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Biology Full Portion

Total questions: 170

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of living organisms

a)

Growth

b)

Unresponsiveness

c)

Metabolism

d)

Respiration

2.

The number of variety of living organisms in an area

a)

classification

b)

Metabolism

c)

Biography

d)

Biodiversity

3.

The two components of binomial nomenclature are

a)

Genus and species

b)

Class and species

c)

Genus and family

d)

none of the above

4.

Who introduced the binomial nomenclature system ?

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Carlous Linnaeus

c)

Ernst Mayer

d)

Alexander Agassiz

5.

A group of similar individuals bearing gene pool and interbreed to form a fertile young ones are called

a)

Genus

b)

Species

c)

Family

d)

Class

6.

In Unicellular organisms the cell division itself is a kind of reproduction

a)

True

b)

False

7.

In nomenclature,

a)

The genus is written after the species

b)

Genus and species may not be of the same name

c)

Both genus and species are written in italics

d)

First letter is capital in both genus and species

8.

The branch connected with nomenclature, identification and classification is

a)

Ecology

b)

Physiology

c)

Taxonomy

d)

Morphology

9.

The basic unit of taxonomical classification is

a)

Species

b)

Phylum

c)

Genus

d)

Family

10.

The total number of species, that are known and described range between

a)

0.5-1.0 million

b)

1.1-1.2 million

c)

1.7-1.8 million

d)

2.0-2.5 million

11.

Into which Kingdom would you put this organism?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Fungi

d)

Bacteria

e)

Protist

12.

Into which Kingdom would you put this organism?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Fungi

d)

Bacteria

e)

Protist

13.

WHO SAID VIRUS MEANS POISONOUS FLUID

a)

D J IVANOWSKY

b)

W M STANLEY

c)

PASTEUR

d)

M BEIJERINEK

14.

VIROID IS NOT HAVING

a)

PROTEIN COAT

b)

NUCLEIC ACID

c)

BOTH 1 AND 2

d)

NONE OF THESE

15.

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SYMBIOTIC RELATIONSHIP

a)

MYCORRHIZA

b)

LICHEN

c)

ROOT NODULE WITH Rhizobium

d)

Plasmodium in human host

16.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
17.
What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both...
a)
store genetic information
b)
have chloroplasts
c)
use glucose for cellular respiration
d)
have endoplasmic reticulum
18.
What part of a virus is the protein capsule that houses the genetic material (DNA/RNA)?
a)
tail
b)
nucleus
c)
capsid
d)
glycoprotein
19.

Identify the specimen Oscillatoria

a)
b)
c)
20.

Identify the specimen Riccia

a)
b)
c)
21.

Gracilaria belongs to

a)

Rhodophyceae

b)

Pheophyceae

c)

Chlorophyceae

d)

None of the above

22.

In Bryophytes zygote develops into

a)

Embryo

b)

Spores

c)

Zoospores

d)

Protonema

23.

Which of the following features of Pinus?

a)

Leaves are modified to needles

b)

Leaves are with sunken stomata

c)

Thick cuticle present in leaves

d)

All of the above

24.

I f the number of chromosome present in leave of pea leaf is 14.Then number of chromosome in Zygote and Endosperm will be

a)

14 and 21 respectively

b)

14 and 14 respectively

c)

21 and 14 respectively

d)

None of these

25.

If embryo sac in angiosperm represents female gametophyte then which one of the following represents male gametophyte?

a)

Megasporangium

b)

Microsporangium

c)

Pollen grains

d)

Nucellus

26.

Most of the the algae show Haplontic life cycle but few algae also show Diplontic and Haplo-diplontic life cycle.Fucus shows which life cycle?

a)

Haplontic life cycle

b)

Diplontic life cycle

c)

Haplo-diplontic life cycle

d)

None of the above

27.

Monocots are different from dicots in having

a)

Parallel venation in leaves

b)

Fibrous root

c)

Trimerous flower

d)

All othe above

28.

Double fertilisation does not include

a)

syngamy

b)

triple fusion

c)

gametogenesis

d)

fusion of male gamete with polar nuclei

29.

