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APES Units 1-6

Total questions: 262

Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hyenas and vultures both scavenge prey from apex predators. This is an example of...

a)

Competition

b)

Predation

c)

Mutualism

d)

Commensalism

2.

Barnacles attach themselves to the skin of whales. This allows them to filter feed as the whale swims. The whale is unaffected. This is an example of...

a)

Competition

b)

Predation

c)

Mutualism

d)

Commensalism

3.

Cows eat grass to obtain energy. This is an example of...

a)

Competition

b)

Predation

c)

Mutualism

d)

Commensalism

4.

Click on the image to enlarge it. Which biome is being shown in the climatogram?

a)

Desert

b)

Tundra

c)

Tropical Rainforest

d)

Temperate Seasonal Forest

5.

Click on the image to enlarge it. Which biome is being shown in the climatogram?

a)

Desert

b)

Tundra

c)

Tropical Rainforest

d)

Temperate Seasonal Forest

6.

Similar biomes are often found along...

a)

lines of latitude.

b)

lines of longitude.

7.

Which of the following is NOT an important factor for aquatic biomes?

a)

Salinity

b)

Flow

c)

Temperature

d)

Precipitation

8.

_______ increases the amount of atmospheric CO2 while ______ decreases the amount of atmospheric CO2.

a)

Cellular Respiration, Photosynthesis

b)

Photosynthesis, Burning of Fossil Fuels

c)

Burning of Fossil Fuels, Photosynthesis

d)

Photosynthesis, Cellular Respiration

9.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of the increase of fossil fuel burning by humans?

a)

Increased Atmospheric Temperatures

b)

Increased pH in Bodies of Water

c)

Higher Sea Levels

d)

Decreased vegetation coverage

10.

The process of atmospheric nitrogen being converted into a usable form is called...

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

nitrification

c)

ammonification

d)

assimilation

11.

Denitrification is...

a)

the conversion of waste into ammonium

b)

the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into usable nitrogen

c)

the conversion of soil nitrogen back into atmospheric nitrogen

d)

the conversion of ammonium to nitrites

12.

Which of the cycles is considered to be the SLOWEST?

a)

Carbon

b)

Water

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Phosphorus

13.

An increase of which two molecules in water sources leads to eutrophication?

a)

Carbon & Phosphorus

b)

Nitrogen & Water

c)

Phosphorus & Water

d)

Nitrogen & Phosphorus

14.

The two main processes that return water to the atmosphere are...

a)

Evaporation & Transpiration

b)

Precipitation & Transpiration

c)

Precipitation & Evaporation

15.

If the GPP of an area is 57 kcal/m2/yr and the amount of energy lost to respiration is 23 kcal/m2/yr, what is the NPP of the area?

a)

80 kcal/m2/yr

b)

57 kcal/m2/yr

c)

23 kcal/m2/yr

d)

34 kcal/m2/yr

16.

If the GPP of an area is 25 kcal/m2/yr and the NPP of the same area is 15 kcal/m2/yr, what is the amount of energy that is lost to respiration?

a)

25 kcal/m2/yr

b)

15 kcal/m2/yr

c)

10 kcal/m2/yr

d)

40 kcal/m2/yr

17.

An area that is highly ecologically efficient has a high...

a)

NPP

b)

GPP

c)

Respiration Rate

18.

Which of the following correctly lists the biomes in order from MOST productive to LEAST productive?

a)

Desert > Grasslands > Seasonal Forest

b)

Grasslands > Desert > Seasonal Forest

c)

Seasonal Forest > Grasslands > Desert

d)

Grasslands > Seasonal Forest > Desert

19.

Which of the following correctly lists the biomes in order from MOST productive to LEAST productive?

a)

Tundra > Tropical Rainforest > Savana

b)

Tropical Rainforest > Desert > Savana

c)

Savanna > Tropical Rainforest > Desert

d)

Tropical Rainforest > Savana > Desert

20.

If producers capture 80,000 J of energy from the sun, how much will be passed on to the secondary consumers?

a)

8,000 J

b)

800 J

c)

80 J

d)

8 J

21.

If producers capture 65,000 J of energy from the sun, how much will be passed on to the tertiary consumers?

a)

6,500 J

b)

650 J

c)

65 J

d)

6.5 J

22.

If producers capture 55,000 J of energy from the sun, how much will be passed on to the primary consumers?

a)

5,500 J

b)

550 J

c)

55 J

d)

5.5 J

23.

The removal of which type of species will cause a trophic cascade?

a)

Keystone Species

b)

Invasive Species

c)

Primary Consumer

d)

Producer

24.
In this Food Web Pyramid Which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Top carnivore
25.
In the energy pyramid shown, which organism has the least amount of biomass?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Top Predator
26.
Humans impose the largest negative impact on the carbon cycle by ________________
a)
cultivating crops
b)
burning fossil fuels
c)
harnessing solar power
d)
mining
27.

Eutrophication (algal blooms) in bodies of water results from

a)

An increase in predatory fish

b)

A decrease in temperatures

c)

An increase in carbon dioxide in the air

d)

An increase in N and P nutrients in the lake

28.

