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Worksheets

Volume 1

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 17hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the minimum number of fully qualified people that the Air Force instructions require to be present when you must work on an energized circuit?

a)

1.

b)

2.

c)

3.

d)

4.

2.

Who is authorized to approve work on energized circuits and/or equipment?

a)

Base Civil Engineer

b)

Flight Commander

c)

Facilities Superintendent

d)

Shop noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)

3.

Which boundary is based upon the arc fault on the surface of the skin and requires anyone within the boundary to wear the proper personal protective equipment (PPE)?

a)

Arc flash.

b)

Limited approach.

c)

Prohibited approach.

d)

Restricted approach.

4.

What is the minimum distance for the flash protection boundary for all energized equipment under 750 volts alternating current (VAC)?

a)

3 ft. 6 in.

b)

7 ft.

c)

20 ft.

d)

10 ft.

5.

What type of materials is prohibited to be worn when working near energized equipment?

a)

Acetone, nylon, polyester, and rayon.

b)

Cotton, nylon, and polyester.

c)

Denim, rayon, and polyester.

d)

Acetone, denim, and polyester.

6.

If the power cannot be turned off, what should you use to move the victim connected to a live circuit away from the energized conductor or the conductor away from the victim?

a)

Wet rope.

b)

Bare hands.

c)

Insulated object.

d)

Galvanized conduit.

7.

You never apply what to a burn because it causes more damage to the tissue?

a)

Ice.

b)

Dry dressing.

c)

Clean bandage.

d)

Burn ointment.

8.

What is the body’s natural attempt to keep oxygen-rich blood flowing to the most important organs, such as the brain, heart, and lungs?

a)

Sweating.

b)

Bleeding.

c)

Shock.

d)

Fever.

9.

When filling out an Air Force Form 487, Generator Operating Log (Inspection Checklist), what site documentation are you checking for currency?

a)

Generator training letter, one-line diagrams, and operating instructions.

b)

Generator training letter and operating instruction only.

c)

Generator training letter, one-lines, and AF Form 719.

d)

Generator training letter, one-lines, operating instructions, and AF Form 719.

10.

Which Air Force form is a detailed log of power plant operations?

a)

487.

b)

719.

c)

1167.

d)

1197.

11.

Which generator authorization request form is used during the planning and programming portion of a new project?

a)

Generator authorization design request.

b)

New facility generator authorization request.

c)

Generator requirements request.

d)

Generator disposition request.

12.

When is a fuel one-line diagram required at a generator site?

a)

It is required at all generator sites.

b)

If an external fuel tank is installed.

c)

If the tank holds more than 200 gallons.

d)

If a day tank is present.

13.

Which technical order series covers generators?

a)

35C2.

b)

35E8.

c)

38G.

d)

88A.

14.

Which technical order series covers aircraft arresting systems?

a)

35C2.

b)

35E8.

c)

38G.

d)

88A.

15.

What are the correct steps (in the correct order) to measure current in an alternating current or direct current circuit?

a)

Power off, connect probe, power on, power off, disconnect probe, and take reading.

b)

Power off, connect probe, power on, take reading, power off, and disconnect probe.

c)

Connect probe, power off, take reading, power off, disconnect probe, and power on.

d)

Connect probe, power on, take reading, power off, power off, and disconnect probe.

16.

When checking amperes in a circuit with a clamp-on ammeter, a safety precaution is to make sure the test probes are

a)

disconnected from the input jacks.

b)

connected in parallel to the circuit.

c)

connected in series to the circuit.

d)

connected to the input jacks.

17.

Which device is a quick and convenient tool for determining the overall condition of a battery?

a)

Vibroground.

b)

Frequency meter.

c)

Recording meters.

d)

Battery load tester.

18.

When load testing batteries, how many seconds do you hold the load switch on the tester?

a)

5.

b)

15.

c)

10.

d)

20.

19.

