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Worksheets

Year 11 Economics Revision

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the most frequently occurring value(s) in a set of data

a)

mode

b)

median

c)

shape

d)

range

2.

a statistical measure of data, often the mean or median

a)

mode

b)

measure of central tendency

c)

interquartile range

d)

dot plot

3.

the difference between the highest and lowest values in a set of data

a)

median

b)

range

c)

mode

d)

shape

4.

What is the median of the Math test scores 35, 22, 36, 18, 25, 30, and 15?

a)

15

b)

18

c)

22

d)

25

5.

Julia got the following Final Grades in her 8 subjects: 92, 88, 90, 89, 93, 87, 90, and 91.

What is her General Average?

a)

87

b)

89

c)

90

d)

91

6.
What is the mode?
100, 101, 102, 100, 101, 102, 100, 101, 102, 100
a)
100
b)
102
c)
101
d)
103
7.
Roger bowled 7 games last weekend. His scores are: 155, 165, 138, 172, 127, 193, 142. What is the range of Roger's scores?
a)
193
b)
127
c)
60
d)
66
8.
To find the _________ you add up all the numbers and then divide by how many numbers you have.
a)
Mean
b)
Median
c)
Mode
d)
Range
9.
In the last 5 games, Kevin Durant scored 22, 22, 18, 12, and 21 points. What is Durant's Mean (Average) score per game?
a)
 19 points per game
b)
95 points per game
c)
18.6 points per game
d)
22 points per game
10.

Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a)

Range

b)

Mean Deviation

c)

Geometric Mean

d)

Standard Deviation

11.

Which measure is based on all observation?

a)

Mean Deviation

b)

Range

c)

Quartile Deviation

d)

None of the above

12.

In Calculating Standard Deviation, which of the Measure of central tendency is used

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Mode

d)

All the above can be used

13.

If the salary of 10 employees are identical i.e. $4000, then its mean deviation from Mean is

a)

4000

b)

0

c)

1

d)

None of these

14.

Definition of Marginal Utility

a)

the satisfaction from consumption

b)

to total satisfaction from consuming a product

c)

the extra satisfaction from the last unit consumed

d)

the extra consumption from last unit consumed

15.

The definition of the law of diminishing marginal utility

a)

As more units are consumed the marginal utility falls.

b)

As more units are consumed the marginal utility increases.

c)

As price decreases quantity demanded increases.

d)

As price increases consumers are willing to pay more.

16.

The total utility definition states:

a)

The usefulness, benefit or satisfaction a consumer gains from consuming a product.

b)

The satisfaction gained from consuming a quantity of an economic good, measured in utils.

c)

The added consumer satisfaction from consuming a quantity of a good.

d)

The consumer's satisfaction from consuming a quantity of a good.

17.

The relationship between demand and marginal utility is best explained as ...

a)

the marginal utility a person gets from consuming a good determines their demand for the good.

b)

the total utility a person gets from consuming a good determines their demand for the good.

c)

the marginal utility a person gets from consuming a good determines their market demand for the good.

d)

the total utility a person gets from consuming a good determines their market demand for the good.

18.

Total utility is the benefit received from consuming an extra unit of a good.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

If Ann gets 100 units of utility from reading a book and 500 units of utility from playing with her cat, What can we determine about Ann?

a)

She does not enjoy reading books.

b)

She does not enjoy playing with her cat.

c)

She prefers reading a book to playing with her cat.

d)

She prefers playing with her cat to reading a book.

20.

The first four dinner rolls Joan consumes have total utility of 15, 27, 37, and 45 respectively. What is the marginal utility of the 4th dinner roll?

a)

124 units of utility

b)

45 units of utility

c)

11.25 units of utility

d)

8 units of utility

21.

What best reflects the goal of a consumer?

a)

To acquire the largest possible quantity of goods.

b)

To acquire the largest possible variety of goods.

c)

To maximize utility.

d)

To save money.

22.

You made a good decision if:

a)

Marginal cost is greater then marginal benefit

b)

Marginal cost is less than marginal benefit

c)

Marginal benefit is greater then marginal cost

d)

Marginal benefit is less then marginal cost

23.

Total Utility will be greatest when marginal utility equals

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

24.

Consumer equilibrium occurs when ...

a)

they have spent all of their income.

b)

a person consumes quantities of three goods.

c)

a person consumes quantities of two goods.

d)

satisfaction is maximised for a given level of income.

25.

Harry Munkee loves eating bananas. His total utility for for 3 bananas is ?

a)

70

b)

71

c)

72

d)

73

26.