Nitrogen becomes available to plants in the soil by all of the following processes EXCEPT

a)

ammonification

b)

denitrification by denitrifiying bacteria

c)

nitrification by nitrifying bacteria

d)

nitrogen fixation in plant nodules

29.
In which trophic level would the biological magnification of the pesticide DDT be most evident?
a)
oak tree
b)
caterpillar 
c)
bluetit
d)
sparrowhawk
30.
Which of the following best explains why there are usually no more than five trophic levels in a food chain?
a)
there are not enough organisms to fill more than five levels
b)
there is too much competition among the organisms at the lower levels to support more animals at higher levels
c)
the statement is not true; there can be unlimited amount of trophic levels
d)
energy is lost at each trophic level
31.
Which species is the producer?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
32.
The term “ecosystem” is used to describe large environmental units. Which of the following features is shared by all ecosystems? 
a)
the number of producers relative to consumers 
b)
the life-span of the ecosystem 
c)
the flow of energy and the cycling of chemical elements 
d)
the relative number of primary consumers to secondary consumers
33.
A forest has a GPP of 3.8 kg C/m2/year and the rate of cellular respiration is 2.4 kg C/m2/year. What is the NPP? 
a)
6.2 kg C/m2/year 
b)
1.4 kg C/m2/year
c)
9.12 kg C/m2/year 
d)
1.58 kg C/m2/year 
34.

Which process in the hydrologic cycle is most likely to contribute to the development of an algal bloom?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Runoff

c)

Infiltration

d)

Transpiration

35.

What is the effect of deforestation on the carbon cycle?

a)

Increase in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere

b)

Decrease in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere

c)

Increase in the amount of photosynthesis

d)

Deforestation has no impact on the carbon cycle

36.
Which element is the most abundant in the atmosphere? 
a)
Carbon
b)
Hydrogen
c)
oxygen
d)
Nitrogen
37.

What effect would clear-cutting an area within a watershed have on the water quality of a river running through the watershed?

a)

Decrease in nutrient concentration in the waters of the clear-cut watershed

b)

Increase the amount of runoff and sediment in the river

c)

Decrease in the amount of runoff entering the waters of the clear-cut watershed

d)

No effect on the water quality of a river

38.
On a climatogram, the line represents
a)
temperature
b)
precipitation
c)
months
d)
biodiversity
39.
From which biome does this climatogram most likely come?
a)
tundra
b)
tropical rain forest
c)
taiga
d)
desert
40.

Animals here tend to migrate, burrow, or grow white fur to survive harsh winters.

a)

desert

b)

temperate deciduous forest

c)

chaparral

d)

savanna

41.
What is the main factor which determines what plants grow in a given area?
a)
climate
b)
consumers
c)
predators
d)
longitude
42.
What factor has a greater influence on biomes?
a)
latitude
b)
longitude
43.
What biome is shown in bright green on this map?
a)
savanna
b)
desert
c)
tropical rainforest
d)
coral reefs
44.
Fire is beneficial to many biomes because
a)
it clears trees which would compete for sunlight
b)
some seeds are adapted to open during a fire when land is cleared
c)
it reduces invasive species populations
d)
all of these
45.

Which process in the hydrologic cycle occurs very quickly in sandy soils?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Runoff

c)

Infiltration/Percolation

d)

Transpiration

46.

Which of the following is the primary reservoir of phosphorus?

a)

Hydrosphere

b)

Soils

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Sedimentary Rock

47.

The phosphorus cycle is unique because it does not exist in (the) _________________!

a)

water

b)

living organisms

c)

atmosphere

d)

soils

48.

Organisms acquire the carbon they need to synthesize biomolecules by

a)

consumption

b)

combusttion

c)

decomposition

d)

cellular respiration

49.

Which chemical form of Nitrogen is unusable by plants?

a)

N2 gas

b)

NO3 nitrates

c)

NH3 ammonium

d)

all are usable forms

50.

6 CO2 + 6 H20 + Light -> C6H12O6 + 6 O2

a)

photosynthesis

b)

cellular respiration

51.

A symbiotic relationship in which a predator lives in/on the host, harming it.

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Predation

52.

An increase in the prey population will lead to

a)

a decline in the predator population

b)

an increase in the predator population

53.

What is habitat diversity?

a)

Diversity within a species

b)

# of species and abundance in the community

c)

How many different habitats are in a region

54.

The number is species in an ecosystem

a)

Species evenness

b)

Species diversity

c)

Species richness

55.

Ecosystem services that that support human life and life on Earth such as producing oxygen, water cycling, and the pollination of crops of human interest are called

a)

Provisioning Services

b)

Regulating Services

c)

Cultural Services

d)

Supporting Services

56.

Ecosystem services that indirectly benefit humans , such as plants cleaning air and wetlands filtering water are called

a)

Provisioning Services

b)

Regulating Services

c)

Cultural Services

d)

Supporting Services

57.

Organisms, like koalas, that require specific habitats and food are called

a)

specialist

b)

generalist

58.

Organisms, like cockroaches, that can live in many places and eat many things are called

a)

specialist

b)

generalist

59.

The total range of conditions conditions (abiotic factors) that an organism can lived in is called its _____________.

a)

Succession

b)

Environmental disturbance

c)

Range of tolerance

d)

limiting factors

60.

Species that many other species depend on are called

a)

Climax Community

b)

Pioneer Species

c)

Indicator species

d)

Keystone species

61.

