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AWS Cloud

Total questions: 198

Worksheet time: 2hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Service that provides secure and resizable virtual servers on AWS.

a)

AWS elastic Beanstalk

b)

AWS Lambda

c)

Amazon EC2

d)

Amazon Cloudfront

2.

Platform (PaaS) for scaling and deployment web apps and services across a specific list of technologies.

a)

AWS elastic Beanstalk

b)

AWS Lambda

c)

Amazon EC2

d)

Amazon Cloudfront

3.

Which Amazon cost structure has a monthly fee of $15,000/mo

a)

Developer

b)

Basic

c)

Business

d)

Enterprise

4.

Which Amazon cost structure has a monthly fee of $100/mo

a)

Developer

b)

Basic

c)

Business

d)

Enterprise

5.

Service is serverless, run code for any type of application or backend service, all with zero administration and you only pay for the compute time you consume on AWS.

a)

AWS elastic Beanstalk

b)

AWS Lambda

c)

Amazon EC2

d)

Amazon Cloudfront

6.

Which Amazon cost structure has a monthly fee of $29/mo

a)

Developer

b)

Basic

c)

Business

d)

Enterprise

7.

Which Amazon cost structure has a free monthly fee

a)

Developer

b)

Basic

c)

Business

d)

Enterprise

8.

Which Amazon cost structure has no usecase, no tech support, no SLA, No TAM or support concierge, no support cases?

a)

Developer

b)

Basic

c)

Business

d)

Enterprise

9.

Which Amazon cost structure has Experimenting usecase, Business hour via email tech support, 12-24 hous at local business hours SLA, No TAM, 1 Person, Unlimited cases support cases?

a)

Developer

b)

Basic

c)

Business

d)

Enterprise

10.

Which Amazon cost structure has Production usecase, 24x7 via email & chat& phone tech support, 1 hour response to urgent support cases SLA, No TAM, Unlimited contacts/cases ?

a)

Developer

b)

Basic

c)

Business

d)

Enterprise

11.

Which Amazon cost structure has a Mission Critical use-case, 24x7 via email & chat& phone tech support, 15 minutes response to critical cases with priority support cases SLA, Yes for TAM and concierge service support, Unlimited contacts/cases ?

a)

Developer

b)

Basic

c)

Business

d)

Enterprise

12.

_________ is a Platform as a Service (PaaS) that facilitates quick deployment and scaling and managing of your web-applications and services. you provide code and configuration settings, and _____deploys the resources necessary to perform the following tasks:

· Adjust capacity

· Load balancing

· Automatic scaling

· Application health monitoring

a)

ASW CloudFormation

b)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

c)

Amazon Cloud Front

d)

AWS Fargate

13.

_________ is a content delivery service. It uses a network of edge locations to cache content and deliver content to customers all over the world. When content is cached, it is stored locally as a copy.

a)

ASW CloudFormation

b)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

c)

Amazon CloudFront

d)

AWS Fargate

14.

_________ is a serverless compute engine for containers.

a)

ASW CloudFormation

b)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

c)

Amazon CloudFront

d)

AWS Fargate

15.

_________ is a service that enables you to run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach.

a)

ASW CloudFormation

b)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

c)

Amazon Outposts

d)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

16.

_________ is a service that enables you to send, store, and receive messages between software components through a queue.

a)

ASW CloudFormation

b)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

c)

Amazon Outposts

d)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

17.

_________ enables you to provision an isolated section of the AWS Cloud.

a)

Virtual Private Gateway

b)

AWS Direct Connect

c)

Amazon Machine Image (AMI)

d)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

18.

_________ is a supported and maintained image provided by AWS that provides the information required to launch an instance.

a)

Virtual Private Gateway

b)

AWS Direct Connect

c)

Amazon Machine Image (AMI)

d)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

19.

_________ is the component that allows protected internet traffic to enter into the VPC.

a)

Virtual Private Gateway

b)

AWS Direct Connect

c)

Amazon Machine Image (AMI)

d)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

20.

_________ is a service that enables you to establish a dedicated private connection between your data center and a VPC. The private connection that AWS Direct Connect provides helps you to reduce network costs and increase the amount of bandwidth that can travel through your network.

a)

Virtual Private Gateway

b)

AWS Direct Connect

c)

Amazon Machine Image (AMI)

d)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

21.

is a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic at the subnet level.

a)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

b)

A network access control list (ACL)

c)

Amazon Route 53

d)

A security group

22.

___is a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic for an Amazon EC2 instance.

·         By default, a _____ denies all inbound traffic and allows all outbound traffic. You can add custom rules to configure which traffic to allow or deny.

·         If you have multiple Amazon EC2 instances within a subnet, you can associate them with the same or different ______ for each instance.

a)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

b)

A network access control list (ACL)

c)

Amazon Route 53

d)

A security group

23.

___is a DNS web service. It gives developers and businesses a reliable way to route end users to internet applications hosted in AWS.

a)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

b)

A network access control list (ACL)

c)

Amazon Route 53

d)

A security group

24.

___Files in a series of bytes that are stored in blocks on disks and persists outside of the life cycle of an EC2 instance.

a)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

b)

A network access control list (ACL)

c)

Amazon Route 53

d)

A security group

25.

___are local Ephemeral/ Temporary storage that are physically attached to the host your EC2 instance is running on top of. You can write to it just like a normal hard drive. Since the volume is attached to the underlying physical host, if you stop or terminate your EC2 instance, all data written to the instance store volume will be deleted.

a)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

b)

Instance Store Volumes

c)

Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

d)

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

26.

___Stores data as Objects, in buckets. Upload maximum 5 TB, Version objects from accidental deletion by retaining previous versions of objects, like a paper trail, you can create multiple buckets and store them across different classes or tiers of data. You can create permissions to limit who can see or even access objects. You can stage data between tiers. These tiers offer mechanisms for different storage use cases such as data that needs to be accessed frequently, versus audit data that needs to be retained for several years.

a)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

b)

Instance Store Volumes

c)

Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

d)

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

27.