Harry's marginal utility for 2 bananas is ?

a)

23

b)

32

c)

25

d)

26

27.

Consumers will maximize satisfaction when;

a)

Marginal utility is equal to average utility

b)

The price of each good is exactly equal to the price of every other good consumed

c)

The price of each good is exactly equal to the total utility derived from the consumption of every other good

d)

The marginal utility of the last dollar spent on each good is exactly equal to the marginal utility of the last dollar spent on any other good

28.

The substitution effect explains that when the price of a good increases, consumers will consume;

a)

Less of the good because their real incomes are lower after the price increase

b)

More of the more expensive good and less of some other good

c)

Less of the more expensive good and more of some other good

d)

More of the good because their real incomes are lower after the price increase

29.

Which of the following best expresses the law of diminishing marginal utility?

a)

The less a person consumes of a product, the smaller becomes the total utility that he receives from its consumption

b)

The more a person consumes of a product the smaller becomes the total utility that he receives from its consumption

c)

The more a person consumes of a product, the smaller becomes the additional utility that he receives from consuming each additional unit

d)

The less a person consumes of a product, the smaller becomes the additional utility that he receives from consuming each additional unit

30.

Marginal utility refers to;

a)

The additional utility that a consumer derives from consuming one additional unit of a good

b)

The additional product produced as the firm ads one additional unit of an input

c)

The amount of utility divided by the number of units produced

d)

All of the above

31.

Which of the following is true if consuming one unit of good yields 100 utils and consuming the second unit of the good increase satisfaction by 20 utils?

a)

The total utility of consuming two units us 120

b)

The marginal utility if the second unit is 120

c)

The marginal utility of the first unit is 20

d)

The marginal utility of the second unit is 80

32.

Suppose the price of burgers increases from $2 to $3 each. The degree to which the quantity demanded responds to this price increase depends on the

a)

price elasticity of demand.

b)

price elasticity of supply.

c)

income elasticity of demand.

d)

cross elasticity of demand.

33.

The price elasticity of demand is calculated as the absolute value of the

a)

percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price.

b)

percentage change in price divided by the percentage change in quantity demanded.

c)

change in quantity demanded divided by the change in price.

d)

change in price divided by the change in quantity demanded.

34.

The price elasticity of demand can range between

a)

0 to 1

b)

negative infinity and infinity.

c)

zero and infinity.

d)

negative one and one.

35.

If the quantity demanded changes by a relatively small amount for a given change in price, then demand is

a)

perfectly inelastic.

b)

perfectly elastic.

c)

elastic.

d)

inelastic.

36.

A good with a vertical demand curve has a price elasticity of demand that ________ .

a)

is equal to 1

b)

is equal to infinite

c)

is equal to zero

d)

varies between 0 and 1

37.

Demand is price elastic if a

a)

relatively large price increase leads to a relatively small decrease in the quantity demanded.

b)

relatively small price increase leads to a relatively large decrease in the quantity demanded.

c)

price increase leads to a decrease in the quantity demanded.

d)

price increase leads to an increase in the quantity demanded.

38.

The price elasticity of demand when the price of a popsicle increase from $0.30 to $0.50 and the quantity decrease from 25 to 15 is ________.

a)

0

b)

1

c)

0.5

d)

2

39.

The elasticity of supply does NOT depend on

a)

resource substitution possibilities.

b)

the fraction of income spent on the product.

c)

the time elapsed since the price change.

d)

none of the above because all of the factors listed affect the elasticity of supply.

40.

When demand is ________, a decrease in price ________ total revenue.

a)

elastic; decreases

b)

inelastic; decreases

c)

unit elastic; increases

d)

elastic; does not change

41.

movement along the demand curve showing that a different quantity is purchased in response to a change in price

a)

Change in quantity demanded

b)

Change in demand

c)

Change in market equilibrium

d)

Change in supply

42.

We are looking at a shift of the demand curve, either to the left or the the right. (PINET).

a)

Change in quantity demanded

b)

Change in demand

c)

Change in market equilibrium

d)

Change in supply

43.

Which one is not a "change of demand":

a)

Tastes and Prefereces

b)

Prices of related goods

c)

Productivity/Technology

d)

Numbers of Consumers

44.

Mrs. Winch goes to the store, and realizes Colgate is cheaper than Aqua-fresh...she purchases Colgate. This is an example of:

a)

Expectations for the Future

b)

Numbers of Consumers

c)

Prices of Related Goods

d)

Consumer's Income

45.

Rachel just got a raise! she can now buy more pizza on the weekend.

a)

Price of Related Goods

b)

Expectations for the Future

c)

Tastes and Prefereces

d)

Consumer's Income

46.