This life cycle is found in

a)

Angiosperms

b)

Gymnosperms

c)

Bryophytes and Pteridophytes

d)

Ectocarpus and Polysiphonia

e)

Both 3 and 4

30.

Which one of the following belongs to hepatocopsida?

a)
b)
c)
d)
31.

PORIFERA HAS FOLLOWING LEVEL OF ORGANISATION

a)

CELLULAR LEVEL

b)

TISSUE LEVEL

c)

ORGAN LEVEL

d)

ORGAN SYSTEM LEVEL OF ORGANISATION

32.

BODY SYMMETRY IN CASE OF COELENTERATES IS

a)

RADIAL SYMMETRY

b)

ASYMMETRICAL

c)

BILATERAL SYMMETRY

d)

NONE OF THESE

33.

IN DIPLOBLASTIC ORGANISM THE GERM LAYER ABSENT IS

a)

ECTODERM

b)

MESODERM

c)

ENDODERM

d)

MEOSGLOEA

34.

NAME THE GROUP OF ORGANISMS HAVING THIS KIND OF COELOM

a)

PLATYHELMINTHES

b)

ASCHELMINTHES

c)

ANNELIDS

d)

ARTHROPODS

35.

METAMERIC SEGMENTATION IS FOUND IN

a)
b)
c)
d)
36.

SPONGOCOEL IN PORIFERA IS LINED BY SPECIAL TYPE OF CELLS CALLED

a)

COLLAR CELLS

b)

CHOANOCYTES

c)

FLAME CELLS

d)

BOTH 1 AND 2

37.

METAGENESIS IS FOUND IN COELENTERATES WHERE POLY GIVES RISE TO MEDUSA AND VICE VERSA.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS RIGHT IN RESPECT OF ABOVE PHENOMENON?

a)

POLYPS PRODUCE MEDUSAE ASEXUALLY AND MEDUSAE PRODUCE POLYP SEXUALLY

b)

MEDUSAE PRODUCE POLYP ASEXUALLY AND POLYPS PRODUCE MEDUSAE SEXUALLY

c)

BOTH OF THESE

d)

NONE OF THESE

38.

WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING PAIRS IS NOT CORRECT

a)

EARTHWORM-NEPHRIDIA

b)

HUMAN-KIDNEY

c)

INSECTS-MALPIGHIAN TUBULES

d)

FLAME CELLS-ASCHELMINTHES

39.

The digestion of food in sponges is

a)

Extrcellular

b)

Intracellular

c)

Both

d)

Absent

40.

The fertilisation is __________ and development is __________ in sponges.

a)

External, indirect

b)

External, direct

c)

Internal, indirect

d)

Internal, direct

41.

MODIFIED ROOTS IN Rhizophora WHICH HELP IN RESPIRATION ARE CALLED AS

a)

CHROMATOPHORES

b)

PNEUMATOPHORES

c)

ANTHERIDIOPHORES

d)

NONE OF THESE ABOVE

42.

THE TYPE OF MODIFIED ROOTS FOUND IN Ficus bengalensis IS CALLED AS

a)

STILT ROOTS

b)

PROP ROOTS

c)

FUSIFORM ROOTS

d)

NAPIFORM ROOTS

43.

MODIFIED STEM FOUND IN POTATO IS CALLED AS

a)

RHIZOME

b)

TUBER

c)

BULB

d)

CORM

44.

THE PETIOLE IS MODIFIED TO FLAT LEAF LIKE STRUCTURE IN

a)

Eucalyptus

b)

Australian Acacia

c)

Plum

d)

Mango

45.

THE MID VEIN IN COMPOUND LEAF IS CALLED AS

a)

RAYS

b)

RACHIS

c)

PETIOLE

d)

LAMINA

46.

THE TYPE OF PLACENTATION FOUND IN LEMON IS

a)

AXILE

b)

PARIETAL

c)

FREE CENTRAL

d)

MARGINAL

47.

LEAF PHYLLOTAXY FOUND IN Calotropis IS

a)

ALTERNATE

b)

OPPOSITE

c)

WHORLED

d)

NONE OF THESE

48.