Which Amazon S3 storage class - Comes with 11 nines of durability (99.999999999) % probability that it will remain intact after 1 year. Data is stored in such a way that AWS can sustain the concurrent loss of data since it is stored in at least three facilities so multiple copies reside across locations.

a)

Amazon S3 Standard Infrequent Access (S3 Standard -IA)

b)

S3 Standard is the First Tier

c)

Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

d)

Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA)

28.

Which Amazon S3 storage class - Which is used for data that is accessed less frequently but requires rapid access when needed. Perfect place to store backups, disaster recovery files, or any object that requires a long-term storage.

a)

Amazon S3 Standard Infrequent Access (S3 Standard -IA)

b)

S3 Standard is the First Tier

c)

Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

d)

Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA)

29.

Which Amazon S3 storage class - Stores data in a single Availability Zone

o   Has a lower storage price than Amazon S3 Standard-IA

This makes it a good storage class to consider if the following conditions apply:

-  You want to save costs on storage.

-  You can easily reproduce your data in the event of an Availability Zone failure.

a)

Amazon S3 Standard Infrequent Access (S3 Standard -IA)

b)

S3 Standard is the First Tier

c)

Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

d)

Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA)

30.

Which Amazon S3 storage class - Ideal for data with unknown or changing access patterns

-  Requires a small monthly monitoring and automation fee per object

-   Amazon S3 monitors objects’ access patterns. If you haven’t accessed an object for 30 consecutive days, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the infrequent access tier, Amazon S3 Standard-IA. If you access an object in the infrequent access tier, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the frequent access tier, Amazon S3 Standard.

a)

Amazon S3 Standard Infrequent Access (S3 Standard -IA)

b)

S3 Standard is the First Tier

c)

Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

d)

Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA)

31.

_____ acts as a firewall at the instance level. They have rules to manage instance traffic and ____ are stateful and outbound traffic is always allowed. Default ____ are sealed shut to inbound traffic.

a)

Access Control Lists

b)

Security Groups

32.

_____ acts as a firewall at the subnet level. Default ____ allow inbound and outbound traffic. Can be associated with multiple subnets, but a subnet can only be associated with one Network ACL ( one to one) mapping

a)

Network Access Control Lists

b)

Security Groups

33.

_____has allow rules only

a)

Access Control Lists

b)

Security Groups

34.

_____ is stateful and return traffic is always allowed

a)

Access Control Lists

b)

Security Groups

35.

_____ are stateless and have separate inbound and outbound rules to manage traffic defined by rules.

a)

Network Access Control Lists

b)

Security Groups

36.

____ used in single server environments

a)

Geolocation routing

b)

Weighted routing

c)

Simple routing

d)

Latency routing

37.

____ assigns weights to resource record sets to specify the frequency

a)

Geolocation routing

b)

Weighted routing

c)

Simple routing

d)

Latency routing

38.

____ help improve your global applications

a)

Geolocation routing

b)

Geoproximity routing

c)

Failover routing

d)

Latency routing

39.

____ route traffic based on the location of your users

a)

Geolocation routing

b)

Geoproximity routing

c)

Failover routing

d)

Multivalue answer routing

40.

____ route traffic based on the location of your resources

a)

Geolocation routing

b)

Geoproximity routing

c)

Failover routing

d)

Multivalue answer routing

41.

____ Fail over to a backup site if your primary site becomes unreachable

a)

Geolocation routing

b)

Geoproximity routing

c)

Failover routing

d)

Multivalue answer routing

42.

____ respond to DNS queries with up to eight healthy records selected at random

a)

Geolocation routing

b)

Geoproximity routing

c)

Failover routing

d)

Multivalue answer routing

43.

application with tightly coupled components. These components might include databases, servers, the user interface, business logic, and so on. This type of architecture can be considered a ______ application

a)

Monolithic

b)

microservices

44.

In this __________ if a single component fails, the other components continue to work because they are communicating with each other. The loose coupling prevents the entire application from failing.

a)

Monolithic

b)

microservices

45.

– is a publish/subscribe service. Using Amazon ____ topics, a publisher publishes messages to subscribers.

a)

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

b)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

46.

– is a message queuing service. Using Amazon____ , you can send, store, and receive messages between software components, without losing messages or requiring other services to be available.

a)

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

b)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

47.

The term “ (a)   ” means that your code runs on servers, but you do not need to provision or manage these servers

48.

AWS ______ is a service that lets you run code without needing to provision or manage servers.

While using AWS ____ , you pay only for the compute time that you consume. Charges apply only when your code is running. You can also run code for virtually any type of application or backend service, all with zero administration.

a)

Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)

b)

Lambda

c)

FarGate

d)

Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

49.

_____ provide you with a standard way to package your application's code and dependencies into a single object. You can also use _____ for processes and workflows in which there are essential requirements for security, reliability, and scalability.

(a)  

50.

______ is a highly scalable, high-performance container management system that enables you to run and scale containerized applications on AWS.

a)

Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)

b)

Lambda

c)

FarGate

d)

Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

51.

______ ) is a fully managed service that you can use to run Kubernetes on AWS.

a)

Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)

b)

Lambda

c)

FarGate

d)

Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

52.

______ is a serverless compute engine for containers. It works with both Amazon ECS and Amazon EKS.

a)

Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)

b)

Lambda

c)

Fargate

d)

Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

53.

______ is a software platform that enables you to build, test, and deploy applications quickly.

a)

Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)

b)

Lambda

c)

Docker

d)

Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

54.

When determining the right Region selection which of the four business factors is Depending on your company and location, you might need to run your data out of specific areas.

a)

Proximity to your customers

b)

Compliance with data governance and legal requirements

c)

Available services within a Region

d)

Pricing

55.