This is a slower process that shows how communities and habitats change over time. It starts with bare rock (no soil), such as after a volcanic eruption. Moss or lichens usually inhabit first, breaking down the rock to make soil. Afterward larger and larger plants move in and over time it will become a climax community.

a)

Primary succession

b)

Secondary succession

c)

Keystone species

62.

This is a faster process that shows how communities and habitats change over time. It starts after a fire or flood that destroys the habitat but soil remains. Over time it becomes a climax community as new plants move in.

a)

Primary succession

b)

Secondary succession

c)

Keystone species

63.

Range of Tolerance: A individuals in a species are no longer able to survive and reproduce due to environmental conditions are in the

a)

Zone of Intolerance

b)

Zone of physiological stress

c)

Optimal Zone

64.

Range of Tolerance: Individuals of a species are not surviving and/or reproducing to their biotic potential due to hindering abiotic conditions. They are most likely in the

a)

Zone of Intolerance

b)

Zone of physiological stress

c)

Optimal Zone

65.

Range of Tolerance: Individuals of a species are thriving. Abiotic conditions are not withholding the population.

a)

Zone of Intolerance

b)

Zone of physiological stress

c)

Optimal Zone

66.

Populations and communities with high genetic diversity are often

a)

more resilient

b)

less resilient

c)

equally as resilient as a population or community with low genetic diversity

67.

Which of the following organism is a mutualistic relationship between a fungi and cyanobacteria that has the ability to secrete acids and break down rock?

a)

Lichen

b)

Moss

c)

Grass

d)

Tree

68.

The following chart, along with a physical survey, can be used to sample a stream. The organisms that are "intolerant to pollution" would be considered

a)

Keystone Species

b)

Generalist Species

c)

Resilient Species

d)

Indicator Species

69.

Higher species richness?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

The communities have the same richness

70.

Lower species evenness?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

The communities have the same evenness

71.

High biodiversity is important because...

a)

it means that the ecosystem is more able to recover from disturbances.

b)

it means that the ecosystem is less able to recover from disturbances.

c)

it means that organisms are healthier and have more opportunities.

d)

it means that organisms are less healthy and have less opportunities.

72.

Click the image to enlarge it. Which community has higher biodiversity RICHNESS?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

They are the same

73.

Click the image to enlarge it. Which community has higher biodiversity EVENNESS?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

They are the same

74.

If a natural disturbance occurs and a species undergoes a bottleneck effect, the resulting genetic diversity will be....

a)

increased

b)

decreased

75.

Higher biodiversity =

a)

higher ecosystem resilience

b)

lower ecosystem resilience

76.

Tourism in Yellowstone National Park would be considered what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

77.

Bees pollinating our crops would be considered what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

78.

A forest that naturally purifies our air would be considered what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

79.

A river that naturally filters drinking water would be considered what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

80.

Obtaining lumber from a forest would be considered what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

81.

Obtaining coal from the earth would be considered what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

82.

Click the image to enlarge it. Would island 1 or 2 likely have higher biodiversity?

a)

1

b)

2

83.

Would the continuous or fragmented habitats be more able to recover from a natural disturbance?

a)

Contiguous

b)

Fragmented

84.

Organisms can tolerate any range of temperature, salinity, and pH. True or false?

a)

True

b)

False

85.

A population's zone of intolerance is...

a)

the range where organisms survive, grow, and reproduce

b)

the range where organisms survive, but experience lack of growth and decreased activity

c)

the range where organisms will die

86.

Which fish would survive best in a pond that is kept at 23 degrees Celsius?

a)

Brook Trout

b)

Carp

87.

Which fish would survive best in a pond that is kept at 16 degrees Celsius?

a)

Brook Trout

b)

Carp

88.

Which of the following characteristics is most closely associated with a country that demonstrates the age structure diagram show above?

a)

There is a low infant mortality rate

b)

A high percentage of the population has access to medical care

c)

There is a low population growth

d)

There is a high total fertility rate

89.

What type of age structure diagram represents a population with negative growth rate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
90.

Represents the maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a particular ecosystem on a long-term basis

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

91.

Which of the following is a true statement about the total fertility of a society?

a)

The total fertility of a society is the difference between the crude birth rate and the crude death rate.

b)

The total fertility of a society is the number of children necessary for a couple to replace themselves in the next generation.

c)

The total fertility of a society is positively correlated with the average education of women.

d)

The total fertility of a society is negatively correlated with the number of women of child-bearing age.

e)

The total fertility of a society decreases as the society progresses through the demographic transition.

92.

Which of the following is most typically associated with the transition from a rural to an urbanized society?

a)

Reduced birth rates

b)

Reduced need for sewage-treatment facilities

c)

Increased rates of population growth

d)

Increased air quality in urban areas

e)

Increased stabilization of microclimate in urban areas

93.

If a country has a crude birth rate of 24 per 1,000 and a crude death rate of 8 per 1,000, the natural annual percent increase of its population is

a)

0.6%

b)

1.6%

c)

3%

d)

16%

e)

32%

94.

The total fertility rate in country A was 6.8 in 1980. Which of the following statements best supports the change in the total fertility rate in country A between 1980 and 2015?

a)

The total fertility rate increased as a result of improved health care and better nutrition.

b)

The total fertility rate remained constant even though there was improved access to clean water.

c)

The total fertility rate decreased as a result of a delay in age of first marriage and increased contraceptive use.

d)

The total fertility rate decreased as a result of increased infant mortality rate.