EPIPHYLLOUS CONDITION IS FOUND IN

a)

SOLANACEAE

b)

FABACEAE

c)

LILIACEAE

d)

MALVACEAE

49.

ENDOSPERM IS FORMED DUE TO FUSION OF

a)

EGG WITH FIRST MALE GAMETE

b)

EGG WITH SEC NUCLEI

c)

SECOND MALE GAMETE WITH POLAR NUCLEI

d)

NONE OF THESE

50.

WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWINGS IS NOT ALBUMINOUS

a)

MAIZE

b)

WHEAT

c)

BARLEY

d)

PEA

51.

WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING SHOWS SECONDARY GROWTH?

a)

MONOCOT STEM

b)

MONOCOT ROOT

c)

DICOT STEM

d)

BOTH DICOT STEM AND MONOCOT STEM

52.

VASCULAR BUNDLE IN DICOT ROOT IS

a)

OPEN AND CONJOINT

b)

CLOSED AND CONJOINT

c)

OPEN AND RADIAL

d)

CLOSED AND RADIAL

53.

COMPLEX PERMANENT TISSUE FOUND IN

a)

PARENCHYMA

b)

COLLENCHYMA

c)

XYLEM

d)

PHLOEM

e)

BOTH XYLEM AND PHLOEM

54.

CASPARIAN STRIP IS PRESENT IN

a)

DICOT STEM ENDODERMIS

b)

DICOT ROOT PERICYCLE

c)

DICOT ROOT ENDODERMIS

d)

MONOCT ROOT ENDODERMIS

55.

CORTEX HAS THREE LAYERS LIKE HYPODERMIS,CORTICAL LAYERS AND ENDODERMIS IN

a)

DICOT LEAF

b)

DICOT STEM

c)

MONOCOT STEM

d)

MONOCOT ROOT

56.

PROTO XYLEM IS CALLED ENDARCH IF

a)

PROTOXYLEM IS PRESENT TOWARDS PITH AND METAXYLEM TOWARDS PERIPHERY

b)

METAXYLEM IS PRESENT TOWARDS PITH AND PROTOXYLEM TOWARDS PERIPHERY

c)

BOTH 1 AND 2

d)

NEITHER OF THESE

57.

DORSIVENTRAL LEAF HAS MORE STOMATA GENERALLY ON

a)

ABAXIAL SURFACE

b)

ADAXIAL SURFACE

c)

BOTH SURFACES

d)

NEITHER OF THESE

58.

IF A DICOT STEM HAS 100 DARK AND LIGHT RINGS ON THE CUT SURFACE THEN THE AGE OF THE PLANT WILL BE

a)

100 YEARS

b)

75 YEARS

c)

50 YEARS

d)

25 YEARS

59.

WHICH TYPE OF PROTOXYLEM FOUND IN THIS PICTURE?

a)

ENDARCH

b)

EXARCH

c)

POLYARCH

d)

NONE OF THESE

60.

THE VASCULAR BUNDLES SHOWN IN THIS PICTURE ARE

a)

OPEN AND CONJOINT

b)

OPEN AND RADIAL

c)

CONJOINT AND CLOSED

d)

RADIAL AND CLOSED

61.

Organisms composed of a single cell are called-

a)

Monocellular

b)

Unicellular

c)

Dicellular

d)

Multicellular

62.

Who discover the first living cell...

a)

Robert hoek

b)

Robert brown

c)

Anton von leeuwenhoek

d)

R.h whittekar

63.

Omnis cellula-e cellula term coined by

a)

Rudolf virchow

b)

Schleiden

c)

Schwann

d)

jagdish chander boss

64.

Organelle present in prokaryotic cell

a)

Golgi body

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Ribosomes

65.

the largest isolated single cell is

a)

The egg of an ostrich

b)

the human red blood cell

c)

Nerve cell

d)

Mycoplasms

66.

The size of the mycoplasms cell is

a)

1 micrometer

b)

0.5 micrometer

c)

7.0 Micrometer

d)

0.3 micrometer

67.