Low rise jeans are out of style, causing the demand for those jeans to decrease.

a)

Prices of Related goods

b)

Income Effect

c)

Tastes and Prefereces

d)

Expectations for the Future.

47.

What is the ONLY factor that change QD? (quantity demanded)

a)

price

b)

supply

c)

wages

48.

When we SHIFT the entire demand curve, we draw a NEW LINE parallel to the original one.

a)

True

b)

False

49.
The diagram represents a
a)
increase in demand
b)
decrease in demand
c)
change in quantity demand
d)
none of the above
50.
A reduction in the overall population of an area will likely cause a demand curve to shift
a)
left
b)
right
c)
 up
d)
not at all
51.
A new study has shown that avocados are extremely healthy. The demand for avocados has increased due to a change in
a)
market size
b)
price of a substitute good
c)
price of a complementary good
d)
tastes and preferences 
52.
If the price of Frozen Yogurt increased then the demand for ice cream will 
a)
increase
b)
decrease
53.
An decrease in demand for iPhones in Hong Kong could be caused by a(n)
a)
increase in price for Samsung Galaxy
b)
increase in population in HK
c)
the price for iPhones is expected to increase next week
d)
the price of iPhone apps increased
54.
Consider the market for SUVs. If the price of gasoline increases then the Demand for these vehicles will
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
not be affected
55.
A recent scandal reveals over 1 million fake Chanel hand bags have been discovered. There is in an increase in demand in Louis Vuitton hand bags because
a)
price of a complement
b)
price of a substitute
c)
tastes and preferences
d)
income
56.
The price of the IPhone 7 is expected to decrease in a month. Today the demand for the IPhone 7 will ____.
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
remain unchanged
57.
What factor could have caused the demand to decrease?
a)
incomes increased
b)
expectation that prices will increase 
c)
a decrease in the price of a substitute 
d)
increase in market size
58.
Goods that are bought and used together are 
a)
complementary goods
b)
substitute goods
c)
income goods
d)
unrelated goods
59.
Consumers demand less of this type of good when their income rises.
a)
Normal good
b)
Inferior good
c)
Elastic good
d)
Related good
60.
Consumers demand more of this type of good when their income rises.
a)
Normal good
b)
Inferior good
c)
Elastic good
d)
Substitution good
61.
The following is a factor that will not cause the demand curve to shift:
a)
Advertising
b)
Population
c)
Price
d)
Consumer expectations
62.

What kind of relationship exist between price and quantity demanded?

a)

Inverse

b)

Positive

c)

Propotionate

d)

None of these

63.

Expansion and contraction in demand is caused by

a)

Change in income of the buyer

b)

Change in price of the commodity

c)

Change in price of related goods

d)

Change in taste of the buyer

64.

With an increase in the price of petrol, demand curve of cars

a)

Shifts rightward

b)

Moves upward

c)

Shifts leftward

d)

Moves downward

65.

A movement along the demand curve is due to

a)

Increase in demand

b)

Decrease in demand

c)

Change in price

d)

Change in income

66.

With an increase in income of the consumer the demand of normal goods

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Demain same

d)

None of these

67.

If the price of goods x rises and the demand for goods y decreases then the two goods are called

a)

Substitute goods

b)

Complementary goods

c)

Normal goods

d)

Inferior goods

68.

Inferior goods are those whose income effect is

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Zero

d)

None of these

69.

Cell phone and cell services are

a)

Complementary goods

b)

Substitute goods

c)

Unrelated good

d)

None of these

70.

Define Income Elasticity of Demand

a)

YED measures the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded for a good to a change in consumer's income, ceteris paribus

b)

YED measures the degree of responsiveness of demand for a good to a change in consumer's income, ceteris paribus

c)

YED measures the degree of responsiveness of consumer's income to a change in quantity demanded for a good, ceteris paribus

d)

YED measures the degree of responsiveness of consumer's income to a change in demand for a good, ceteris paribus

71.

Consumers demand less of this type of goods when their income increases.

a)

Low grade rice

b)

salt

c)

bungalore

d)

furniture

72.
Consumers demand more of this type of good when their income rises.
a)
Normal good
b)
Inferior good
c)
Elastic good
d)
Substitution good
73.

If the income elasticity of market demand is negative, most consumers view the good as:

a)

a luxury good

b)

having many imperfect substitutes.

c)

an inferior good.

d)

a normal good.

74.

Which one is the correct formula for Income Elasticity of demand?

a)

Percentage change in income / Percentage change in quantity demand for a good

b)

Percentage change in quantity demand for a good / Percentage change in income

c)

Percentage change in supplied for a good / Percentage change in income

d)

Percentage change in quantity demand for a good / Percentage change in its price

75.