95.

Members of an r-selected species characteristically

a)

grow slowly

b)

produce few offspring

c)

reach sexual maturity quickly

d)

have long life spans

e)

are very protective of their offspring

96.

Which of the following characteristics in the table best supports the claim that:

Country A is a more developed country and that Country

B is a less developed country?

a)

population size

b)

land area

c)

infant mortality rate

d)

net migration rate

97.

The crude growth rate, r , of a population is calculated by

a)

multiplying the existing population size by life expectancy

b)

dividing the crude birth rate by 2

c)

dividing the doubling time by 70

d)

adding the crude birth rate to the crude death rate

e)

subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate

98.

Cycads are gymnosperms that were diverse and abundant during the Mesozoic era. Extant species of cycads share many traits with those from the Mesozoic era. Cycads bear cones, are long-lived with slow growth rates, show late reproductive maturity, and have very few offspring. Based on this description, the cycads are

a)

K-strategists with a Type I survivorship curve.

b)

r-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

c)

K-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

d)

r-strategists with a Type II survivorship curve.

99.

In a certain country, the birth rate is high, the death rate is high, and there are many children that are part of the workforce. The country is most likely in which of the following stages of the demographic transition?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

100.

During which stage of the demographic transition shown above does a population begin to experience an explosive increase in growth?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

e)

After Stage 4

101.

In a human population undergoing the demographic transition, which of the following generally decreases first?

a)

Birth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

Average family size

d)

Life expectancy

e)

Level of education

102.

If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5 percent per year, the number of years required for the population to double is closest to

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

25 years

e)

35 years

103.

Factors that affect the total fertility rate of a human population include which of the following?

I. Cultural traditions

II. Government policies and economic incentives

III. Education level and economic opportunities for females

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

II and III

e)

I, II and III

104.

Tracks organisms that tend to live long lives (low death rate and high survivorship rate); toward the end of their life expectancies, however, there is a dramatic increase in the death rate.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

105.

Describes organisms with a high death rate (or low survivorship rate) immediately following birth. Examples include bacteria, fishes, and invertebrates.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

106.

These organisms have short life spans, are generally small, quick to mature and waste a lot of energy. Typical examples include salmon, corals, insects and bacteria.

a)

K-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

107.

These organisms typically live in unstable, unpredictable environments & are able to reproduce rapidly (exponentially). They do not take care of their young & are subject to predation.

a)

K-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

108.
The Coriolis effect is responsible for
a)
the convergence of two ascending Hadley cells
b)
the location of atmospheric currents caused by the unequal heating of Earth
c)
the cooling effect of air as it rises and expands
d)
the deflection of atmospheric currents
109.
Which is the correct order of the convection cells starting from the equator?
a)
polar, ferrell, hadley
b)
ferrell, hadley, polar
c)
polar, hadley, ferrell
d)
hadley, ferrell, polar
110.

The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Transform Boundary

d)

Plate Boundary

111.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

112.

A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....

a)

Pull apart

b)

Come together

c)

Slide past each other

d)

subducting

113.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
114.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
mud
d)
dirt
115.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
116.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
117.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

118.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
119.
You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil mostly made of?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
120.

Observe this diagram of a plate boundary. One statement BEST describes what is happening. It is that

a)

the oceanic crust is melting.

b)

the denser ceanic crust is subducting under the less dense oceanic crust

c)

volcanic islands are forming.

d)

the tectonic plates are moving away from each other.

121.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
122.
What is "upwelling"?
a)
when wind near a shore pushes surface water away, nutrient rich cold water rises from the depths
b)
water rises from springs at the bottom of lakes
c)
it is when cold water sinks in the Norwegian Sea
d)
It is when the Coriolis effect makes currents go around in a circle
123.
This is the side of the mountain that is often drier and warmer.
a)
Leeward Side
b)
Wet Lapse Rate
c)
Windward Side
d)
Wild Side
124.

What are the proportions of sand, silt, and clay for the soil at point X ?

a)

5% Sand, 95% Silt, 5% Clay

b)

5% Sand, 20% Silt, 5% Clay

c)

65% Sand, 30% Silt, 10% Clay

d)

60% Sand, 30% Silt, 10% Clay

125.

What is the correct sequence of layers of the earth's atmosphere from earth's surface to space?

a)

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

b)

mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere.

c)

troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere.

d)

stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

126.

Which two factors allow earth to experience four distinct seasons?

a)

latitude & solar intensity

b)

tilt of axis & rotation of axis

c)

tilt of axis & rotation around sun

d)

distance from sun & place in orbit around sun

127.

