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Hon. Phys. Science Midterm

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a statement that summarizes a pattern found in nature?

a)

hypothesis

b)

a fact

c)

scientific theory

d)

scientific law

2.

Why are scientifc models important?

a)

help visulize things that are very complex, very large, or very small

b)

prove scientifc theroy

c)

never change

d)

they make it harder to understand things

3.

Timers at a swim meet used four different clocks to time an event. Which recorded time is the most precise?

a)

55.2s

b)

55.25s

c)

55s

d)

55.254s

4.

Approximately how many kelvins are equal to 37C

a)

-236K

b)

410K

c)

310K

d)

276K

5.

How are sceince and technology related?

a)

Science is a branch of technology

b)

Science and technology are not related

c)

Technology is a branch of natural sceince

d)

Adavances in science may lead to advances in technology and vice versa

6.

What is a physical or mental representation of an object or an event

a)

a scientific law

b)

a theory

c)

a model

d)

a hypothesis

7.

What is a system of knowledge and the methods used to find that knowledge?

a)

technology

b)

measurement

c)

curiosity

d)

science

8.

What are building blocks of all matter?

a)

magnetic fields

b)

kinetic and potential energy

c)

atoms

d)

forces

9.

How do scientists who speak different languages make their data understandable to one another?

a)

they all use SI

b)

they all use different systems of measurement

c)

they communicate through universal translator

d)

they must all speak french

10.

How do scientists communicate the results of investigations

a)

by exchanging e-mails

b)

by publishing articles in scientific journals

c)

by giving talks at scientific conferences

d)

all of the above

11.

Which of the following clocks offers the most precision?

a)

the clock with only one hand to measure the hour

b)

the clock with the hand to measure the hour and the hand to measure the minutes

c)

the clock with the hand to measure the hour, a hand to measure the minutes, and a hand to measure the seconds

d)

the clock with only one hand to measure the minutes

12.

The type of graph used to show a part of something relates to the whole is which of the following?

a)

line graph

b)

direct proportionc

c)

circle graph

d)

bar graph

13.

What is the relationship in which the ratio of the manipulated variable and the responding variable is constant

a)

interdependent

b)

direct proportion

c)

inverse proportion

d)

slope

14.

On Celsius scale, at what temperature does water freeze?

a)

273C

b)

100C

c)

0C

d)

32C

15.

In which step of the scientific method is information obtained through the senses

a)

analyzing data

b)

making observation

c)

drawing conclusions

d)

revising a hypothesis

16.

What is a peer review?

a)

a process in which scientists examine other scientists work

b)

a process in which only close friends of scientist review the scientist's work

c)

a process in which scientists keep their work secret

d)

a process in which scientists copy other scientists' work

17.

Which of the following is NOT a branch of natural science

a)

physical science

b)

life science

c)

social science

d)

Earth & space science

18.

A mixture that appears to contain only one substance is a(n)

a)

homogenous mixture

b)

compound

c)

heterogenous mixture

d)

element

19.

Which of the following is malleable

a)

ice

b)

gold

c)

pottery

d)

glass

20.

A material that is malleable and conducts electricity is most likely

a)

ice

b)

metal

c)

wood

d)

motor oil

21.

Which of the following is a physical change?

a)

a copper roof changing color from red to green

b)

burning a piece of wood

c)

rust forming on an iron fence

d)

sawing a piece of wood in half

22.

Which of the following clocks offers the most precision?

a)

the clock with only one hand to measure the hour

b)

the clock with the hand to measure the hour and the hand to measure the minutes

c)

the clock with the hand to measure the hour, a hand to measure the minutes, and a hand to measure the seconds

d)

the clock with only one hand to measure the minutes

23.

Flammability is a material's ability to burn in the presence of

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

nitrogen

24.

which of the following is NOT a clue that chemical change has occurred

a)

change in color

b)

production of gas

c)

formation of a precipitate

d)

change in shape

25.