When determining the right Region selection which of the four business factors is considering running applications in regions that the cost of services can vary from Region to Region.

a)

Proximity to your customers

b)

Compliance with data governance and legal requirements

c)

Available services within a Region

d)

Pricing

56.

When determining the right Region selection which of the four business factors is considers that sometimes, the closest Region might not have all the features that you want to offer to customers. AWS is frequently innovating by creating new services and expanding on features within existing services.

a)

Proximity to your customers

b)

Compliance with data governance and legal requirements

c)

Available services within a Region

d)

Pricing

57.

When determining the right Region selection which of the four business factors that considers selecting a Region that is close to your customers will help you to get content to them faster.

a)

Proximity to your customers

b)

Compliance with data governance and legal requirements

c)

Available services within a Region

d)

Pricing

58.

is a single data center or a group of data centers within a Region. ______ are located tens of miles apart from each other. This is close enough to have low latency (the time between when content requested and received

a)

Availability Zones

b)

Edge locations

c)

AWS CloudFormation

d)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

59.

You provide code and configuration settings, and _____ deploys the resources necessary to perform the following tasks:

 Adjust capacity

Load balancing

Automatic scaling

Application health monitoring

a)

Availability Zones

b)

Edge locations

c)

AWS CloudFormation

d)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

60.

with ______ you can treat your infrastructure as code. This means that you can build an environment by writing lines of code instead of using the AWS Management Console to individually provision resources. with _____ provisions your resources in a safe, repeatable manner, enabling you to frequently build your infrastructure and applications without having to perform manual actions. It determines the right operations to perform when managing your stack and rolls back changes automatically if it detects errors.

a)

Availability Zones

b)

Edge locations

c)

AWS CloudFormation

d)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

61.

is a content delivery service. It uses a network of edge locations to cache content and deliver content. When content is cached, it is stored locally as a copy. Self service with pay as you go pricing and Relays on route 53 geolocation routing and responses with IP of the closest edge location.

a)

Availability Zones

b)

Edge locations

c)

AWS CloudFront

d)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

62.

____ is a site that Amazon CloudFront uses to store cached copies of your content closer to your customers for faster delivery.

a)

Availability Zones

b)

Edge locations

c)

AWS CloudFront

d)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

63.

____ is a service that enables you to run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach.

a)

Availability Zones

b)

Edge locations

c)

AWS Outposts

d)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

64.

The _______ is the component that allows protected internet traffic to enter into the VPC. Even though your connection to the coffee shop has extra protection, traffic jams are possible because you’re using the same road as other customers.

a)

virtual private gateway

b)

Internet gateway

c)

AWS Direct Connect

d)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

65.

enables you to provision an isolated section of the AWS Cloud. In this isolated section, you can launch resources in a virtual network that you define. Within a (a)   , you can organize your resources into subnets. A subnet is a section of a VPC that can contain resources such as Amazon EC2 instances.

66.

is a connection between a VPC and the internet. You can think of an ______as being similar to a doorway that customers use to enter the coffee shop. Without an ______, no one can access the resources within your VPC to allow public traffic from the internet to access your VPC. You would need to attach an _______ to the VPC.

a)

virtual private gateway

b)

Internet gateway

c)

AWS Direct Connect

d)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

67.

______ is a service that enables you to establish a dedicated private connection between your data center and a VPC. The private connection that _____ provides helps you to reduce network costs and increase the amount of bandwidth that can travel through your network.

a)

virtual private gateway

b)

Internet gateway

c)

AWS Direct Connect

d)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

68.

is a section of a VPC in which you can group resources based on security or operational needs. (a)   can be public or private.

69.

_______ packet filtering. They remember nothing and check packets that cross the subnet border each way: inbound and outbound. After a packet has entered a subnet, it must have its permissions evaluated for resources within the subnet, such as Amazon EC2 instances.

a)

Stateless

b)

Stateful

70.

____ packet filtering. They remember previous decisions made for incoming packets.

a)

Stateless

b)

Stateful

71.

_____ is a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic for an Amazon EC2 instance.

a)

Security Group

b)

Network Access Control List

72.

_____ ) is a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic at the subnet level.

a)

Security Group

b)

Network Access Control List

73.

  ____ is a DNS web service. It gives developers and businesses a reliable way to route end users to internet applications hosted in AWS.

_____ connects user requests to infrastructure running in AWS (such as Amazon EC2 instances and load balancers). It can route users to infrastructure outside of AWS.

(a)  

74.

_____ is a service that enables you to run relational databases in the AWS Cloud. _____ is a managed service that automates tasks such as hardware provisioning, database setup, patching, and backups.

a)

Instance Store Volumes

b)

Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)

c)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

d)

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

75.

_____ is a scalable file system used with AWS Cloud services and on-premises resources. It can scale on demand to petabytes without disrupting applications. Multiple instances can access the data in _____ read or write at the same time.

o   Not just a blank hard drive, but it is a Linux file system.

o   Regional resource

o   It automatically scales 

a)

Instance Store Volumes

b)

Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)

c)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

d)

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

76.

_____ are local Ephemeral/ Temporary storage that are physically attached to the host your EC2 instance is running on top of. You can write to it just like a normal hard drive.

a)

Instance Store Volumes

b)

Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)

c)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

d)

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

77.

_____ Files in a series of bytes that are stored in blocks on disks and persists outside of the life cycle of an EC2 instance. Using ____ you can create virtual hard drives called ____ Volumes, that you can attach to your EC2 instances. These are separate drives from the local instance store volumes and are not tied directly to the host that your EC2 is running on. This means that your ____ can persist between stops and starts of an EC2 instance.

a)

Instance Store Volumes

b)

Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)

c)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

d)

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

78.