This car are referring to

a)

Normal Goods

b)

Inferior Goods

c)

Luxury Goods

d)

Compulsary Goods

76.

YED = 0 is referring to

a)

Normal Goods

b)

Inferior Goods

c)

Luxury Goods

d)

Necessity Goods

77.

When YED value is positive and the value is 0.5

a)

Normal Good

b)

Inferior Good

c)

Luxury Good

d)

Necessity Goods

78.

Income elasticity is can be measured by

a)

comparing the percentage change in demanded with the percentage change in income

b)

comparing the percentage change in quantity demanded with the percentage change in price

c)

comparing the percentage change in quantity demanded with the percentage change in income

d)

comparing the percentage change in quantity supply with the percentage change in income

79.

The cross elasticity of demand for substitutes will always be negative because the when the price of product A increases the quantity demanded of product B also increases

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

80.

If the cross elasticity of demand for product A is zero then product A and Product B are complements

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

81.

If the cross-price elasticity between two commodities is 1.5,

a)

the two goods are luxury goods.

b)

the two goods are complements.

c)

the two goods are substitutes.

d)

the two goods are normal goods.

82.

Why does demand generally become more elastic over time?

a)

People don't change their shopping behavior over time.

b)

Few substitutes become available.

c)

People buy more products over time.

d)

People have time to find substitutes and change behaviors.

83.

If two goods have negative price cross‑elasticities of demand, the goods are:

a)

inferior goods.

b)

luxury goods.

c)

complementary goods:

d)

substitute goods.

84.

What is the relationship between two good if Ex = -2

a)

Substitutes

b)

No relationship

c)

Complements

85.

Complementary goods have:

a)

the same elasticities of demand.

b)

very low price elasticities of demand.

c)

negative cross price elasticities of demand with respect to each other.

d)

positive cross elasticities of demand.with respect to each other

86.

Companies utilize cross-elasticity of demand for all the following EXCEPT:

a)

Expand more branches of their business

b)

Establish what price they should sell their goods for

c)

Ascertain which goods are complements for their products

d)

Ascertain which goods are substitutes for their products

87.
An effective price floor must be set above equilibrium, resulting in:
a)
a shortage
b)
a surplus
c)
limited choices
d)
None of the above
88.
If the government set the price at $700, would that be a price ceiling or floor?
a)
Price Ceiling
b)
Price Floor 
c)
Neither
89.

When a price ceiling is imposed in a market:

a)

A surplus results

b)

Sellers of the product are made better off

c)

A shortage results

d)

Quantity supplied is greater than the quantity demanded

90.

At the price, neither a surplus or a shortage exists

a)

equilibrium

b)

consumer surplus

c)

producer's surplus

d)

dead weight

91.

A _______________ is a maximum price sellers are allowed to charge for a good. It's an upper limit for the price.

a)

equilibrium

b)

shortage

c)

surplus

d)

price ceiling

92.

This is the minimum price buyers are required to pay for a good. It's a lower limit for the price.

a)

equilibrium

b)

shortage

c)

price floor

d)

price ceiling

93.

A price ceiling will result in a

a)

shortage

b)

surplus

c)

equilibrium price

d)

equilibrium quantity

94.

A price floor will result in a

a)

shortage

b)

surplus

c)

equilibrium price

d)

equilibrium quantity

95.
What does this curve represent?
a)
demand
b)
supply
c)
equilibrium
d)
shortage
96.
If the government removes a tax on a good, then the price paid by buyers will
a)
increase, and the price received by sellers will increase.
b)
increase, and the price received by sellers will decrease.
c)
decrease, and the price received by sellers will increase.
d)
decrease, and the price received by sellers will decrease.
97.
A tax imposed on the sellers of a good will
a)
raise both the price buyers pay and the effective price sellers receive.
b)
raise the price buyers pay and lower the effective price sellers receive.
c)
lower the price buyers pay and raise the effective price sellers receive.
d)
lower both the price buyers pay and the effective price sellers receive.
98.

Price elasticity of supply is the responsiveness of

a)

demand to a change in price.

b)

price to a change in supply.

c)

quantity supplied to a change in price.

d)

price to a change in supply.

99.

If the supply curve of a product is vertical, PES is equal to

a)

0.

b)

1.

c)

-1.

d)

infinity.

100.

If storage of a good is cheap and readily available, supply is likely to be

a)

relatively elastic.

b)

relatively inelastic.

c)

perfectly inelastic.

d)

perfectly elastic.