Identify the given diagram

a)

Mesophyll cell

b)

Nerve cell

c)

Columner epithellium cell

d)

Red blood cell

68.

location of ribosome, except cytoplam

a)

Lysosome,

b)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Vacoule

69.

Longest cell is

a)

Human sperm cell

b)

Red blood cell

c)

Nerve cell

d)

Plant cell

70.

The smallest cell is

a)

Ribosome

b)

Animal cell

c)

Egg of an ostrich

d)

Mycoplasms

71.

Dehydration synthesis leads to formation of:

a)

monomers

b)

polymers

c)

water and polymers

d)

none of the above

72.

During the breakdown of polymers, which of the following reactions takes place?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

c)

Condensation

d)

Covalent bond

73.

An example of monosaccharide is ___________.

a)

Fructose

b)

Glucose

c)

Galactose

d)

All of the above

74.

Cellulose and starch are examples of:

a)

monosaccharides

b)

disaccharides

c)

lipids

d)

polysaccharides

75.

Plant cell walls contain which of the following in abundance?

a)

Starch

b)

Cellulose

c)

Glycogen

d)

Lactose

76.

Lactose is a disaccharide formed by the formation of a ______ bond between glucose and _______.

a)

glycosidic; lactose

b)

glycosidic; galactose

c)

hydrogen; sucrose

d)

hydrogen ; fructose

77.

Phospholipids are important components of _____________.

a)

the plasma membrane of animal cells

b)

the ring structure of steroids

c)

the waxy covering on leaves

d)

the double bond in hydrocarbon chains

78.

The building block of proteins are called _________.

a)

nucleotides

b)

disaccharides

c)

amino acids

d)

oil

79.

The building blocks of nucleic acids are ________.

a)

sugars

b)

nitrogenous bases

c)

peptides

d)

nucleotides

80.

A nucleotide of DNA may contain ________________.

a)

ribose, uracil and phosphate group

b)

deoxyribose, uracil and phosphate group

c)

deoxyribose, thymine, and phosphate group

d)

ribose, thymine, and phosphate group

81.
There are a TOTAL of ___ chromosomes in human body cells.
a)
23
b)
46
c)
92
d)
scientists don't know
82.

The last part of the cell cycle, where the cell finishes dividing into two cells, is called _________________________ ?

a)

prophase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

interphase

d)

duplication

83.

In which phase of the cell cycle does the replication of DNA occurs?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

84.

The diagram shows the number of cells produced after a cell undergoes mitosis twice. What will be the number of cells produced if mitosis occurs two more time.

a)

8

b)

16

c)

32

d)

64

85.

What are the products of the meiotic cell division?

a)

2 haploid daughter cells

b)

2 diploid daughter cells

c)

4 haploid daughter cells

d)

4 diploid daughter cells

86.

During what phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur?

a)

Interphase

b)

M phase

c)

S phase

d)

G2 phase

87.

The exchange of genetic material between chromatids and homologous chromosomes occurs during –

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis and Meiosis

c)

Prophase I

d)

Anaphase I

88.

The four haploid nuclei found at the end of meiosis differ from one another in their exact genetic composition. Some of this difference is the result of –

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Respiration of DNA during the S phase

c)

Spindle formation

d)

Crossing over during Prophase I

89.

Chromatin condenses to form discrete, visible chromosomes –

a)

Early in G1

b)

During S

c)

During telophase

d)

During prophase

90.

Which of the following phase of the cell cycle is not a part of interphase?

a)

M

b)

S

c)

G1

d)

G2

91.

Light reaction / photochemical phase includes –

a)

Absorption of light, water splitting, O2 release

b)

ATP and NADPH2 formation

c)

CO2 fixation and glucose formation

d)

a and b

92.

After removal of carbon, the oxygen in carbon dioxide ends up in –

a)

Air

b)

Sugar

c)

Water molecules

d)

The sugar and water molecules

93.

Which helped in confirming that oxygen evolved in photosynthesis comes from water

a)

H2 18O

b)

14CO2

c)

15NO3

d)

3H2O

94.

Because of properties of chlorophyll, plants need adequate ________ light to grow properly –

a)

Green

b)

Blue and red

c)

Infrared

d)

Ultraviolet

95.