(a)   Stores data as Objects, stores it in buckets. Upload a maximum of 5 TB, Version objects from accidental deletion by retaining previous versions of objects, like a paper trail, you can create multiple buckets and store them across different classes or tiers of data. You can create permissions to limit who can see or even access objects. You can stage data between tiers. These tiers offer mechanisms for different storage use cases such as data that needs to be accessed frequently, versus audit data that needs to be retained for several years.

79.

______ good for audit data where you can simply move data to it, or you can create vaults and populate them with archives.  If you have compliance requirements around retaining data for a certain period of time, you can employ an ____ to vault lock policy and lock your vault. You can also specify controls such as write once / read many (WORM) in a vault lock policy and lock the policy from future edits. Once locked the policy can no longer be changed.

(a)  

80.

Lowest-cost object storage class ideal for archiving

o   Able to retrieve objects within 12 hours

o   supports long-term retention and digital preservation for data that might be accessed once or twice in a year. This storage class is the lowest-cost storage in the AWS Cloud, with data retrieval from 12 to 48 hours. All objects from this storage class are replicated and stored across at least three geographically dispersed Availability Zones.

a)

Amazon S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval

b)

Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

c)

Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive

d)

Amazon S3 Outposts

81.

Works well for archived data that requires immediate access

Can retrieve objects within a few milliseconds

When you decide between the options for archival storage, consider how quickly you must retrieve the archived objects. You can retrieve objects stored in the __ storage class within milliseconds, with the same performance as Amazon S3 Standard.

a)

Amazon S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval

b)

Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

c)

Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive

d)

Amazon S3 Outposts

82.

o   Low-cost storage designed for data archiving

o   Able to retrieve objects within a few minutes to hours

o   is a low-cost storage class that is ideal for data archiving.

a)

Amazon S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval

b)

Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

c)

Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive

d)

Amazon S3 Outposts

83.

o   Creates S3 buckets

o   Makes it easier to retrieve, store, and access data

o   delivers object storage to your on-premises ___environment.

o designed to store data durably and redundantly across multiple devices and servers

o It works well for workloads with local data residency requirements that must satisfy demanding performance needs by keeping data close to on-premises applications.

a)

Amazon S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval

b)

Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

c)

Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive

d)

Amazon S3 Outposts

84.

o   Policies that you can create to move data automatically between tiers. Example: say we need to keep an object in S3 standard for 90 days, and then we want to move it to S3-IA for the next 30 days, then after 120 days total, we want it to be moved to S3 Glacier. With Lifecycle policies you can create this configuration without changing your application code and it will perform those moves for you automatically. It is another example of AWS service.

(a)  

85.

You can integrate ____ with other services to fulfill your business and operational needs, such as using AWS Lambda to query your database from a serverless application. It supports all the major database engines, but this service comes with added benefits. These include automated patching, backups, redundancy, failover, disaster recovery, all of which you normally have to manage for yourself. This makes it an extremely attractive option to AWS customers, as it allows you to focus on business problems and not maintaining databases.

Automatic high availability

Customer ownership of data

Customer ownership of schema

Customer control of network

Built for business analytics

a)

Amazon EFS

b)

Amazon RDS

c)

Amazon EBS

86.

____ is an enterprise-class relational database and is priced is 1/10th the cost of commercial grade databases. It is up to five times faster than standard MySQL databases and up to three times faster than standard PostgreSQL databases. It helps to reduce your database costs by reducing unnecessary input/output (I/O) operations. It's our most managed relational database option. for workloads require high availability. It replicates six copies of your data across three Availability Zones and continuously backs up your data to Amazon S3. It comes in two forms: MySQL & PostgreSQL

a)

Amazon DynamoDB

b)

Amazon Aurora

c)

Amazon Redshift

d)

AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)

87.

·       Key-Value

·       Massive throughput capabilities

·       Global DB

·       PB size potential

·       Granular API access

·       __ is serverless, which means that you do not have to provision, patch, or manage servers. You also do not have to install, maintain, or operate software.

·       Automatic Scaling - As the size of your database shrinks or grows, ____ automatically scales to adjust for changes in capacity while maintaining consistent performance. This makes it a suitable choice for use cases that require high performance while scaling.

·       Mostly used for non-complex databases (lookup tables) single tables. Not used for analytics 

a)

Amazon DynamoDB

b)

Amazon Aurora

c)

Amazon Redshift

d)

AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)

88.

-          is a big BI data warehousing service that you can use for big data analytics.

- ability to collect data from many sources and helps understand relationships and trends across your data.

This is data warehousing as a service. It's massively scalable. multiple petabyte sizes is very common.

In fact, in cooperation with Amazon Redshift Spectrum, you can directly run a single SQL query against exabytes of unstructured data running in data lakes.

- allows you to get started with a single API call.

Less time waiting for results, more time getting answers.

___ uses a variety of innovations that allow you to achieve up to 10 times higher performance than traditional databases, use case for business intelligence workloads.

a)

Amazon DynamoDB

b)

Amazon Aurora

c)

Amazon Redshift

d)

AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)

89.

-        enables you to migrate relational databases, nonrelational databases, and other types of data stores.

With ____, you move data between a source database and a target database.

The source and target databases can be of the same type or different types.

During the migration, your source database remains operational, reducing downtime for any applications that rely on the database.

a)

Amazon DynamoDB

b)

Amazon Aurora

c)

Amazon Redshift

d)

AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)

90.

Databases that are of the same type, these migrations are known as ______ and can be from MySQL to Amazon RDS for MySQL, Microsoft SQL Server to Amazon RDS for SQL Server or even Oracle to Amazon RDS for Oracle. The process is fairly straightforward since schema structures, data types, and database code is compatible between source and target.

a)

Homogenous

b)

Heterogeneous

91.