Which test instrument is used for testing grounds?

a)

Ammeter.

b)

Multimeter.

c)

Megohmmeter.

d)

Earth resistance tester.

20.

When doing the 3-pole fall of potential ground test using the earth resistance tester, at a minimum, how far apart must your probe stake be from the earth ground electrode?

a)

64 feet.

b)

46 feet.

c)

128 feet.

d)

64 meters.

21.

When installing current transformers clamps, which way does the arrow need to point?

a)

Against current flow.

b)

With current flow.

c)

Either with or against current flow.

d)

120 electrical degrees from current flow.

22.

Which tool measures the depth of an item?

a)

Caliper.

b)

Depth gage.

c)

Torque handle.

d)

Outside micrometer.

23.

Which tool do you use for determining the thickness of objects, the distance between surfaces, and the depth of openings in mechanical parts?

a)

Calipers.

b)

Depth gage.

c)

Torque handle.

d)

Inside micrometer.

24.

Which tool do you use to tighten a nut or bolt to a given amount of pressure?

a)

Torque wrench.

b)

Ratchet handle.

c)

Boxed end wrench.

d)

Open ended wrench.

25.

What type of handheld tachometer is equipped with reflective strips and the tachometer?

a)

Laser.

b)

Photo.

c)

Contact.

d)

Pneumatic.

26.

What is the key to reliable soldering?

a)

Clarity.

b)

Low heat.

c)

High heat.

d)

Cleanliness.

27.

When preparing equipment for soldering, after you clean and dress the soldering tip, you heat and tin it with what?

a)

Flux.

b)

Solder.

c)

Leather.

d)

Steel wool.

28.

When preparing equipment for soldering, clean terminals with a pencil-style typewriter eraser until the tinned surfaces are

a)

dull and gray.

b)

bright and shiny.

c)

dark and reflective.

d)

brilliant and dreary.

29.

When measuring voltage using a multimeter, you connect the probes in

a)

series with the power source.

b)

parallel with the power source.

c)

series with the electrical unit to be tested.

d)

parallel with the electrical unit to be tested.

30.

What battery charger component decreases the input voltage to the required output voltage to provide the battery with a charge?

a)

Voltmeter.

b)

Load switch.

c)

Power diode.

d)

Power transformer.

31.

Which battery charger component rectifies alternating current output of power transformer to direct current?

a)

Voltmeter.

b)

Load switch.

c)

Power diode.

d)

Power transformer.

32.

What is the primary concern when adjusting a battery charger?

a)

Input voltage.

b)

Output voltage.

c)

Input amperage.

d)

Output amperage.

33.

What battery charger fault situation is indicated by a fully charged battery and a high charging rate?

a)

Defective rectifier circuit.

b)

Defective voltage regulator.

c)

Open battery connections.

d)

Shorted battery.

34.

Which load bank control contains reconnection bars that can be removed and configured according to the voltage input from the generator?

a)

Volts select switch.

b)

Blower fail indicator.

c)

kW load step switches.

d)

Voltage reconnection panel.

35.

Which load bank control is a series of switches used to select a specific resistive load value from the generator?

a)

Volts select switch.

b)

Blower fail indicator.

c)

kW load step switches.

d)

Voltage reconnection panel.

36.

Which load bank control is used to check voltage between phases of generator output during three-phase operation?

a)

Volts select switch.

b)

Blower fail indicator.

c)

kW load step switches.

d)

Voltage reconnection panel.

37.

Which load bank control illuminates if the blower fails?

a)

Volts select switch.

b)

Blower fail indicator.

c)

kW load step switches.

d)

Voltage reconnection panel.

38.

What is the purpose, besides preventing carbon buildup, of operating a generator using a load bank?

a)

It makes the engine smoke more.

b)

It makes the engine operate at a higher speed.

c)

It lets you know that the generator will operate with clean fuel.

d)

It lets you know that the generator is capable of operating at full load.