Which of the following has the highest viscosity?

a)

milk

b)

corn syrup

c)

orange juice

d)

water

26.

When a physical change in a sample occurs, which of the folllowing does NOT change

a)

temperature

b)

volume

c)

shape

d)

composition

27.

Which of the following is a heterogenous mixture

a)

water in a swimming pool

b)

sugar water

c)

a jar of mixed nuts

d)

stainless steel

28.

Which of the following is a clue of a chemical change

a)

iron changes color when heated

b)

balls of wax from when melted max is poured into ice water

c)

gas bubbles form in boiling water

d)

a gas forms when vinegar and baking soda are mixed

29.

What method can be used to separate parts of a liquid mixture when the entire mixture can pass through a filter

a)

filtration

b)

distillation

c)

screening

d)

straining

30.

A substance that has high reactivity

a)

burns in the presense of water

b)

displaces dissolved oxygen

c)

easily combines chemically with other substances

d)

has high boiling point

31.

Which of the following is NOT a pure substance?

a)

water

b)

milk

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

oxygen

32.

Filtration can be used to separate mixtures based on

a)

the size of their particles

b)

their melting point

c)

their boiling point

d)

their densities

33.

A substance that is made up of only one kind of atom is a(n)

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

solution

d)

homogenous mixture

34.

During which of the following chemical changes does a precipitate form?

a)

lemon juice is added to water

b)

vinegar is added to baking powder

c)

milk curdling

d)

a banana ripens

35.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a mixture?

a)

has varying properties

b)

contains only pure substances

c)

has a fixed compostion

d)

all of the above

36.

You are about to open a container of soy milk but notice that there are instructions to "shake well before serving." The soy milk is most likely a

a)

suspension

b)

colloid

c)

pure substance

d)

solution

37.

Which of the following is a mixture?

a)

silicon

b)

sand

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

solution

38.

A mixture can be classified as a solution, suspension, or colloid based on the

a)

number of particles it contains

b)

size of its largest particles

c)

size of its smallest particles

d)

color of its particles

39.

Which of the following are pure substances?

a)

compounds

b)

solutions

c)

homogenous mixture

d)

colloids

40.

If a material contians three elements joinedin a fixed proportion, it is a(n)

a)

atom

b)

mixture

c)

solution

d)

compound

41.

A gas has

a)

a definite volume and definite shape

b)

a definite volume but no definite shape

c)

no definite shape nor definite volume

d)

a definite shape but no definite volume

42.

If you can move a substance from one container to another and its volume changes, the substance is a

a)

gas

b)

liquid

c)

solid

d)

solution

43.

What is the result of a force distributed over an area

a)

volume

b)

mass

c)

temperature

d)

pressure

44.

The heat of fusion for water is the amount of energy needed for water to

a)

freeze

b)

boil

c)

melt

d)

evaporate

45.

The phase change that is reverse of condensation is

a)

melting

b)

sublimation

c)

freezing

d)

vaporization

46.

During which phase change does the arrangement of water molecules become more orderly?

a)

boiling

b)

condensing

c)

freezing

d)

melting

47.

The law that states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins if the pressure and the number of particles is constant is

a)

Boyle's law

b)

Bose's law

c)

Charle's law

d)

Einstein's law

48.

Which of the following statements about ice melting is true?

a)

Water molecules lose energy

b)

Water molecules move from their fixed postion

c)

Energy flows from the ice to its surrounding

d)

The temperature of the ice increases as it melts

49.

Which of the following will cause a decrease in gas pressure in a closed container

a)

reducing volume

b)

adding more gas

c)

lowering the temperature

d)

all of the above

50.

The phase change in which a substance changes from a solid to a liquid is

a)

freezing

b)

melting

c)

condensation

d)

sublimation

51.

Boyle's law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure if the

a)

the number of particles decreases

b)

temperature and the number of particles are constant

c)

temperature and the number of particles are doubled

d)

temperature reaches absolute zero

52.