Photosystem I (PS I) and photosystem II (PSII) are named –

a)

In the sequence of their discovery

b)

In the sequence in which they function during light reaction

c)

In the sequence of their positions

d)

In the sequence of e transfer

96.

The light harvesting complex (LHC) is made up of –

a)

One molecule of Chl a

b)

Very few molecules of Chl a

c)

Hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins

d)

Chl a + Chl c + protein + DNA

97.

Phosphorylation occurs in –

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Both a and b

d)

Cell wall

98.

Flow of electrons in non-cyclic photophosphorylation is –

a)

From PSI to PSII

b)

unidirectional

c)
d)

Bidirectional

99.

Photosynthesis is –

a)

Endergonic, photochemical, anabolic and reductive process

b)

Exergonic, reductive and catabolic process

c)

Exergonic reductive and anabolic process

d)

Exergonic, chemosynthetic process

100.

What happens during the light phase of photosynthesis?

a)

ADP is hydrolysed and NADPH oxidised

b)

ADP is phosphorylated and NADP reduced

c)

ATP is hydrolysed and NADPH oxidised

d)

ATP is hydrolysed and NADP reduced

101.

Which of the following is the key compound in the intermediary metabolism of carbohydrates, lipid and proteins

a)

PEP

b)

PGA

c)

Acetyl CoA

d)

α\alpha  -ketoglutarate

102.

First respiratory substrate :

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Both (a) and (c)

103.

What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?

a)

It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

b)

It functions as an electron carrier.

c)

It functions as an enzyme

d)

It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

104.

The end product of glycolysis is

a)

ethanol

b)

lactic acid

c)

pyruvic acid

d)

acetyl CoA

105.

The net yield of aerobic respiration is

a)

30ATP

b)

34ATP

c)

38ATP

d)

40ATP

106.

The enzymes of kreb cycle are present in

a)

cytoplasm

b)

the outer membrane of mitochondria

c)

matrix of mitochondria

107.

The final acceptor of electrons in ETC

a)

Oxygen

b)

water

c)

cytochrome c

108.

During anaerobic respiration,yeast converts glucose into

a)

lactic acid and CO2

b)

Ethanol and CO2

c)

ethanol and water

109.

In ETC one molecule of FADH2 yields

a)

1ATP

b)

2ATP

c)

3ATP

110.

In ETC one molecule of NADH2 yields

a)

1ATP

b)

2ATP

c)

3ATP

111.

CO2 is transported –

a)

By RBC

b)

As bicarbonates

c)

In a dissolved state through plasma

d)

All

112.

All of the following favour the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin to deliver O2 to tissues except –

a)

PO2 = ↑\uparrow

b)

PCO2 = ↑\uparrow or H+ = ↑\uparrow

c)

Temperature = ↑\uparrow

d)

PO2 = ↕\updownarrow

113.

The graph shows an oxygen dissociation curve for haemoglobin –

Where in the body will haemoglobin be saturated at the percentages shown at points 1, 2, and 3 on the graph?

a)

Left ventricle 1 Pulmonary vein 2 Vena cava 3

b)

Left ventricle 2 Pulmonary vein 1 Vena cava 3

c)

Left ventricle 2 Pulmonary vein 3 Vena cava 1

d)

Left ventricle 3 Pulmonary vein 2 Vena cava 1

114.

Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers following amount of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological condition

a)

5 ml

b)

25 ml

c)

50 ml

d)

More the 50 ml

115.

A person has vital capacity of 5L and residual volume of 1.2 L. Total lung capacity –

a)

6.2 L

b)

4.8 L

c)

500 ml

d)

None

116.

Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:

a)

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

b)

Tidal Volume

c)

Expiratory Reserve Volume

d)

Residual Volume

117.

A person suffer’s punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs. its effect could be

a)

Reduced breathing rate

b)

Rapid increase in breathing rate

c)

No change in respiration

d)

Cessation of breathing

118.

The partial pressure of oxygen and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is identical in

a)

Alveoli and deoxygenated blood

b)

Tissues and deoxygenated blood

c)

Oxygenated blood and tissues

d)

Tissues and oxygenated blood

119.