39.

When you must connect the load bank cables to the ends of the generator output cable, you must

a)

plug the connections into the cables properly.

b)

wrap the connections with insulating tape.

c)

leave the connections bare to allow proper cooling.

d)

operate the load bank at 80 percent capability to precent overheating the connections.

40.

How will you know where to place the reconnection bars to set them for the proper voltage?

a)

The position of the switch on the generator.

b)

The position of the switch on the load bank.

c)

A diagram of configuration on the generator.

d)

A diagram of configuration on the load bank.

41.

Before you install an electrical component on a load bank, be sure it

a)

is the same size as the one being replaced.

b)

is the same color as the one being replaced.

c)

has the same manufacturer as the one being replaced.

d)

has the same electrical rating as the one being replaced.

42.

Which type of corrosion do we find most on aluminum?

a)

Stress.

b)

Pitting.

c)

Galvanic.

d)

Exfoliation.

43.

Which type of corrosion is a further form of inter-granular corrosion associated with high strength aluminum alloys?

a)

Stress.

b)

Pitting.

c)

Galvanic.

d)

Exfoliation.

44.

What is the key to a good corrosion control program?

a)

Catching it early.

b)

Preventative maintenance.

c)

Cleaning it when you find it.

d)

Cleaning it when it gets severe.

45.

Which coolant heater has the main advantage of warming the engine in a very short period of time?

a)

Blanket.

b)

Immersion.

c)

Direct heat.

d)

Circulating.

46.

Which coolant heater is installed internally in the engine block in place of a freeze plug?

a)

Blanket.

b)

Circulating.

c)

Direct heat.

d)

Immersion.

47.

What is the only safe method of using ether in an engine?

a)

Spray can.

b)

Liquid mixture.

c)

Open dispensing system.

d)

Closed dispensing system.

48.

When performing a preoperational inspection on a permanently installed generator, you check the coolant level to make sure the

a)

unit will not overheat during operation.

b)

coolant conditioners are working correctly.

c)

water pump is working properly.

d)

unit will not shut down for low coolant pressure.

49.

You are conducting a preoperational inspection on a permanently installed generator and find the oil level is too high. What should you do?

a)

Ignore it and start the engine.

b)

Annotate the condition and run the generator.

c)

Annotate the condition and drain off the excess oil.

d)

Run the engine for 15 minutes, shut it down, and check the level again.

50.

After a preoperational inspection, when is it necessary to open a work order for a permanently installed generator system that is not in proper working order?

a)

When the problem found doing the inspection cannot be immediately repaired.

b)

Anytime you do a preoperational inspection.

c)

When any discrepancy is found doing the inspection.

d)

Anytime you make a repair.

51.

Which portion of the semi-monthly inspection is optional?

a)

Engine start.

b)

Check coolant level.

c)

Check direct current (DC) electrical syustem.

d)

Annotation on inspection checklist for the Generator Operating Log.

52.

How is a permanently installed generator tested during a semiannual inspection?

a)

Using the automatic transfer switch (ATS) test switch.

b)

Starting the generator manually.

c)

Turning the power off to the ATS.

d)

Using the generator test switch.

53.

Select the appropriate formula to answer the question below.

Kilowatts =voltsamperespowerfactor1000Kilowatts\ =\frac{volts\cdot amperes\cdot powerfactor}{1000}

Amperage=1000kilowattsvoltspowerfactorAmperage=\frac{1000\cdot kilowatts}{volts\cdot powerfactor}

Kilowatts=voltsamperespowerfactor1.731000Kilowatts=\frac{volts\cdot amperes\cdot powerfactor\cdot1.73}{1000}

Amperage=1000kilowattsvoltspowerfactor1.73Amperage=\frac{1000\cdot kilowatts}{volts\cdot powerfactor\cdot1.73}

You are operating a three-phase generator that produces 120/208 volts with 100 kW on its power meter but does not have an ammeter. What is the amperage? Round it to the nearest ampere.

a)

347.

b)

601.

c)

602.

d)

1041.