The temperature and volume in a closed container of a gas remain constant. If the number of particles of a gas is increased, the gas pressure will

a)

decrease

b)

increase

c)

cause a decrease in the average kinetic energy of particles

d)

remain constant

53.

Matter that has a definite volume but no definite shape is a

a)

plasma

b)

liquid

c)

solid

d)

gas

54.

The phase change in which a substance changes from a liquid to a gas

a)

sublimation

b)

condensation

c)

vaporzation

d)

deposition

55.

In which of the substance in the Figure above, are the forces of attraction among the particles are so weak that they can be ignored under ordinary conditions?

a)

Substance B

b)

Substance C

c)

Substance A

d)

all of the above

56.

Ninety-nine percent of all the matter that can be observed in the universe exists as

a)

plasmas

b)

liquids

c)

solids

d)

gases

57.

Raising the temperature of a gas will increase its pressure if the volume of a gas

a)

is constant, but the number of particles is reduced

b)

and the number of particles are constant

c)

and the number of particles are increased

d)

is increased, but the number of particles are constant

58.

During a phase change, temperature of a substance

a)

does not change

b)

increase or decreases

c)

increases

d)

decreases

59.

Which of the following factors affects the pressure of an enclosed gas?

a)

volume

b)

number of particles

c)

temperature

d)

all of the above

60.

The phase change in which a substance changes from a solid to agas or vapor without changing to a liquid first is

a)

vaporization

b)

deposition

c)

sublimation

d)

melting

61.

The phase change that is the reverse of sublimation is

a)

depostion

b)

vaporization

c)

condensation

d)

melting

62.

Which of the following phase changes is an endothermic change

a)

condensation

b)

vaporization

c)

freezing

d)

depostion

63.

Forces of attraction limit the motion of particles most in

a)

a phase change

b)

a physical change

c)

an irreversible change

d)

both a phase change and physical change

64.

Which of the following phase changes is an exothermic change?

a)

vaporization

b)

metling

c)

sublimation

d)

depostion

65.

Collisions of helium atoms with the walls of a closed container cause

a)

gas preasure

b)

an overall loss of energy

c)

condensation

d)

a decrease in volume

66.

J.J Thomson's experiments provided evidence that an atom

a)

has a negative charge

b)

is the smallest particle of matter

c)

contains negatively charged particles

d)

has a positive charge

67.

To find the number of neutrons in an atom, you would subtract

a)

isotope number from atomic number

b)

atomic number from mass number

c)

atomic number from electron number

d)

mass number from atomic number

68.

In an atomic model that includes a nucleus, positive charge is

a)

spread evenly througout the atom

b)

concentrated at multiple sites in an atom

c)

located in the space outside the nucleus

d)

concentrated in the center of an atom

69.

The glowing of a neon light is caused by electrons emitting energy as they

a)

move fronm higher to lower energy levels

b)

move from lower energy levels to higher energy levels

c)

collide with other electrons

d)

collide with the nucleus

70.

Which statement about subatomic particles is NOT true?

a)

Protons and electrons have opposite charges

b)

Protons and neutrons have almost the same mass

c)

Unlike protons and electrons, neutrons have no charge

d)

Protons and neutrons have the same charge

71.

In Niels Bohr's model of the atom, electron move

a)

like popcron in a popcorn popper

b)

like planets orbiting the sun

c)

like balls rolling down a hill

d)

like beach balls on water waves

72.

What can you assume has happened if an electron moves to a higher energy level?

a)

The electron has lost energy

b)

The atom has become more stable

c)

the atom has lost an electron

d)

The electron has gained energy

73.

Which statement about electrons and atomic orbitals is NOT true?

a)

An electron has the same amount of energy in all orbitals

b)

An orbital can contain a maximum of two electrons

c)

An electron cloud represents all the orbitals in an atom

d)

An atom's lowest level has only one orbital

74.