The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is known as :

a)

Total Lung Capacity

b)

Expiratory Capacity

c)

Vital Capacity

d)

Inspiratory Capacity

120.

The form of energy used in respiration is :

a)

Chemical

b)

Electrical

c)

Mechanical

d)

Radiant

121.

Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.

a)

a) Neutrophils

b)

b) Thrombocytes

c)

c) Erythrocytes

d)

d) Leucocytes

122.

Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has:

a)

a) no antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma.

b)

b) both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies.


.

c)

c) both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.

d)

d) both A and B antibodies in the plasma

123.

The human circulatory system is called a double closed circulatory system. What are the 2 parts of the human circulatory system ?

a)

The Pulmonary and Ventricular Circulation

b)

The Pulmonary and Systemic Circulation

c)

The Central and Peripheral Circulation

124.

Our blood is made up of 55% Plasma and 45% Cellular Components.


Is the above statement TRUE or FALSE ?

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

125.

Fully mature human RBC has......

a)

A Nucleus

b)

No nucleus

c)

Nucleus may or may not be present

d)

None of the above

126.

The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Lymphocytes

127.

The phrase "graveyard of RBC" is used for

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Heart

128.

The most numerous WBC's are

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Monocyte

d)

Basophil

129.

what is the purpose of circulation

a)

supply O2 and nutrients and remove waste

b)

break down the food

c)

get oxygen into the lungs

d)

remove solid waste

130.

left side of the heart is high in

a)

O2

b)

CO2

c)

N

d)

H

131.

Which of the following statements is wrong?

a)

Kidney does not play any significant role in the removal of ammonia

b)

Ureotelic animals excrete most of the nitrogenous waste as urea

c)

Ammonia and urea are the waste products derived from the metabolic breakdown of proteins

d)

None of the above is wrong

132.

Which of the following group of animals is ureotelic?

a)

many terrestrial amphibians

b)

Mammals

c)

Marine fishes

d)

All

133.

NH3 is converted into urea in –

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Spleen

d)

Intestine

134.

Excretion of nitrogenous products in semisolid forms by –

a)

Uricotelic animals

b)

Ureotelic animals

c)

Ammonotelic animals

d)

Amniotes

135.

The less amount of water is lost with the excretion of which nitrogenous product?

a)

NH3 and urea

b)

NH3 and uric acid

c)

NH3

d)

Urea and uric acid

136.

Which of the following is correct about protonephridia / flame cells?

a)

Protonephridia are the excretory structures in platyhelminthes (e.g Planaria), rotifers and some annelids

b)

Protonephridia are the excretory structures in the cephalochordates e.g. Amphioxus

c)

Protonephridia are primarily concerned with ionic and fluid volume regulation i.e. osmoregulation

d)

All

137.

Match the Column I with Column II

Column I ........................ Column II

A. Nephridia...................I. Crustaceans ................................. .......(Prawn)

B. Malpighian tubules ...II. Annelids

............................................ (Earthworm)

C. Antennal gland or..........III. Insects

Green glands..................... (Cockroach)

a)

A - I, B - II, C - III

b)

A - III, B - II, C - I

c)

A - II, B - III, C - I

d)

A - II, B - I, C - III

138.

Which of the following statements is wrong about the human excretory system?

a)

Excretory system consists of one pair of bean shaped kidneys, one pair of ureter, a urinary bladder and a urethra

b)

Kidneys are situated between the 12th thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebrae close to the dorsal wall in abdominal cavity

c)

Right kidney is a little higher level than the left one

d)

All

139.

Inner to the hilum of kidney is a broad funnel shaped space called :

a)

Cortex

b)

Medulla

c)

Pelvis

d)

Calyx

140.

Which one of the following is a tube that carries urine from kidney to the urinary bladder?

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Ureter

c)

Urethra

d)

Uvula

141.

The compound or pigment acting as an oxygen store in skeletal muscles is –

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Haemoglobin

c)

Myokinase or ATP

d)

Cytochrome

142.