Which is a direct result of the Coriolis Effect?

a)

Upwellings

b)

tides

c)

ocean conveyor belt

d)

Tsunami

e)

Ocean gyres

128.
Which of the following can be described as a market-based system intended to help control access to fisheries?
a)
Cap and trade
b)
total allowable catch system
c)
co-management systems
d)
individual transfer rights system
129.
The geological layer, consisting of underground caverns and porous layers of sand, gravel, or bedrock, where groundwater flows, is called
a)
The zone of saturation
b)
Recharge point
c)
Aquifer
d)
bedrock
130.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
131.
Reverse osmosis is a process in which:
a)
Cells release water into the surrounding fluids.
b)
salt water is forced through a membrane to remove particulates. 
c)
solid wastes are removed from septic systems.
d)
storm water runoff is diverted into natural water sources.
132.
The Mississippi River carries agricultural runoff to the Gulf of Mexico.  What phenomenon results?
a)
a dead zone
b)
regular flooding of the Mississippi delta
c)
return of mining refuse water
d)
Gold tides
133.
What percentage of expensive bottled water is actually bottled tap water?
a)
10%
b)
30%
c)
40%
d)
56.72468%
134.
Which of the following is NOT one of the primary sources of groundwater contamination?
a)
Industry
b)
Agriculture
c)
Mining
d)
Lawn fertilizers
135.
Which of the following could be described as "non-point source" pollution?
a)
A farmer dumps her waste into a stream that runs through her property.
b)
A mining impoundment pond overflows.
c)
Over 100,000 acres of continuos farmland has water with excess levels of nitrates.
d)
Waste water from a nuclear plant spills into a nearby waterway.
136.
The Great Lakes are threatened.  Which of the following is a success story from the 2007 State of the Great Lakes Report?
a)
Native carnivorous fish numbers are increasing.
b)
Wetlands are being restored.
c)
Native species at the base of the food chain are increasing in size.
d)
Dissolved oxygen levels have improved.
137.
Streams and Rivers can cleanse themselves, why can't groundwater?
a)
It moves too quickly.
b)
It doesn't move quickly enough.
c)
It is too close to the surface to be adequately purified.
d)
It is too deep in the ground to be adequately purified.
138.
Lake Washington was restored due to:
a)
The Clean Water Act
b)
The Safe Drinking Water Act
c)
Citizen pressure
d)
The Superfund Act
139.
Coliforms are good indicator of:
a)
water quality
b)
invasive species
c)
parasites
d)
air quality
140.
Of the following organisms, the group that is least likely to cause disease is:
a)
Bacteria
b)
Protzoa
c)
Algae
d)
Parasitic worms
141.
[BLANK] is the branch of ecology which studies ways to encourage biodiversity in human-dominated ecosystems.
a)
Biomimicry
b)
Reconciliation ecology
c)
Restorative ecology
d)
Preventative Ecology
142.

Where do the majority of earthquakes and volcanoes occur?

a)

on oceanic islands

b)

in the middle of a continent

c)

along the border of continents

d)

in the middle if the ocean

143.

Which of the following is not a type of boundary between tectonic plates?

a)

transform

b)

divergent

c)

convergent

d)

mantle

144.

Tectonic plates that slide past each other are called

a)

divergent

b)

subvergent

c)

convergent

d)

transform

145.

The zones that comprise various layers of soil are called

a)

profiles

b)

layers

c)

horizons

d)

strata

146.

Which of the following are the different particle sizes that determine soil texture?

a)

loam, mud, sand

b)

clay, sand, loam

c)

silt, loam, clay

d)

clay, silt, sand

147.

Which type of soil holds the least water?

a)

silt

b)

sand

c)

loam

d)

clay

148.

New technology and farming methods began as a result of the _____________ revolution

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

yellow

d)

green

149.

The practice of planting a nitrogen-using plant with a nitrogen-fixing plant is called

a)

intercropping

b)

contour farming

c)

agroforestry

d)

monoculture

150.

Over use of farmland can cause a depletion in soil nutrients and can lead to

a)

waterlogging

b)

desertification

c)

irrigation

d)

intercropping

151.

When roots become saturated with water due to over-irrigation, it causes death in plant roots. This is called:

a)

salinization

b)

desertification

c)

agroforestry

d)

waterlogging

152.

When irrigation water evaporates, salts are left behind on the soil surface and can cause plant death or lead to

a)

soil salinization

b)

desertification

c)

waterlogging

d)

monocropping

153.

One of the advantages to using genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is

a)

reduce the need for pesticides

b)

they are not regulated by the government

c)

the concern about safety to consume

d)

they can cause food allergies

154.

Which of the following would be an environmental impact of high density animal farming?

a)

bad smells

b)

livestock can escape

c)

water pollution due to runoff

d)

improvement of feeding efficiency

155.

Because global fisheries have dramatically seen a reduction in fish numbers, this technique has been used recently to supplement that loss.

a)

monocropping

b)

IPM

c)

contour farming

d)

aquaculture

156.

An economics problem in which every individual has an incentive to consume a resource, but at the expense of every other individual.

(a)  

157.

A large increase in crop production in developing countries achieved by the use of fertilizers, pesticides, and high-yield crop varieties.

(a)  

158.

An organism whose DNA has been modified in the laboratory in order to favor the expression of desired physiological traits or the production of desired biological products.

(a)  

159.

A method of cultivation in which forests are burned and cleared for planting

(a)  

160.

A system of crop irrigation involving the controlled delivery of water directly to individual plants through a network of tubes or pipes.

(a)  

161.

A method of irrigation where farmers flow water down small trenches running through their crops.

(a)  

162.

This method of irrigation is conducted by creating small parallel channels along the field length in the direction of predominant slope.

(a)  

163.

This is a method of applying water to a controlled manner in that is similar to rainfall. The water is distributed through a network that may consist of pumps, valves, pipes, and sprinklers.

