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Pre Final - Financial Modeling & Valuation

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What two things does a budget compare?
a)
Income and Expenses
b)
Savings and Interest
c)
Income and Investments
d)
Expenses and Expenditures
2.
The idea of a budget is to spend exactly as much as you spend.
a)

True

b)
False
3.
When you set a budget, you should never revisit or adjust it.
a)
True
b)
False
4.

A cash budget is used to determine:

a)

profit

b)

cash closing balance

c)

the value of the business

d)

the debts of the business

5.

A business may prepare for a cash deficit by:

a)

reducing planned profits

b)

reducing planned cash payments

c)

reducing capital contributions

d)

increasing loan payments

6.

Purpose of a budget is to:

a)

identify cash in and out flows of a business

b)

determine the actual cash on hand for a previous period

c)

identify revenue earned for the current period

d)

determine expenses incurred for the current period

7.

What is one advantage of preparing a cash budget?

a)

Higher credit rating

b)

Knowing when cash my be idle & can therefore be invested

c)

It makes doing the business annual tax return quicker

d)

It is quick and easy to do

8.

Which of the following items are included in a cash budget?

a)

Depreciation

b)

Accumulated depreciation

c)

Cash receipts

d)

Bad debts

9.

It's an advantage of budgets

a)

Your data, when estimated, will be subject to the judgment or experience of those who determined it

b)

Coordinate and link the activities of the organization

c)

Coordinate the different cost centers in order to ensure that the company runs in a comprehensive manner

d)

They facilitate administrative control

10.
Depreciation should be included in a cash budget 'overhead' payment figure.
a)
True
b)
False
11.

Monthly fixed costs are Php 20,000 excluding depreciation of Php 5,000. Which figure should be shown in the Receipts section of the cash budget?

a)

Php 20,000

b)

Php 25,000

c)

Php 15,000

d)

none of the others

12.

Monthly fixed costs are Php 100,000 excluding depreciation of Php 20,000. Which figure should be shown in the Payments section of the cash budget?

a)

Php 100,000

b)

Php 120,000

c)

Php 80,000

d)

none of the others

13.

New machine costing Php 100,000 is purchased in August with a 20% deposit and 8 monthly instalments starting in September. What is the value of the first instalment to be shown in the cash budget?

a)

Php 20,000

b)

Php 10,000

c)

Php 1,000

d)

Php 12,000

14.
Variable expenses may not be the same every month.
a)
True
b)
False
15.
Expenses that stay the same every month are _________ expenses. Rent would be an example.
a)
fixed
b)
discretionary 
c)
variable
d)
intermittent
16.

The money you start with is called the

a)

Budget

b)

Opening Balance

c)

Cash

d)

Closing Balance

17.

A loan is included in which section of the cash budget?

a)

The back of your wallet

b)

Receipts

c)

Payments

d)

Opening Balance

18.

Machinery purchases are put in which section?

a)

Closing Balance

b)

Opening Balance

c)

Receipts

d)

Payments

19.

The formula for calculating the cash closing balance is

a)

SUM

b)

Opening balance - payments

c)

Receipts - payments

d)

Opening balance + receipts - payments

20.

The purpose of a cash budget is (select all that apply)

a)

to forecast when there will be surplus cash

b)

to forecast when there will be a deficit

c)

to have something fun to do

d)

to use your calculator

21.

What is a deficit?

a)

When you haven't completed a cash budget

b)

When you can see that you will have extra money this month

c)

When you forecast that you will have extra money to spend

d)

When you forecast that you will be short of money

22.

How can you make sure you will not have a deficit? (Select all that apply)

a)

Reduce the amount of money spent

b)

Ask the bank for a loan

c)

Change the numbers in the budget so they give positive totals

d)

Increase your loan payments

23.

Although it ignores the time value of money, what is the most common method used in practice for capital budgeting?

a)

internal rate of return

b)

net present value

c)

payback

d)

accounting rate of return

24.