The second type of migration occurs when source and target databases are of different types. This is called _____ migrations, and it's a two-step process. Since the schema structures, data types, and database code are different between source and target, we first need to

·       convert them using the AWS Schema Conversion Tool. This will convert the source schema and code to match that of the target database.

·       The next step is then to use DMS to migrate data from the source database to the target database.

But these are not the only use cases for DMS. Others include development and test database migrations, database consolidation, and even continuous database replication.

a)

Homogenous

b)

Heterogeneous

92.

_______ is when you want to develop this to test against production data, but without affecting production users. In this case, you use DMS to migrate a copy of your production database to your dev or test environments, either once-off or continuously.

a)

Database consolidation

b)

Development and test migration

c)

continuous replication

93.

_______ is when you have several databases and want to combine them into one central database.

a)

Database consolidation

b)

Development and test migration

c)

continuous replication

94.

_______ is when you use DMS to perform data replication. This could be for disaster recovery or because of geographic separation

a)

Database consolidation

b)

Development and test migration

c)

continuous replication

95.

- is a service that adds caching layers on top of your databases to help improve the read times of common requests. It supports two types of data stores: Redis and Memcached.

a)

Amazon DocumentDB

b)

Amazon Managed Blockchain 

c)

Amazon Quantum Ledger Database (Amazon QLDB) 

d)

Amazon ElastiCache 

e)

Amazon Neptune

96.

- is an in-memory cache for DynamoDB. It helps improve response times from single-digit milliseconds to microseconds.

a)

Amazon DocumentDB

b)

Amazon Managed Blockchain 

c)

Amazon Quantum Ledger Database (Amazon QLDB) 

d)

Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)

e)

Amazon Neptune

97.

-           is a graph database service.  You can use _____ to build and run applications that work with highly connected datasets, such as recommendation engines, fraud detection, and knowledge graphs.

a)

Amazon DocumentDB

b)

Amazon Managed Blockchain 

c)

Amazon Quantum Ledger Database (Amazon QLDB) 

d)

Amazon ElastiCache 

e)

Amazon Neptune

98.

- is a ledger database service. You can use _____ to review a complete history of all the changes that have been made to your application data.

 

a)

Amazon DocumentDB

b)

Amazon Managed Blockchain 

c)

Amazon Quantum Ledger Database (Amazon QLDB) 

d)

Amazon ElastiCache 

e)

Amazon Neptune

99.

- is a service that you can use to create and manage blockchain networks with open-source frameworks. ____ is a distributed ledger system that lets multiple parties run transactions and share data without a central authority.

 

a)

Amazon DocumentDB

b)

Amazon Managed Blockchain 

c)

Amazon Quantum Ledger Database (Amazon QLDB) 

d)

Amazon ElastiCache 

e)

Amazon Neptune

100.

Which benefit of EC2 instances is - you can increase or decrease capacity within minutes not hours and commission one to thousands of instances simultaneously.

a)

Flexible Cloud Hosting Services 

b)

Elastic Web-Scale computing 

c)

Integrated

d)

Reliable

e)

Secure 

101.

Which benefit of EC2 instances is - You have complete control include root access to each instance and can stop and start instances without losing data and using web service APIs.

a)

Flexible Cloud Hosting Services 

b)

Completely controlled 

c)

Integrated

d)

Reliable

e)

Secure 

102.

Which benefit of EC2 instances is - EC2 works in conjunction with VPC to provide a secure location with an IP address range you specify and offers Security Groups, Network ACLs, and IPSec VPN features.

a)

Flexible Cloud Hosting Services 

b)

Completely controlled 

c)

Integrated

d)

Reliable

e)

Secure 

103.

Which benefit of EC2 instances is - EC2 is _____ with most AWS services such as S3, RDS, and VPC to provide a complete, secure solution.

a)

Flexible Cloud Hosting Services 

b)

Inexpensive 

c)

Integrated

d)

Reliable

e)

Secure 

104.

Which benefit of EC2 instances is - Amazon passes on the financial benefits of scale by charging very low rates and on a capacity consumed basis

a)

Flexible Cloud Hosting Services 

b)

Inexpensive 

c)

Integrated

d)

Reliable

e)

Secure 

105.

Which benefit of EC2 instances is - C2 offers a highly reliable environment where replacement instances can be rapidly and predictably commissioned with SLAs of 99.99% for each region.

a)

Flexible Cloud Hosting Services 

b)

Inexpensive 

c)

Integrated

d)

Reliable

e)

Secure 

106.

An AMI includes the following:

a)

One or more EBS snapshots, or, for instance-store-backed AMIs, a template for the root volume of the instance (for example, an operating system, an application server, and applications).

b)

A block device mapping that specifies the volumes to attach to the instance when it’s launched.

c)

Launch permissions that control which AWS accounts can use the AMI to launch instances.

107.

Which are the main categories of AMI

a)

Community AMIs 

b)

My AMIs 

c)

AWS Marketplace AMIs 

108.

____ is data that is supplied by the user at instance launch in the form of a script.

a)

User data

b)

Instance metadata

109.

____ is data about your instance that you can use to configure or manage the running instance.

a)

User data

b)

Instance metadata

110.

____ is limited to 16KB.

a)

User data

b)

Instance metadata

111.

____ are not encrypted.

a)

User data

b)

Instance metadata

112.
a)

User data

b)

Instance metadata

113.

The ______ allows you to query the instance metadata without having to type out the full URI or category names.

a)

Instance Metadata Query tool

b)

AWS Marketplace AMIs 

c)

My AMIs 

d)

Amazon EC2

114.

Which pricing is for - Applications with steady state or predictable usage.

a)

On-demand

b)

Spot 

c)

Reserved

d)

Dedicated instances

e)

Savings Plans

115.

Which pricing is for -

·         Users can make up-front payments to reduce their total computing costs even further.