54.

Select the appropriate formula to answer the question below.

Kilowatts =voltsamperespowerfactor1000Kilowatts\ =\frac{volts\cdot amperes\cdot powerfactor}{1000}

Amperage=1000kilowattsvoltspowerfactorAmperage=\frac{1000\cdot kilowatts}{volts\cdot powerfactor}

Kilowatts=voltsamperespowerfactor1.731000Kilowatts=\frac{volts\cdot amperes\cdot powerfactor\cdot1.73}{1000}

Amperage=1000kilowattsvoltspowerfactor1.73Amperage=\frac{1000\cdot kilowatts}{volts\cdot powerfactor\cdot1.73}

You are operating a single-phase generator that produces 240 VAC with 15 kW on its power meter but does not have an ammeter. What is the amperage? Round it to the nearest ampere.

a)

23.

b)

45.

c)

78.

d)

124.

55.

When calculating facility power requirements, to what percent of the permanently installed generator's load capacity should you size a generator?

a)

No more than 50 percent.

b)

Now less than 75 percent.

c)

No less than 50 percent.

d)

No more than 60 percent.

56.

What is the most common material used in cables?

a)

Brass.

b)

Copper.

c)

Aluminum.

d)

Copper-clad aluminum.

57.

What type of coding is placed on a conductor to identify the type of insulation?

a)

Letters.

b)

Numbers.

c)

Special symbols.

d)

Combination of letters, numbers, and symbols.

58.

The voltage reconnection panel allows the alternator windings to be connected in

a)

either series or parallel.

b)

both series and parallel simultaneously.

c)

either sequence or series.

d)

both sequence and parallel simultaneously.

59.

What happens if you attempt to change the position of the voltage reconnection panel while the mobile electric power (MEP) series generator 200 kilowatts and below generator set is operationg?

a)

Nothing.

b)

Electrocution.

c)

The voltage changes.

d)

The generator shuts down.

60.

On a 200 kilowatts and below mobile electric power (MEP) series generator, how is the movable portion of the reconnection panel adjusted to produce the desired voltage output?

a)

Turn it over and reconnect it.

b)

Rotate it 90 degrees and reconnect it.

c)

Align its arrow with the desired control panel arrow.

d)

Align its arrow with the desired stationary board arrow.

61.

Why do you wait to perform checks, service, or maintenance on coolant systems on a mobile electric power (MEP) 806B until it cools down?

a)

The level will be different.

b)

The pressure steam can cause injury.

c)

The coolant will not appear in the radiator.

d)

The safety systems will not allow you to open the radiator cap.

62.

When starting a mobile electric power (MEP) 806B, how long do you hold the engine control switch in the start position?

a)

1 second.

b)

2 seconds.

c)

3 to 5 seconds.

d)

4 to 6 seconds.

63.

How long should you let the mobile electric power (MEP) 806B warm up before connecting to load?

a)

2 minutes.

b)

1 minute.

c)

5 minutes.

d)

10 minutes.

64.

When is the magnetic pickup removed, inspected, and cleaned on a mobile electric power (MEP) 806B?

a)

Quarterly.

b)

Semiannually.

c)

Annually.

d)

Biannually.

65.

How often is the coolant drained and flushed on a mobile electric power (MEP) 806B?

a)

Semiannually or at 300 operating hours, whichever comes first.

b)

Anually or at 300 operating hours, whichever comes first.

c)

Every two years or at 300 operating hours, whichever comes first.

d)

Annually regardless of operating hours.

66.

When is the first oil change done on a mobile electric power (MEP) 806B?

a)

Semiannually or at 300 operating hours, whichever comes first.

b)

Every two years or at 300 operating hours, whichever comes first.

c)

Annually regardless of operating hours.

d)

At 100 operating hours.