Which of the following is always true with regard to the net present value (NPV) approach?

a)

The NPV and the IRR approaches will always rank projects in the same order

b)

The NPV and Payback approaches will always rank projects in the same approaches

c)

If a project is found to be acceptable under the NPV approach, it would also be acceptable under the internal rate of return (IRR) approach

d)

If a project is found to be acceptable under the NPV approach, it would also be acceptable under the payback approach

25.
Which of the following statements best describe the IRR?
a)
The rate of return on the investment calculated based on cash inflows and outflows.
b)
The rate of return on the investment calculated based on investment capital and profit generate.
c)
The minimum rate of return required for the business to be profitable.
d)
The maximum rate of return that business could generate.
26.

This is a form of analysis defined by calculating how long it will take for the asset to "earn back" the money you invested in purchasing it.

a)

internal rate of return

b)

net present value

c)

payback method analysis

d)

tax accounting

27.

This answers the question, "How much is my asset worth right now?"

a)

net present value

b)

internal rate of return

c)

discount rate

d)

capital budgeting

28.

Although it ignores the time value of money, what is the most common method used in practice for capital budgeting?

a)

internal rate of return

b)

net present value

c)

payback

d)

accounting rate of return

29.

A set of projects in which the acceptance of one project means that the others cannot be accepted

a)

Replacement Decision

b)

Expansion Decision

c)

Independent Projects

d)

Mutually Exclusive Projects

30.

The present value of an asset's future cash flows minus its purchase price initial investment is

a)

Internal Rate of Return

b)

Payback

c)

Net Present Value

d)

Modified Internal Rate of Return

31.

Which of the following statements regarding NPV is true?

a)

If NPV is positive, the project is expected to earn more than the firm's cost of capital.

b)

Accepting negative NPV projects will reduce shareholders' wealth.

c)

If the NPV is positive, the project's cost is less than the project's expected benefit.

d)

All of the above.

32.

The following are the advantages of net present value, EXCEPT

a)

it can be used as a rough screening device to eliminate those projects whose returns do not materialize until later years.

b)

all positive NPVs will increase the value of the firm

c)

it allows comparison of benefits and costs in a logical manner

d)

it recognizes the timing of benefits resulting from the project

33.

When selecting the best project from a group of mutually exclusive projects, you should choose the project with the highest ________.

a)

net present value

b)

internal rate of return

c)

accounting rate of return

d)

payback period

34.

A significant advantage of the net present value is that it _______.

a)

fully considers time value of money

b)

takes into consideration the yield to maturity

c)

usus profit in the analysis

d)

none of the above

35.

Which of the following statement about NPV is FALSE?

a)

It does not allow for projects to be ranked.

b)

It has an inadequate reinvestment assumption.

c)

It is likely that there will be more than one NPV for a project.

d)

All of the above

36.

Which of the following statement regarding NPV is true?

a)

An investment should be accepted if, and only if, the NPV equals the initial investment.

b)

An investment should be accepted if, and only if, the NPV equals zero.

c)

An investment should be accepted if the NPV is positive and rejected if it is negative

d)

An investment with greater cash inflows than cash outflows, regardless of when the cash flows occur, will always have a positive NPV and therefore should always be accepted.

37.

You are analyzing two mutually exclusive projects of similar size and have determined the following data. Both projects have 5-year lives.


Based on the above details, which of the two projects would you accept?

a)

Project A because it has the shortest payback period.

b)

Both as they both have positive NPV.

c)

Project B and reject Project A based on their NPV.

38.

We compute the profitability index of a capital budgeting proposal by

a)

multiplying the internal rate of return by the cost of capital.

b)

dividing the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the cost of capital.

c)

dividing the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the cash investment in the project.

d)

multiplying the cash inflow by the internal rate of return.

39.