·         Standard provide up to 75% off on-demand price.

·         Convertible RIs provide up to 54% off on-demand price – provides the capability to change the attributes of the RI if the exchange results in the creation of RIs of equal or greater value.

a)

On-demand

b)

Spot 

c)

Reserved

d)

Dedicated instances

e)

Savings Plans

116.

Which pricing is for - Scheduled are available to launch within the time window you reserve. This option allows you to match your capacity reservation to a predictable recurring schedule that only requires a fraction of a day, a week, or a month.

a)

On-demand

b)

Spot 

c)

Reserved

d)

Dedicated instances

e)

Savings Plans

117.

Which pricing is for - Applications that have flexible start and end times.

·         Applications that are only feasible at very low compute prices.

a)

On-demand

b)

Spot 

c)

Reserved

d)

Dedicated instances

e)

Savings Plans

118.

Which pricing is for -

·         Users with an urgent need for a large amount of additional compute capacity.

·         If Amazon terminate your instances you do not pay, if you terminate you pay for the hour.

·         Dedicated hosts:

·         Physical servers dedicated just for your use.

·         You then have control over which instances are deployed on that host.

·         Available as On-Demand or with Dedicated Host Reservation.

a)

On-demand

b)

Spot 

c)

Reserved

d)

Dedicated instances

e)

Savings Plans

119.

Which pricing is for - Good for users that want the low cost and flexibility of EC2 without any up-front payment or long-term commitment.

Applications with short term, spiky, or unpredictable workloads that cannot be interrupted.

Applications being developed or tested on EC2 for the first time.

a)

On-demand

b)

Spot 

c)

Reserved

d)

Dedicated instances

e)

Savings Plans

120.

Which pricing is for -  Useful if you have server-bound software licenses that use metrics like per-core, per-socket, or per-VM.

·         Each dedicated host can only run one EC2 instance size and type.

·         Good for regulatory compliance or licensing requirements.

·         Predictable performance.

·         Complete isolation.

·         Most expensive option.

·         Billing is per host.

a)

On-demand

b)

Spot 

c)

Reserved

d)

Dedicated instances

e)

Savings Plans

121.

Which pricing is for - is a flexible pricing model that provides savings of up to 72% on your AWS compute usage.

·         This pricing model offers lower prices on Amazon EC2 instances usage, regardless of instance family, size, OS, tenancy, or AWS Region.

·         Also applies to AWS Fargate and AWS Lambda usage.

a)

On-demand

b)

Spot 

c)

Reserved

d)

Dedicated instances

e)

Savings Plans

122.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: Heavy data usage

a)

R

b)

D

c)

M

d)

C

123.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: Compute optimized

a)

R

b)

D

c)

M

d)

C

124.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: General purpose (e.g. app servers)

a)

R

b)

D

c)

M

d)

C

125.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: Memory optimized

a)

R

b)

D

c)

M

d)

C

126.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: Graphics intensive workloads

a)

I

b)

G

c)

F

d)

T

127.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: FPGA hardware acceleration for applications

a)

I

b)

G

c)

F

d)

T

128.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: Lowest cost

a)

I

b)

G

c)

F

d)

T

129.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: Storage I/O optimized (e.g. NoSQL, DWs)

a)

I

b)

G

c)

F

d)

T

130.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: GPU requirements

a)

P

b)

X

c)

U

d)

Z

e)

H

131.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: EXTREME RAM  Heavy memory usage (e.g. SAP HANA, Apache Spark)

a)

P

b)

X

c)

U

d)

Z

e)

H

132.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: HIGH MEMORY High memory and bare metal performance – use for in memory DBs including SAP HANA

a)

P

b)

X

c)

U

d)

Z

e)

H

133.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: HGH COMPUTE & MEMORY Fast CPU, high memory, and NVMe-based SSDs – use when high overall performance is required

a)

P

b)

X

c)

U

d)

Z

e)

H

134.

Which EC2 instance family is the intended use case: HIGH DISK THROUGHPUT Up to 16 TB of HDD-based local storage

a)

P

b)

X

c)

U

d)

Z

e)

H

135.

Using (a)   calls you can launch and stop container-enabled applications, query the complete state of clusters, and access many familiar features like security groups, Elastic Load Balancing, EBS volumes and IAM roles.

136.

 

What are the benefits of AWS Lambda:

a)

No servers to manage

b)

Millisecond billing

c)

Integrates with almost all other AWS services

d)

Continuous scaling

137.

What are the primary uses for Lambda

a)

Build serverless backends for web, mobile, IOT, and 3rd party API requests

b)

Real-time stream processing

c)

Real-time file processing

d)

Amazon LightSail

e)

Data processing

138.

____ is one of the newest services in the AWS Compute suite of products. _____ is great for users who do not have deep AWS technical expertise as it makes it very easy to provision compute services.  provides developers compute, storage, and networking capacity and capabilities to deploy and manage websites, web applications, and databases in the cloud.

a)

Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Batch

139.

Using ____ The underlying infrastructure and operating system is managed by____?

a)

Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Batch

140.

____ is best suited to projects that require a few dozen instances or fewer.

Provides a simple management interface.

Good for blogs, websites, web applications, e-commerce etc.

Can deploy load balancers and attach block storage

a)

Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Batch

141.

____ is the fastest and simplest way to get web applications up and running on AWS.

Developers simply upload their application code, and the service automatically handles all the details such as resource provisioning, load balancing, auto-scaling, and monitoring.

 

a)

Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Batch

142.

____ is ideal if you have a PHP, Java, Python, Ruby, Node.js, .NET, Go, or Docker web application.

a)

Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Batch

143.

____ uses core AWS services such as Amazon EC2, Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS), Auto Scaling, and Elastic Load Balancing to easily support applications that need to scale to serve millions of users.

a)

Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Batch

144.