How was Bohr's atomic model similar to Rutherford's model

a)

It described how electrons gain or lose energy

b)

It described a nucleus surrounded by a large volume of space

c)

It described electron position in terms of the electron cloud

d)

It assigned energy levels to electron

75.

Which of the following is unique for any given element?

a)

the charge on the electrons

b)

the mass of a neutron

c)

thr number of neutrons

d)

the number of protons

76.

Which of the following most accuratly represents John Dalton's modek of the atom

a)

a hollow sphre with a dense nucleus

b)

a tiny, solid sphere with a predictable mass for a given element

c)

a sphere that is hollow throughout

d)

a tiny, solid sphere with an unpredictable mass for a given element

77.

The diagram shows the results of Rutherford's gold foil experiment. What caused some of the alpha particles to bounce striaght back from thr gold foil?

a)

the other alpha particles

b)

electrons in the gold atoms

c)

negative charges in the gold atoms

d)

nuclei in the gold atoms

78.

According to John Dalton's observations, when elements combine in a compound,

a)

each element contributes to an equal number of atoms

b)

the ratio of their masses is always the same

c)

their masses are always the same

d)

their volumes are always equal

79.

Which statement is true about oxygen-17 and oxygen-18?

a)

Their atoms have an identical mass

b)

The have the same mass number

c)

They do not have the same number of protons

d)

They are isotopes of oxygen

80.

What is the difference between an atom in the ground state and an atom in the excited state?

a)

The atom in an excited state has one more electron than the atom in the ground state

b)

The atom in the ground state has less energy and is less stable than the atom in the excited state

c)

The atom in an excited state has one fewer electron than the atom in the ground state

d)

The atom in an excited state has more energy and is less stable thsn the atom in the grounded state

81.

Which statement accurately represents the arrangement of electrons in Bohr's atomic model?

a)

Electrons travel randomly in relatively large space outside the nucleus

b)

Electrons vibrate in fixed locations around the nucleus

c)

Electrons travel around the nucleus in fixed energy levels with equal amounts of energy

d)

Electrons travel around the nucleus in fixed energy levels with energies that vary from level to level

82.

Rutherford's gold foil experiment provided evidence for which of the following statements?

a)

Gold is not a dense as previously thought

b)

alpha particles have a positive charge

c)

negative and positive charges are spread evenly throughout an atom

d)

there is a dense, positively charged mass in the center of an atom

83.

What does the electron cloud model describe?

a)

the number of electrons in an atom

b)

the precise location of the electrons in an atom

c)

the mass of the electrons in an atom

d)

the most likely location of electrons in atoms

84.

the number of protons in one atom of an element is that element's

a)

balanced charge

b)

mass number

c)

isotope

d)

atomic number

85.

Which of the following is NOT part of John Dalton's atomic theory?

a)

A compound contains atoms of more than one element

b)

Atoms contain subatomic particles

c)

All elements are composed of atoms

d)

All atoms of the same element have the same mass

86.

Which statement about subatomic particles is true?

a)

Protons, neutrons, and electrons all have the same mass

b)

Neutrons have no charge and no mass

c)

An electron has far less mass than either a proton or neutron

d)

Unlike protons or neutrons, electrons have no mass

87.

Which statement best describes Rutherford's model of the atom?

a)

It is like an avocado with the pit representing the nucleus

b)

It is like a fried egg with the yolk representing the nucleus

c)

It is like a huge stadium with a positively charged marble at the center

d)

It is like an aquarium with swimming fish representing positive charges

88.

What do scientists use to predict the locations of electrons in atoms

a)

probability

b)

ratios and proportions

c)

algebra

d)

geometry

89.

Group 7A of the periodic table contains the

a)

most reactive metals

b)

most reactive nonmetals

c)

least reactive nonmetals

d)

least reactive metals

90.

