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Astronomy Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What determines the force of gravity between two objects?

a)

The distance between and mass of both objects

b)

The mass of the larger object

c)

The mass of both objects

d)

oNly the distance between the two objects

2.

Where is the celestial north pole located?

a)

directly over Earth's north geographical pole

b)

directly over Earth's north magnetic pole

c)

directly over Earth's south geographical pole

d)

directly over Earth's south magnetic pole

3.

What star lies directly on the celestial north pole?

a)

Betelguese

b)

Polaris

c)

Vega

d)

Aldeban

4.

An apparent shift in an objects position caused by the observers motion is:

a)

parallax

b)

angular diameter

c)

retrograde motion

d)

polarity

5.

How does the path of the sun in the sky change with our seasons?

a)

It is highest at noon and has a longer arc during the summer.

b)

It is lowest at noon and has a largest arc during the winter.

c)

It is lowest at noon and has the largest arc in summer.

d)

It is highest at noon and has the smallest arc during the summer.

6.

The Sun is located on one of two of these parts of an elipse

a)

Focii

b)

Semi-Major Axis

c)

Major Axis

d)

Minor Axis

7.

Which of Kepler's Laws describes the relationship between size of a planet's orbit and its orbital period.

a)

Law 1

b)

Law 2

c)

Law 3

d)

Law 4

8.

How are the different types of EMR distinguished from one another?

a)

Wavelength

b)

Speed

c)

Color

d)

Doppler Shift

9.

How are energy and wavelength related within the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

as wavelength decreases energy increases

b)

as wavelength increases so does energy

c)

energy has no effect on wavelength

d)

as wavelegth decreases so does energy level

10.

Which of these has the highest energy level?

a)

Red Light

b)

Blue LIght

c)

Green Light

d)

Orange LIght

11.

What happens within an atom when a photon of just the right wavelegth hits the atom?

a)

The nucleus of the atom breaks into smaller nuclei

b)

An electron raises energy levels

c)

A proton moves into the electron cloud

d)

An electron drops energy levels

12.

EMR is considered to be

a)

particles

b)

waves

c)

both particles and waves

d)

neither particles or waves

13.

How do emission and absorption spectra differ?

a)

The wavelegths of light affected by each are different

b)

One is given of by gas the other by solids

c)

Emission spectra come from hot gas, absorption from cool gas

d)

One involves electron energy levels the other involves proton energy levels

14.

What do both emission and absorption spectra tell us about the matter involved in their creation

a)

density of the matter

b)

mass of the matter

c)

composition of the matter

d)

volume of the mattter

15.

The lighter colored areas of the nearside of the Moon are:

a)

Rilles

b)

Basins

c)

Higlands

d)

Maria

16.

What effect does tidal braking from the Moon have on the Earth?

a)

It rotates faster than it used to

b)

Its rotation is slowed

c)

It has a synchronous rotation

d)

Its orbital velocity increases

17.

What caused the inner planets to develop like they did?

a)

being far from the Sun's heat allowed them to accumulate large amounts of volatiles

b)

being near the Sun's heat left them with only rocky and metallic materials

c)

being in the Oort cloud allowed their volatiles to freeze and become stable

d)

their large gravity allowed them to hold onto a large amount of volatiles

18.

What type of material is the asteroid belt primarily made of?

a)

ice and gas

b)

rock and metal

c)

gas

d)

ice

19.

How is the age of our solar system determined

a)

relative dating of Earth's layers

b)

radiometric dating of rocks and meteors

c)

direct observation

d)

comparing our solar system to others the galaxy

20.

Why is Pluto not a planet?

a)

it is not speherical

b)

it has not swept its orbit clear of similar sized objects

c)

it has a highly eliptical orbit

d)

it has a retrograde orbit

21.

The theory describing the formation of our solar system is the:

a)

Big Bang Theory

b)

Solar Nebula Theory

c)

Giant Impact Theory

d)

Stellar Evolution Theory

22.

Which two parts of the solar system host most comet nuclei?

a)

the Oort Cloud and the Asteroid Belt

b)

the Oort Cloud and Kuiper Belt

c)

the Asteroid Belt and Kuiper Belt

d)

The Rings of Jupiter and Saturn

23.

Which of the following represent the correct sequence of events in planet formation

a)

condensation--- protoplanetary disk -- interstellar cloud --- accretion of planetesimals-- planet formation

b)

interstellar cloud--- protoplanetary disk -- condensation--- accretion of planetesimals-- planet formation

c)

condensation--interstellar cloud---protoplanetary disk--accretion of planetesimals-- planet formation

d)

accretion of planetstimals -- condensation -- interstellar cloud--protoplanetary disk -- planet formation

24.

