the knee

b)

knee pain

c)

patellar tendinosis

d)

knee instability

58.

possible explanations for PFS?

a)

shear - patella slides up/down femur during ext/flex

b)

malalignment - patella sits incorrectly in femoral groove

c)

big shift in training that tissues can't adapt to

d)

uneven pressure on a certain part of patella or femur

59.

what happens when we go into deep valgus?

a)

higher tendency for patellar tendon to pull patella laterally

b)

pushing patella farther into medial condyle

c)

increased pressure on the lateral side

d)

lateral force vector becomes larger

60.

deep knee flexion results in:

a)

more compression of patella into femur

b)

increases net force of patella ---> femur

c)

malalignment

d)

patella tracks laterlaly

61.

tendons heal slow b/c they have a large blood supply

a)

true

b)

false

62.

which of the following are true about reactive tendinopathy:

a)

it is not a short-lived reaction

b)

the tendon is stiffer b/c it is full of fluid

c)

proteoglycans absorb fluid like a sponge

d)

it is not an inflammation

63.

what is false about tendinosis:

a)

it is a progressive breakdown

b)

get stuck in a cycle of repair phase with low quality tendon fibres

c)

in the proliferative stage, we are laying down tissue that is strong and organized

d)

there is enough time for full healing after fibres breakdown

64.

which test will pull apart patellar tendon and compress the PF joint?

(a)  

65.

special tests for patellar conditions:

a)

check mechanics during functional tasks (see if they have a tendency to valgus)

b)

active and passive ROM

c)

VISA-P

d)

alfredson protocol

66.

describe the 2 techniques for reducing pain in patellar tendon/PF joint

4 lines
67.

treatments to help patellar conditions?

a)

strengthen hip AB and ER

b)

landing mechanics

c)

running

d)

jumping

68.

the Alfredson protocol states that

a)

pain should improve as you do the exercise

b)

it is just the right amount of stress on the tendon

c)

we want to overload the injured tendon

d)

if the pain gets worse, you are still in overload