Which of the following Group 1A elements is the most reactive?

a)

K (potassium)

b)

Na (sodium)

c)

Li (lithium)

d)

Cs (cesium)

91.

Which element is found in nature only in compounds?

a)

sodium

b)

nitrogen

c)

helium

d)

oxygen

92.

A member of the boron family has three valence electrons, while a member of the nitrogen family has

a)

4

b)

5

c)

3

d)

none

93.

Moving from left to right across a row of the periodic table, which of the following values increases by exactly one from element to element

a)

atomic number

b)

atomic mass unit

c)

mass number

d)

isotope number

94.

At room temperature, none of the metals are

a)

malleable

b)

gases

c)

liquids

d)

soft

95.

The unit for atomic mass is

a)

amu

b)

pound

c)

gram

d)

none of the above

96.

Compared with Group 2 A elements, Group 6A elements have

a)

fewer valence electrons

b)

more isotopes

c)

more valence electrons

d)

more atoms in the ground state

97.

Which general statements does NOT apply to metals

a)

Most metals are good conductors of electric current

b)

most metals are brittle

c)

most metals are ductile

d)

most metals are malleable

98.

To keep them from reacting, some highly reactive elements are stored in

a)

liquid mercury

b)

water

c)

argon

d)

pure oxygen

99.

Mendeleev arranged the known chemical elements in a table according to increasing

a)

atomic number

b)

mass

c)

number of electrons

d)

number of protons

100.

One twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom is used to define a(n)

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic mass unit

c)

mass number

d)

atomic number

101.

The atomic mass of an element is

a)

the sum of the protons and neutrons in one atom of the element

b)

a weighted average of the masses of an element's isotopes

c)

twice the number of protons in one atom of the element

d)

a ratio based on the mass of a carbon-12 atom

102.

Which list of elements contains only metals?

a)

iodine, carbon, argon

b)

carbon, iodine, tin

c)

tin, copper, cesium

d)

helium, iron, copper

103.

Two highly reactive elements in Period 2 are the metal lithium and the

a)

nonmetal krypton

b)

nonmetal fluorine

c)

nonmetal selenium

d)

metalloid arsenic

104.

Which halogen is most likely to react?

a)

Cl (chlorine)

b)

F (fluorine)

c)

Br (bromine)

d)

I (iodine)

105.

The usefulness of Mendeleev's periodic table was confirmed by

a)

the discovery of the nucleus

b)

the discovery of subatomic particles

c)

its immediate acceptance by other scientists

d)

the discovery of elements with predicted properties

106.

As you move from left to right across a period, the number of valence electrons

a)

stays the same

b)

increases

c)

decreases

d)

increases and then decreases

107.

Atoms of the most reactive elements tend to have

a)

eight valence electrons

b)

no valence electrons

c)

one or seven valence electrons

d)

four or five valence electrons

108.

The tendency of an element to react is closely related to

a)

attractions between its atoms

b)

the numbers of valence electrons in atoms of the element

c)

its atomic mass

d)

the ratio of protons to neutrons in the atoms of the element

109.

Mendeleev gave the name eka-aluminum to a(n)

a)

rare isotope of aluminum

b)

compound containing aluminum

c)

unknown element he predicted would have properties similar to those of aluminum

d)

mixture of aluminum and an unknown element

110.

Among the alkali metals, the tendency to react with other substances

a)

varies in an unpredictable way within a group

b)

increases from top to bottom within a group

c)

does not vary among the members of the group

d)

decreases from top to bottom within the group

111.

In a periodic table, a set of properties repeats from

a)

row to row

b)

element to element

c)

column to column

d)

group to group

112.

Which statement is NOT true about the element fluorine, chorine, and iodine

a)

They are all halogens

b)

They are all nonmetals

c)

They are similar to noble gases

d)

They react easily with metals

113.

Which element s found in most of the compounds in your body except for water

a)

carbon

b)

iron

c)

iodine

d)

potassium