How does temperature change in the Sun's atmosphere as you move outward from the core?

a)

it increases

b)

it decreases

c)

it stays the same

d)

it increases then decreases

25.

Describe the process of energy transfer within the radiative layer?

a)

photons are absorbed and re-emitted repeatedly as they collide with atoms

b)

convection brings energy to the surface

c)

sunspots release enegy here

d)

energy here is frozen in place by the Sun's magnetic field

26.

What atoms are being consumed within the Sun by nuclear fusion?

a)

hydrogen

b)

helium

c)

oxygen

d)

iron

27.

vWhere do solar flares erupt from?

a)

sunspots

b)

prominences

c)

granules

d)

spicules

28.

Which two things can you tell about your location on Earth by observing the North Star

a)

Your direction of travel and lattitude

b)

Your direction of travel and longitude

c)

Your elevation and lattitude

d)

Your declination and right ascension

29.

Which of these does not describe the ecliptic?

a)

A circle on the celestial sphere that the sun appears to move through throughout the year

b)

The plane in which the moon must be to cause an eclipse

c)

The Moon's orbit around the Earth.

d)

The plane in which the zodiac constellation are located.

30.

How does the path of the sun in the sky change with our seasons?

a)

It is highest at noon and has a longer arc during the summer.

b)

It is lowest at noon and has a largest arc during the winter.

c)

It is lowest at noon and has the largest arc in summer.

d)

It is highest at noon and has the smallest arc during the summer.

31.

How long does it take the moon to complete one revolution.

a)

29.5 Days

b)

27.3 Days

c)

50 minutes

d)

365 days

32.

In what phase can a solar eclipse happen?

a)

Full

b)

New

c)

First Quarter

d)

Waning Crescent

33.

Why don't eclipses happen every new and full moon?

a)

the moon is too small to make a big enough shadow

b)

the moon's orbital plane is tilted when compared to ours

c)

the moon orbits directly around our equator

d)

eclipses can only happen in the summer

34.

The area around a star where it may be just the right temperature for liquid water is known as the:

a)

Sweet Spot

b)

Goldilocks Zone

c)

Earth Zone

d)

Splash City

35.

The bright central concentration of a spiral or barred spiral galaxy is known as the:

a)

bulge

b)

halo

c)

disc

d)

stream

36.

What is not a type of galaxy

a)

circular

b)

spiral

c)

eliptical

d)

irregular

37.

Galaxy collision can explain the appearance of many __________ galaxies.

a)

irregular

b)

elliptical

c)

young

d)

spiral

38.

__________ galaxies are more common in far away areas of the universe

a)

irregular

b)

elliptical

c)

spiral

d)