The disadvantage of the IRR method is that

a)

the IRR deals with cash flows.

b)

the IRR gives equal regard to all returns within a project's life.

c)

the IRR will always give the same project accept/reject decision as the NPV.

d)

the IRR requires long, detailed cash flow forecasts.

Answer: D

40.

An independent project should be accepted if it

a)

produces a net present value that is greater than or equal to zero.

b)

produces a net present value that is greater than the equivalent IRR.

c)

has only one sign reversal.

d)

produces a profitability index greater than or equal to zero.

41.

A significant disadvantage of the internal rate of return is that it

a)

does not fully consider the time value of money.

b)

does not give proper weight to all cash flows.

c)

can result in multiple rates of return (more than one IRR).

d)

is expressed as a percentage.

42.

Under what condition would you NOT accept a project that has a positive net present value?

a)

If the project has a profitability index less than zero.

b)

If two or more projects are mutually inclusive.

c)

If the firm is limited in the capital it has available.

d)

If a project has more than one sign reversal.

43.

If the net present value of project A is +$50, and of project B is +$80, then the NPV of the combined project is:

a)

$30

b)

$50

c)

$80

d)

$130

44.

If the NPV of project A is +$80, and that of project B is -$40, and that of project C is +$20, what is the NPV of the combined project?

a)

$100

b)

-$40

c)

$60

d)

$20

45.

Which one of the following will increase the NPV of a project?

a)

An increase in the discount rate.

b)

Increasing the amount of the initial cash outflow

c)

Decreasing the amount of each cash inflow

d)

A decrease in the discount rate

46.

Payback period rule accepts all projects for which the payback period is:

a)

Greater than the cut-off value.

b)

Less than the cut-off value.

c)

Positive

d)

An integer

47.

The advantage of the payback period is :

a)

Adjustment for uncertainty of early CF

b)

It is simple to calculate and use

c)

Does not discount CF

d)

None of the above

48.

The discount rate that makes the net present value of an investment exactly equal to zero is called the:

a)

Internal rate of return

b)

External rate of return

c)

WACC

d)

Average rate of return

49.

The cost of equity is equal to the:

a)

expected market return.

b)

rate of return required by stockholders.

c)

cost of retained earnings plus dividends.

d)

equity plus cost

50.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a)

The appropriate tax rate to use in the adjustment of the before-tax cost of

debt to determine the after-tax cost of debt is the average tax rate because

interest is deductible against the company's entire taxable income.

b)

For a given company, the after-tax cost of debt is generally less than both

the cost of preferred equity and the cost of common equity.

c)

For a given company, the investment opportunity schedule is upward slop-

ing because as a company invests more in capital projects, the returns from

investing increase.

d)

All of the above

51.

A financial analyst at Entity A wants to compute the company's weighted average cost of capital (WACC) using the dividend discount model. The analyst has gathered the following data (see attachment):

Entity A’s WACC is closest to:

a)

8%

b)

9%

c)

10%

d)

12%

52.

XYZ Securities had a long-term stable debt-to-equity ratio of 0.65. Recent

bank borrowing for expansion into North Luzon Expressway raised the ratio to 0.75.

The increased leverage has what effect on the asset beta and equity beta of the

company?

a)

The asset beta and the equity beta will both rise.

b)

The asset beta will remain the same and the equity beta will rise.

c)

The asset beta will remain the same and the equity beta will decline.

d)

None of the choices

53.

Ms. A Beta Advisers is estimating the cost of capital of ABC Corporation as part of her valuation analysis of the Ccompany. Ms. A will be using this estimate, along with projected cash flows from ABC's new projects, to estimate the effect of these new projects on the value of ABC. Ms. A has gathered the following information on Frontier Corporation (See attachment)

The weights that Ms. A should apply in estimating ABC's cost of capital

for debt and equity are, respectively:

a)

debt = 0.200; equity = 0.800.

b)

debt= 0.185;

equity = 0.815.

c)

debt = 0.223;

equity = 0.777.

d)

debt = 0.300;

equity = 0.700.