____ enables developers, scientists, and engineers to run hundreds of thousands of batch computing jobs easily and efficiently on AWS.

a)

Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Batch

145.

____ dynamically provisions the optimal quantity and type of compute resources (e.g., CPU or memory optimized instances) based on the volume and specific resource requirements of the batch jobs submitted.

a)

Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Batch

146.

____ efficiently and dynamically provisions and scales Amazon EC2 and Spot Instances based on the requirements of your jobs. ___ provides default job queues and compute environment definitions that enable you to get started quickly.

a)

Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Batch

147.

____ refers to the fact that you can easily increase or decrease the number of servers you run to support an application automatically, and you can also increase or decrease the size of existing servers.

a)

Cloud

b)

Compute

c)

Elastic

148.

____ refers to reason why most users run servers in the first place, which is to host running applications or process data—actions that require compute resources, including processing power (CPU) and memory (RAM).

a)

Cloud

b)

Compute

c)

Elastic

149.

____ refers to the fact that the EC2 instances that you run are hosted in the cloud.

a)

Cloud

b)

Compute

c)

Elastic

150.

 

An operating system that runs on a virtual machine is often called a _____ to distinguish it from the ____ operating system

a)

guest operating system

b)

Host

151.

 

The ____ is directly installed on any server hardware that hosts one or more virtual machines.

a)

guest operating system

b)

Host

152.

Which does the AMI include ?

a)

Launch permissions

b)

A root volume

153.

Which AMI is - AWS offers a number of pre-built AMIs for launching your instances. These AMIs include many Linux and Windows options.

a)

My AMIs

b)

AWS Marketplace

c)

Quick Start

d)

Community AMIs

154.

Which AMI is - These AMIs are AMIs that you created.

a)

My AMIs

b)

AWS Marketplace

c)

Quick Start

d)

Community AMIs

155.

Which AMI is - offers a digital catalog that lists thousands of software solutions. These AMIs can offer specific use cases to help you get started quickly.

a)

My AMIs

b)

AWS Marketplace

c)

Quick Start

d)

Community AMIs

156.

Which AMI is - These AMIs are created by people all around the world. These AMIs are not checked by AWS, so use them at your own risk. ____ can offer many different solutions to various problems, but use them with care. Avoid using them in any production or corporate environment.

a)

My AMIs

b)

AWS Marketplace

c)

Quick Start

d)

Community AMIs

157.

Which Amazon pricing model - is only available for On-Demand Instances, Reserved Instances, and Spot Instances that run Amazon Linux or Ubuntu.

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

Per Second billing

d)

Dedicated Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

158.

Which Amazon pricing model - are instances that run in a virtual private cloud (VPC) on hardware that’s dedicated to a single customer. They are physically isolated at the host hardware level from instances that belong to other AWS accounts.

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

Per Second billing

d)

dedicated Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

159.

Which Amazon pricing model - Instances are eligible for the AWS Free Tier. They have the lowest upfront cost and the most flexibility. There are no upfront commitments or long-term contracts. It is a good choice for applications with short-term, spiky, or unpredictable workloads.

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

Per Second billing

d)

Dedicated Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

160.

Which Amazon pricing model - Are physical servers with instance capacity that is dedicated to your use. They enable you to use your existing per-socket, per-core, or per-VM software licenses, such as for Microsoft Windows or Microsoft SQL Server.

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

Per Second billing

d)

Dedicated Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

161.

Which Amazon pricing model - enable you to reserve computing capacity for 1-year or 3-year term with lower hourly running costs. The discounted usage price is fixed for as long as you own the _____ instance. If you expect consistent, heavy use, they can provide substantial savings compared to On-Demand Instances.

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

Per Second billing

d)

Dedicated Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

162.

Which Amazon pricing model - Enable you to bid on unused EC2 instances, which can lower your costs. The hourly price for a Spot Instance fluctuates depending on supply and demand. Your ___ Instance runs whenever your bid exceeds the current market price.

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

Scheduled Reserved Instances

d)

Spot Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

163.

Which Amazon pricing model - Offer the most flexibility, with no long-term contract and low rates.

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

On-Demand Instances

d)

Spot Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

164.

Which Amazon pricing model - Provide large scale at a significantly discounted price.

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

On-Demand Instances

d)

Spot Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

165.

Which Amazon pricing model -Are a good choice if you have predictable or steady-state compute needs (for example, an instance that you know you want to keep running most or all of the time for months or years).

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

On-Demand Instances

d)

Spot Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

166.

Which Amazon pricing model - Are a good choice when you have licensing restrictions for the software you want to run on Amazon EC2, or when you have specific compliance or regulatory requirements that preclude you from using the other deployment options.

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

On-Demand

c)

On-Demand Instances

d)

Spot Instances

e)

Reserved Instances

167.

Which Cost optimization pillar is - Analyze the storage requirements of your deployments. Reduce unused storage overhead when possible and choose less expensive storage options if they can still meet your requirements for storage performance

a)

Increase Elasticity

b)

Optimal Pricing Model

c)

Optimize Storage Choices

d)

Right Size

168.

Which Cost optimization pillar is - Choose the right balance of instance types. Notice when servers can be either sized down or turned off, and still meet your performance requirements.

a)

Increase Elasticity

b)

Optimal Pricing Model

c)

Optimize Storage Choices

d)

Right Size

169.

Which Cost optimization pillar is - Design your deployments to reduce the amount of server capacity that is idle by implementing deployments that are elastic, such as deployments that use automatic scaling to handle peak loads.

a)

Increase Elasticity

b)

Optimal Pricing Model

c)

Optimize Storage Choices

d)

Right Size

170.

Which Cost optimization pillar is - Recognize the available pricing options. Analyze your usage patterns so that you can run EC2 instances with the right mix of pricing options.

a)

Increase Elasticity

b)

Optimal Pricing Model

c)

Optimize Storage Choices

d)

Right Size

171.