circular

39.
Earth’s rotation takes about
a)
365 days.
b)
6 months.
c)
24 hours.
d)
1 month.
40.
Day and night are caused by
a)
the tilt of Earth’s axis.
b)
Earth’s revolution around the sun.
c)
eclipses.
d)
Earth’s rotation on its axis.
41.
One complete revolution of Earth around the sun takes about
a)
one rotation.
b)
one rotation.
c)
one year.
d)
one eclipse.
42.
Earth has seasons because
a)
it rotates on its axis.
b)
the distance between Earth and the sun changes.
c)
its axis is tilted as it moves around the sun.
d)
the temperature of the sun changes.
43.
When the north end of Earth’s axis is tilted toward the sun, North America will experience
a)
more indirect rays and shorter days.
b)
more indirect rays and longer days.
c)
more indirect rays and longer days.
d)
more direct rays and longer days.
44.
The phase of the moon you see depends on
a)
where you are on Earth’s surface.
b)
how much of the sunlit side of the moon faces Earth.
c)
how much of the moon’s surface is lit by the Sun.
d)
how much of the moon’s surface is lit by the Sun.
45.
From new moon phase to full moon phase, you see
a)
an increasing amount of the lighted side of the moon.
b)
a decreasing amount of the lighted side of the moon.
c)
the same amount of the lighted side of the moon.
d)
more of the lighted side, then less of the lighted side of the moon.
46.
For a solar eclipse to occur,
a)
the sun must be directly between Earth and the moon.
b)
the moon must be directly between Earth and the sun.
c)
the moon must be at right angles to the Earth and the sun.
d)
the sun must be directly between Earth and the moon.
47.
During what phase of the moon can a lunar eclipse occur?
a)
new moon
b)
first quarter
c)
waxing gibbous
d)
full moon
48.
When are tides highest?
a)
during the moon’s first quarter phase
b)
when the sun, Earth, and the moon are nearly in a line
c)
during the moon’s third quarter phase
d)
when the moon is at a right angle to the sun
49.
Tides are caused mainly by
a)
Earth’s rotation on its axis, which causes water to move.
b)
differences in how much the sun pulls on different parts of Earth.
c)
strong winds blowing water onto coasts.
d)
differences in how much the moon pulls on different parts of Earth.
50.
Galileo saw that much of the moon’s surface is covered with round pits called
a)
highlands.
b)
seas.
c)
craters.
d)
maria.
51.
How large is the moon compared to Earth?
a)
about the same diameter as Earth
b)
about one-half the diameter of Earth
c)
about one-fourth the diameter of Earth
d)
about one-eighth the diameter of Earth
52.
An equinox occurs when
a)
neither end of Earth’s axis is tilted toward or away from the sun.
b)
the north end of Earth’s axis is tilted away from the sun.
c)
the north end of Earth’s axis is tilted toward the sun.
d)
Earth’s axis is parallel to the sun’s rays.
53.
Because the moon rotates once for each revolution around Earth,
a)
you see some phases more than others.
b)
a different side of the moon faces Earth each day.
c)
you never see the far side of the moon from Earth.
d)
the far side of the moon is visible only during the full moon phase.
54.
You are less likely to see a total solar eclipse than a total lunar eclipse because
a)
the moon’s shadow covers all of Earth during a solar eclipse.
b)
new moon phases occur less often than full moon phases.
c)
only people on the daytime side of Earth can see a solar eclipse.
d)
the moon’s umbra only covers a small area on Earth’s surface.
55.
When do neap tides occur?
a)
at new moon
b)
when the sun’s pull is in the same direction as the moon’s
c)
when the sun’s pull is at right angles to the moon’s
d)
at full moon
56.
The tendency of a moving object to continue moving in a straight line or a stationary object to remain in place is called
a)
orbital speed.
b)
mass.
c)
inertia.
d)
gravity.
57.
All objects are attracted to each other by the force of
a)
weight.
b)
mass.
c)
inertia.
d)
gravity.
58.
During a total lunar eclipse the moon is in Earth’s
a)
corona.
b)
penumbra.
c)
umbra.
d)
orbit.
59.
The beginning of spring in the Northern Hemisphere is marked by the vernal _______. 
a)
equinox
b)
solstice
60.
A ________ eclipse occurs when the moon moves directly between the sun and Earth. 
a)
solar
b)
lunar
61.
The moon’s average density is _____ the density of Earth’s outer layers. 
a)
greater than
b)
similar to
62.
Kepler correctly proposed that the planets orbited the sun in _____ orbits.
a)
spherical
b)
circular
c)
linear
d)
elliptical
63.
The diagram is a model of the solar system. It is a scale model that shows the positions of the Sun and planets as well as the relative distances between them. The relative sizes of the bodies are not represented. What does this model represent well about our solar system?
a)
The model represents the relatives sizes of the planets compared to that of the sun.
b)
The model shows all the objects found in our solar system.
c)
The model includes the major bodies of our solar system; the sun, nine planets and their moons.
d)
The model shows the relative distances between the sun and the planets.
64.
Which of the following planets would take the longest time to orbit the Sun?
a)
Jupiter
b)
Mercury
c)
Saturn
d)
Earth
65.
Which of the following planets is farthest from the Sun?
a)
Jupiter
b)
Mercury
c)
Neptune
d)
Earth
66.
What scientific principle explains why Venus’ surface is so hot?
a)
Convection zone
b)
Greenhouse effect
c)
Nuclear fusion
d)
Prominence
67.
Which of the following planets is larger than Earth?
a)
Mars
b)
Venus
c)
Mercury
d)
none of these
68.
The planets know as “terrestrial” planets are which?
a)
Venus, Saturn, Jupiter, Neptune
b)
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
c)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
d)
Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn
69.
The masses of the planets are recorded in the table.  From this information, which planets are probably included among the “gas giants”?
a)
Earth, Jupiter, Saturn, and Neptune
b)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars
c)
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune
d)
Mars and Earth
70.
Which planet is closest in mass to the size of planet Earth?
a)
Mars
b)
Mercury
c)
Uranus
d)
Venus
71.

Where does nuclear fusion occur in the Sun?

a)

C

b)

D

c)

E

d)

F

72.