(a)  

164.

The process by which water-soluble salts accumulate in soil.

(a)  

165.

The single most important source of water in the High Plains region, providing nearly all the water for residential, industrial, and agricultural use.

(a)  

166.

A specific type of large-scale industrial agricultural facility that raises animals, usually at. high-density, for the consumption of meat, eggs, or milk

(a)  

167.

A naturally occurring solid material from which a metal or valuable mineral can be profitably extracted.

(a)  

168.

A method of extracting minerals near the surface of the Earth

(a)  

169.

The process or industry of obtaining ore or coal by open-pit mining.

(a)  

170.

The amount of biologically productive land and sea area an individual, a region, or a human activity that compete for biologically productive space.

(a)  

171.

The extraction level of a resource which does not exceed its growth

(a)  

172.

An effective and environmentally sensitive approach to pest management that relies on a combination of common-sense practices

(a)  

173.

Crops that don't need to be replanted each year. After harvest, they automatically grow back.

(a)  

174.

Cultivation in which different crops are sown in alternate strips to prevent soil erosion

(a)  

175.

Making or forming land into a number of level flat areas resembling a series of steps

(a)  

176.

Arable land on which no tillage is applied between harvest and sowing

(a)  

177.

The rearing of aquatic animals or the cultivation of aquatic plants for food.

(a)  

178.

What percent of energy consumption is made of renewable energy?

a)

92%

b)

50%

c)

20%

d)

8%

179.

Which type of renewable energy is pictured?

a)

photovoltaic cells

b)

parabolic solar collection

c)

hydroelectric

d)

geothermal

180.

Which of the following is not a drawback of solar energy?

a)

sunlight does not have energy

b)

cost

c)

sun is not always out

d)

solar energy is diffuse and hard to collect

181.

Which of the following is a drawback to wind energy? (Select all that apply)

a)

migration of birds being interrupted

b)

noise

c)

disrupts the landscape

d)

not available in all locations

182.

What is a drawback to hydroelectric power?

a)

fish being isolated on one side of the dam

b)

water in the reservoir becomes warm

c)

increases the dissolved oxygen

d)

increases the rate of nutrient flow downstream

183.

Which location would be best for solar energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

184.

Which location would be best for geothermal energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

185.

Which location would be best for wind energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

186.

Which renewable energy does not require spinning a turbine?

a)

hydroelectric

b)

wind

c)

tidal

d)

photovoltaic cells

187.

A home is built with clear glass panels that allow sunlight to pass through. This is an example of

a)

Active solar

b)

Passive solar

c)

Parabolic collector

d)

Photovoltaic Cells

188.

What is given off as waste in a hydrogen fueled car?

a)

H2

b)

O2

c)

H2O2

d)

H2O

189.

A home is fitted with pumps that pipe water to the roof of the home to be heated by the sun. This is an example of

a)

passive solar

b)

active solar

c)

parabolic collector

d)

photovoltaic cell

190.

Which of the following is not a biofuel or a biomass?

a)

wood

b)

ethanol from corn

c)

dung

d)

methane

191.

Fuel cells that use a chemical reaction to generate electricity are using

a)

hydrogen gas

b)

methane gas

c)

water

d)

oil

192.

What is a drawback of using ethanol as a fuel alternative to gasoline?

a)

it is produced from a food item

b)

produces more pollution than gas

c)

nonrenewable and comes from the ground

d)

burns worse than gasoline

193.

If a tractor trailer truck is 20% efficient, what happened to the other 80%

a)

energy is destroyed

b)

energy is lost as heat

c)

the 80% is still in the gas tank

d)

energy is converted into matter

194.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Ideal for mobile combustion engines

· Quick ignition/ turn-off capability

· Cleaner-burning than coal

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

195.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Energy-dense and abundant—will last up to 200 years

· No refining needed

· Easy, safe to transport

· Economic backbone of many small towns

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

196.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Cogeneration power plants can have efficiencies up to 60%

· Efficient for cooking, heating, etc.

· Fewer impurities than coal or oil

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

197.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Emits no CO2

· Offers independence from imported oil

· High energy density, ample supply

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

198.

The following are disadvantages of which type of energy?


· Significant refining required

· Potential for spills on wildlife habitats

· Significant dust and emissions during construction of rigs and refineries

· Human rights/ environmental justice issues in developing countries that export

Will decrease in availability greatly within 40 years

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

199.

The following are disadvantages of which type of energy?


· Mining alters landscapes and endangers humans

· Plants are slow to reach full operating capacity

· Large contributor to acid rain

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

200.

The following are disadvantages of which type of energy?


· Risk of leaks/explosions

· 25x more effective as a greenhouse (warming) gas than CO2

· Low availability because pipelines are needed

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

201.

The following are disadvantages of which type of energy?


· Unpopular, generates protests

· Plants are $$$ to build because of legal challenges

· Potential for catastrophic meltdowns and accidents

· Possible terrorist targets

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

202.

The following are pollutant and greenhouse gas emissions of which type of energy?


· Second highest emitter of CO2

· Hydrocarbons

· Hydrogen sulfide

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

203.

The following are pollutant and greenhouse gas emissions of which type of energy?


· Highest emitter of CO2

· Sulfur

· Trace amounts of toxic metals such as mercury

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

204.