One form of ____ is to create, start, or use EC2 instances when they are needed, but then to turn them off when they are not in use. ____ is one of the central tenets of the cloud, but customers often go through a learning process to operationalize elasticity to drive cost savings.

(a)  

172.

It is a best practice to try to reduce costs while also maintaining storage performance and availability.

One way you can accomplish this is by

a)

Tagging

b)

resizing EBS volumes

173.

Which best practice is - helps provide information about what resources are being used by whom and for what purpose. 

You can activate cost allocation tags in the Billing and Cost Management console, and AWS can generate a cost allocation report with usage and costs grouped by your active tags.

a)

Tagging

b)

Cost Optimization

c)

Resizing EBS Volumes

d)

Delete Snapshots

174.

Which best practice is - Customers often use _____ to create data backups. However, some customers forget to delete snapshots that are no longer needed. Delete these unneeded _____ to save on costs.

 

a)

Tagging

b)

Cost Optimization

c)

Resizing EBS Volumes

d)

Delete EBS Snapshots

175.

Which best practice is - If it is done correctly, ______ is not a one-time process that a customer completes. Instead, by routinely measuring and analyzing your systems, you can continually improve and adjust your costs.

a)

Tagging

b)

Cost Optimization

c)

Resizing EBS Volumes

d)

Delete EBS Snapshots

176.

____ is a free tool that you can use to view graphs of your costs. You can use ____ to see patterns in how much you spend on AWS resources over time, identify areas that need further inquiry, and see trends that you can use to understand your costs.

a)

AWS Cost Explorer

b)

AWS Trusted Advisor

177.

____ which provides real-time guidance to help you provision resources that follow AWS best practices.

Cost-optimization efforts are typically more successful when the responsibility for cost optimization is assigned to an individual or to a team.

a)

AWS Cost Explorer

b)

AWS Trusted Advisor

178.

Which are pillars of cost optimization?

a)

Optimize storage choices

b)

Right size

c)

  Increase elasticity

d)

Optimal pricing model

179.

What is the first of the key decisions in launching an EC2 instance from the AWS Management Console Launch instance Wizard?

a)

IAM Roles

b)

Network Settings

c)

Which AMI to launch from

d)

Instance Type

180.

What is the 2nd of the key decisions in launching an EC2 instance from the AWS Management Console Launch instance Wizard?

a)

IAM Roles

b)

Network Settings

c)

Which AMI to launch from

d)

Instance Type

181.

What is the 3nd of the key decisions in launching an EC2 instance from the AWS Management Console Launch instance Wizard?

a)

IAM Roles

b)

Network Settings

c)

User Data

d)

Storage Options

182.

What is the 4th of the key decisions in launching an EC2 instance from the AWS Management Console Launch instance Wizard?

a)

IAM Roles

b)

Network Settings

c)

User Data

d)

Storage Options

183.

What is the 5th of the key decisions in launching an EC2 instance from the AWS Management Console Launch instance Wizard

a)

Tags

b)

Security Group

c)

User Data

d)

Storage Options

184.

What is the 6th of the key decisions in launching an EC2 instance from the AWS Management Console Launch instance Wizard

a)

Tags

b)

Security Group

c)

Key Pair

d)

Storage Options

185.

What is the 7th of the key decisions in launching an EC2 instance from the AWS Management Console Launch instance Wizard

a)

Tags

b)

Security Group

c)

Key Pair

d)

Storage Options

186.

What is the 8th of the key decisions in launching an EC2 instance from the AWS Management Console Launch instance Wizard

a)

Tags

b)

Security Group

c)

Key Pair

d)

Storage Options

187.

What is the 9th of the key decisions in launching an EC2 instance from the AWS Management Console Launch instance Wizard

a)

Tags

b)

Security Group

c)

Key Pair

d)

Storage Options

188.

Which are instance type categories

a)

General Purpose

b)

Compute Optimized

c)

Memory Optimized

d)

Storage Optimized

e)

Accelerated Computing

189.

The instance type you choose determines which of the following?

a)

Memory

b)

Processing Power

c)

Disk space and disk type

d)

Network Performance

190.

Instance type names consist of family, generation, and size. The EC2 instance letter signifies the family. The number is known as the generation of that instance type and the size is the end. Example name is t3.nano

In general the higher generation are more powerful and better value for the price

a)

True

b)

False

191.

General Purpose instance types (a1, m4, m5, t2, t3) have which use case

a)

High Performance

b)

Broad

c)

In-Memory

d)

Machine Learning

e)

Distributed File Systems

192.

Compute Optimized instance types (c4, c5) have which use case

a)

High Performance

b)

Broad

c)

In-Memory

d)

Machine Learning

e)

Distributed File Systems

193.

Storage Optimized instance types (d2, h1, i3) have which use case

a)

High Performance

b)

Broad

c)

In-Memory

d)

Machine Learning

e)

Distributed File Systems

194.

Memory Optimized instance types (r4, r5, x1, z1) have which use case

a)

High Performance

b)

Broad

c)

In-Memory

d)

Machine Learning

e)

Distributed File Systems

195.

Accelerated computing instance types (f1, g3, g4, p2, p3) have which use case

a)

High Performance

b)

Broad

c)

In-Memory

d)

Machine Learning

e)

Distributed File Systems

196.

Which enhanced network type support network speeds of up to 100 Gbps

a)

Elastic Networking Adapter (ENA)

b)

Intel 82599 Virtual Function Interface

197.

Which enhanced network type support network speeds of up to 10 Gbps

a)

Elastic Networking Adapter (ENA)

b)

Intel 82599 Virtual Function Interface

198.

To maximize networking and bandwidth performance of your instance type you should ?

a)

If you have interdependent instances, launch them into a cluster placement group

b)

Enable enhanced networking