Which letter correctly identifies regions of cooler gases on the Sun?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.
On February 17, 2015 this picture was featured on APOD.  This image captured the red light coming from hydrogen gas.  Which of the Sun’s layers gives us this reddish glow?
a)
Corona
b)
Chromosphere
c)
Photosphere
d)
Convection Zone
74.
Which of the following is NOT a "Goldilocks" condition?
a)
Contains abundant ¡SPONCH!
b)
Has a suitable temperature.
c)
Presence of liquid water.
d)
An atmosphere of mostly oxygen and carbon dioxide.
75.
Which form a electromagnetic radiation (imaged here) helped support the Big Bang Theory?
a)
Microwave
b)
Infrared
c)
Ultraviolet
d)
Gamma
76.
The image was taken by the Hubble Space Telescope. It shows stars forming out of an enormous cloud of gas and dust. What causes stars to form out of such gas clouds? 
a)
Evaporation
b)
Heat from starlight
c)
Spaghettification
d)
Gravity
77.
What tool is commonly used to help see more details about the universe? 
a)
Periscope
b)
Stethoscope
c)
Microscope
d)
Telescope
78.

Which star is a main sequence star?

a)

Aldebaran

b)

Sirius B

c)

Polaris

d)

Vega

79.

Which star is a white dwarf?

a)

Aldebaran

b)

Sirius B

c)

Polaris

d)

Naos

80.

Which star is most likely to produce a supernova?

a)

Aldebaran

b)

Sirius B

c)

Polaris

d)

Naos

81.

Which star has a spectral class of F?

a)

Aldebaran

b)

Polaris

c)

Vega

d)

Naos

82.

Which star is the hottest?

a)

Aldebaran

b)

Sirius B

c)

Vega

d)

Naos

83.

Which star is the same type as Vega?

a)

Aldebaran

b)

Sirius

c)

Polaris

d)

Naos

84.

Which stars are the oldest?

a)

Main Sequence

b)

White dwarf

c)

Supergiant

d)

Red Giant

85.
As the Sun ages, what type of star will it become next?
a)
Main Sequence
b)
White Dwarf
c)
Red Giant
d)
Red Dwarf
86.
Which stars will likely have the shortest life-span?
a)
White Dwarf
b)
Red Giant
c)
Red Dwarf
d)
Blue Supergiant
87.
What shape is the Milky Way galaxy?
a)
Elliptical
b)
Spiral
c)
Irregular
d)
Barred spiral
88.
Approximately how old do scientists estimate the universe to be?
a)
4.6 billion yeards
b)
10 billion years
c)
13.7 billion years
d)
26 billion years
89.
Which galaxy pictured is a true spiral?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
90.
Which galaxy pictured above is irregular?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
91.
Stellar Evolution: which the is FIRST stage in stellar evolution?
a)
The star begins to exhaust its hydrogen fuel, its core collapses and heats up;  the outer layers of gases to expand and cool.
b)
Outer layer of gases dissipate into space.  The remaining core, that is dense and hot, forms a white dwarf.
c)
A nebula, which contains large amounts of hydrogen, begins to collapse due to gravitational forces.  
d)
A main sequence star, burning Hydrogen fuel at its core, remains stable for billions of years.
92.
This image shows the:
a)
Geocentric Solar System
b)
Heliocentric Solar System
93.
  What does "geo-" mean?
a)
Earth
b)
sun
c)
Center
94.

Who came up with this model?

a)

Copernicus

b)

Kepler

c)

Galileo Galilee

d)

Ptolemy

95.

Who supported Copernicus's Heliocentric Model

a)

Galileo

b)

Plato

c)

Ptolemy

d)

No one

96.

Which astronomer first observed the phases of Venus and Jupiter's moons with the help of a telescope?

a)

Gailieo

b)

Aristarchus

c)

Kepler

d)

Aristotle

e)

Copernicus

97.

Select all that apply to the GAS GIANTS

a)

They all have rings

b)

They are all made of gas

c)

They have a rocky surface

d)

They are very small

98.
Name this moon phase
a)
Waning Crescent
b)
Waxing Crescent
c)
Waning Gibbous
d)
Waxing Gibbous
99.
Name this moon phase
a)
Waxing Gibbous
b)
Waxing Crescent
c)
Waning Crescent
d)
Waning Gibbous
100.

Which statement is true?

a)

The galaxies are moving toward us.

b)

The galaxies are moving away from us.

c)

The universe remains static or unchanged in motion.

d)

None of the above

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