The following are pollutant and greenhouse gas emissions of which type of energy?


· Methane (CH4)

· Hydrocarbons

· Hydrogen sulfide

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

205.

The following are pollutant and greenhouse gas emissions of which type of energy?


· Radioactive waste

· Emissions from uranium mining

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

206.

Which fuel contains the most SULFUR?

a)

wood

b)

oil

c)

natural gas

d)

coal

207.

Type of fuel source that causes DEFORESTATION

a)

Solar energy

b)

Nuclear fission

c)

Geothermal

d)

Biomass

208.

Which of the following 2 use PASSIVE solar energy?

a)

south-facing room with windows

b)

solar oven

c)

solar panels

d)

photovoltaic cells

209.

Differences in __________ SEPARATE the various components of crude OIL.

a)

viscosity

b)

sulfur

c)

solubility

d)

boiling points

210.

What is the half-life of Iodine 131?

a)

32 days

b)

24 days

c)

16 days

d)

8 days

211.

What is the description of a fuel cell car?

a)

uses waste oil from food industry into ethanol

b)

uses methane to heat water and steam turns the turbine

c)

uses hydrogen to generate electricity that runs the motor

d)

runs off of internal combustion and a battery

212.
Which of the following DOES NOT use a turbine?
a)
Hydroelectric
b)
Wind
c)
Solar
d)
Nuclear
213.
The poster shown below advertises tours of a power plant.
This power plant produces electricity most likely by using-
a)
fossil fuels
b)
biofuels
c)
solar energy
d)
geothermal energy
214.
All of the following renewable resources are derived from the sun in some way EXCEPT
a)
biomass
b)
wind
c)
hydroelectric
d)
geothermal
215.
Put the items below in correct sequence for the generation of electricity using the wind
1 – generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
2 – wind turns the wind turbine blade
3 – the gear box transfers mechanical energy to the generator
4 – electricity is transferred to the grid
a)
1-2-3-4
b)
2-1-3-4
c)
2-3-1-4
d)
2-4-3-1
216.
Most of the developing countries in the world depend on _______ for their main source of energy.
a)
renewable sources
b)
nuclear
c)
biomass (including wood, manure, etc)
d)
coal
217.
Passive solar design includes all of the following except
a)
large windows on the south side of the house
b)
floor and walls that will store heat in the winter
c)
overhang that blocks the sun in the summer, but allows it inside in the winter
d)
trees that block the sun for the entire year
218.
The most commonly used approach to solar energy collection is ________, in which buildings are designed and building materials chosen to maximize their direct absorption of sunlight in winter, even as they keep the interior cool in the heat of summer.
a)
Active
b)
Passive
219.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of solar energy?
a)
It can only be used effectively in certain regions and certain times of day
b)
It produces greenhouse gases during use
c)
It is a nonrenewable energy source
d)
It is inexpensive compared to other sources
220.

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a renewable energy source?

a)

wind

b)

solar

c)

nuclear

d)

biomass

221.

Based on the diagram, which processes would provide the energy used to generate electricity at the power plant?

a)

absorption of incoming solar radiation

b)

fusion of atomic nuclei to form heavier atomic nuclei

c)

fission in radioactive fuel

d)

combustion of fossil fuels

222.

Which of the following is the most valuable type of coal?

a)

peat

b)

bituminous

c)

anthracite

d)

lignite

223.

All of the following are sites are where nuclear accidents have occurred EXCEPT

a)

Three Mile Island

b)

Chernobyl

c)

Fukushima

d)

Bhopal

224.

Which location would be best for geothermal energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

225.

A home is fitted with pumps that pipe water to the roof of the home to be heated by the sun. This is an example of

a)

passive solar

b)

active solar

c)

parabolic collector

d)

photovoltaic cell

226.

Which fuel contains the most SULFUR?

a)

wood

b)

oil

c)

natural gas

d)

coal

227.

Type of fuel source that causes DEFORESTATION

a)

Solar energy

b)

Nuclear fission

c)

Geothermal

d)

Biomass

228.

Which of the following 2 use PASSIVE solar energy?

a)

south-facing room with windows

b)

solar oven

c)

solar panels

d)

photovoltaic cells

229.

Select the 2 main sources of RENEWABLE energy in the US

a)

wind energy

b)

solar energy

c)

hydroelectric energy

d)

geothermal energy

e)

biomass energy

230.

Fuel with the GREATEST net-energy potential

a)

petroleum

b)

nuclear energy

c)

natural gas

d)

coal

231.

Differences in __________ SEPARATE the various components of crude OIL.

a)

viscosity

b)

sulfur

c)

solubility

d)

boiling points

232.

Source of energy that causes noise pollution and increase death in birds

a)

wind energy

b)

solar energy

c)

geothermal energy

d)

biomass energy

233.

How long are global oil reserves expected to last?

a)

1,500 years

b)

150 years

c)

75 years

d)

50 years

234.

What is used to generate solar energy on a commercial scale?

a)

photovoltaic cells

b)

passive solar system

c)

large mirrors to concentrate sunlight

d)

flat-panel solar collector system

235.

What is the half-life of Iodine 131?

a)

32 days

b)

24 days

c)

16 days

d)

8 days

236.

What is the description of a fuel cell car?

a)

uses waste oil from food industry into ethanol

b)

uses methane to heat water and steam turns the turbine

c)

uses hydrogen to generate electricity that runs the motor

d)

runs off of internal combustion and a battery

237.
Which is NOT an example of biomass?
a)
wood
b)
crop leftovers (the part of the plant that isn't consumed)
c)
manure and/or trash
d)
petroleum
238.
How does biomass reduce our carbon footprint by producing less CO2 than fossil fuels?
a)
Plants absorb the same amount of CO2 that is released when it is burned.
b)
Plants remove CO2 from the atmosphere and put it permanently into the ground.
c)
Biomass filters CO2 to make it more environmentally stable.
d)
Biomass doesn't release any CO2 when burned.
239.
Which of the following energy sources has the lowest negative environmental impacts?
a)
Biomass
b)
Nuclear
c)
Natural Gas
d)
Solar
240.
Which of the following DOES NOT use a turbine?
a)
Hydroelectric
b)
Wind
c)
Solar
d)
Nuclear
241.
The poster shown below advertises tours of a power plant.
This power plant produces electricity most likely by using-
a)
fossil fuels
b)
biofuels
c)
solar energy
d)
geothermal energy
242.
What is a possible downside to hydroelectric energy?
a)
generates high levels of pollution 
b)
high startup cost
c)
low functional lifespan
d)
high operation and maintenance cost 
243.
Put the items below in correct sequence for the generation of electricity using the wind
1 – generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
2 – wind turns the wind turbine blade
3 – the gear box transfers mechanical energy to the generator
4 – electricity is transferred to the grid
a)
1-2-3-4
b)
2-1-3-4
c)
2-3-1-4
d)
2-4-3-1
244.
Most of the developing countries in the world depend on _______ for their main source of energy.
a)
renewable sources
b)
nuclear
c)
biomass (including wood, manure, etc)
d)
coal
245.
According to the second law of thermodynamics, whenever one form of energy is transformed into another,
a)
all of the energy is put to work
b)
all of the energy is converted into a less usable form, like heat
c)
some of the energy is converted to a less usable form, like heat
d)
50% of the energy is put to work, the rest is lost as heat
246.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of solar energy?
a)
It can only be used effectively in certain regions and certain times of day
b)
It produces greenhouse gases during use
c)
It is a nonrenewable energy source
d)
It is inexpensive compared to other sources
247.
Due to energy being lost during production, transportation, etc. Coal-burning power plants are only about ____% efficient.
a)
50
b)
1
c)
35
d)
99
248.
The world gets MOST of their energy through all of the following sources EXCEPT
a)
natural gas
b)
coal
c)
hydroelectric
d)
oil
249.
Nuclear energy generates ________ waste instead of _____________.
a)
radioactive, air pollutants
b)
air pollutants, ash
c)
CO2, uranium ore
d)
radioactive, uranium ore
250.
If Canada has a population of 35 million people and the annual consumption of petroleum in Canada is 12 barrels per capita, the total annual consumption is closest to 
a)
420 million
b)
420 billion
c)
5.4 billion
d)
540 million
251.
which of these FOSSIL FUELS burns the cleanest?
a)
coal
b)
natural gas
c)
motor oil
d)
petroleum
252.
All of the following would increase global greenhouse gas emissions EXCEPT
a)
increasing the number of cars
b)
use natural gas instead of hydroelectric 
c)
replace coal power plants with solar energy
d)
reduce the number of nuclear power plants
253.
Which two things increase the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere ?
a)
burning fossil fuels and using renewable energy sources
b)
burning fossil fuels and deforestation
c)
deforestation and shifting to renewable energy
d)
mining and the production of PV solar panels
254.
in most power plants what is the heat energy used for?
a)
to create steam which turns turbines
b)
to directly power the generator
c)
the heat is transmitted through the electrical grid into homes
d)
nuclear fission which then creates a chain reaction
255.
which fossil fuel energy source does the world (and US) have the largest supply of?
a)
natural gas
b)
coal
c)
petroleum
d)
crude oil
256.
The major downside to hydraulic fracturing (fracking) is that
a)
the empty spaces left behind can result in earthquakes or buildings collapsing
b)
the equipment that is used is very cheap and often falls apart after a single use
c)
the fracking chemicals could get into aquifers and groundwater
d)
all of these 
257.
Why don't we use vegetable oils or other biofuels for our transportation needs
a)
would require too much land to produce enough to meet demand
b)
the viscosity isn't appropriate for current engines
c)
they build up in engines long term and cause problems
d)
all of these
258.
problems associated with the use of trees for biomass include all of the following except
a)
potential soil eroision
b)
potential deforestation
c)
burning fossilized carbon and releasing it into the atmosphere
d)
the loss of habitat for wildlife and some people
259.

Which of the following energy sources is considered nonrenewable?

a)

petroleum

b)

solar

c)

geothermal

d)

tidal

e)

wind

260.
Coal burning produces more greenhouse gases per unit of energy than any other fuel
a)
True
b)
False
261.
These types of power plants are primarily responsible for acid deposition (including acid rain)
a)
natural gas
b)
petroleum
c)
coal
d)
nuclear
262.
What is a possible downside to hydroelectric energy?
a)
generates high levels of pollution 
b)
high startup cost
c)
low functional lifespan
d)
high operation and maintenance cost 

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