Skeletal system consists of –

a)

Only bones

b)

Only cartilage

c)

A framework of bones and a few cartilage

d)

A framework of cartilage and a few bones

143.

How many bones make up the human skeleton?

a)

948

b)

96

c)

796

d)

206

144.

Number of bones in human axial skeleton is –

a)

80

b)

106

c)

206

d)

None

145.

Hyoid / Tongue bone is –

a)

T-shaped

b)

J-shaped

c)

U-shaped

d)

L-shaped

146.

Sonia Gandhi has how many ear ossicle –

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

None

147.

Human skull is –

a)

dicondylic

b)

Monocondylic

c)

Procoelous

d)

Hetercoelous

148.

Human adult vertebral formula is –

a)

C4 T8 L4 S5 C8

b)

C7 T8 L5 S6 C7

c)

C7 T112 L2 S1 C2

d)

C7 T12 L5 S1 C1

149.

The muscle band that remains unchanged during muscle contraction and relaxation of the skeletal muscle is –

a)

I

b)

A

c)

H

d)

Z-line

150.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

During muscle contraction chemical energy changes into mechanical energy

b)

Muscle fatigue is due to lactic acid formation due to anaerobic respiration

c)

The reaction time of the fibres can vary in different muscles

d)

All

151.

How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ?

a)

Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.

b)

Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output.

c)

Both heart rate and cardiac output increase.

d)

Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.

152.

Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

a)

Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photo pigments.

b)

In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments.

c)

Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C.

d)

Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only.

153.

Which one of the following is not a refractive medium of the eye?

a)

Lens

b)

Vitreous humour

c)

Aqueous humour

d)

Pupil

154.

In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the center of the visual field, where

a)

Only rods are present

b)

More rods than cones are found

c)

High density of cones occur, but has no rods

d)

The optic nerve leaves the eye

155.

The fovea of eye

a)

has the lowest light threshold

b)

is the region of highest visual activity

c)

contains only green and red cones

d)

contains only rods

156.

Cavity of vitreous humour (gel) is –

a)

Behind the lens

b)

In front of lens

c)

Between choroid and retina

d)

Between choroid and sclera

157.

Cavity of aqueous humour (watery fluid) is –

a)

Behind the lens

b)

Between choroid and retina

c)

Between cornea and lens

d)

Between lens and retina

158.

Which of the following options is wrong?

a)

Eye muscles are attached with sclera

b)

Visual purple is concerned with dim light, while visual violet is concerned with bright light

c)

The colour differentiation is done by cones

d)

None

159.

If Chlorolab of retina is damaged which colour can not be visualised?

a)

Green

b)

Red

c)

Yellow

d)

Many colours

160.

Which of the following statements is not correct ?

a)

In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the stretching of muscle and response is its contraction

b)

An action potential in an axon does not move backward because the segment behind is in a refractory phase

c)

Depolarisation of axon causes outside negatively and inside positively charged

d)

Rods are very sensitive and contribute to daylight vision

161.

a)

(A)-(v), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

b)

(A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

c)

(A)-(v), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

d)

(A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

162.

Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

a)

Estradiol

b)

Ecdysone

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Estriol

163.
a)

Thyroxine, estrogen

b)

Thyroxine, FSH

c)

FSH and Estrogen

d)

FSH and LH

164.

Among various encountered in living cells the ions most commonly used as signals are -

a)

Fe++

b)

K+

c)

Na+

d)

Ca++

165.

A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is :

a)

Corpus cardiacum

b)

Corpus luteum

c)

Corpus allatum

d)

Pineal gland

166.

The hormone which regulates the gene-expression of the target cell is

a)

Prolactin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Thyroxin

d)

Growth-hormone

167.

Which of the following is considered as a hyperglycemic factor?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Parathormone

168.

Which of the following hormones contains iodine ?

a)

Inhibin

b)

FSH

c)

Prolactin

d)

Thyroxine

169.

Oxytocin is synthesized in

a)

Adenohypophysis

b)

Neurohypophysis

c)

Hypothalamas

d)

Epiphysis

170.

The adrenal cortex synthesizes only :

a)

Steroid hormones

b)

Peptide hormones

c)

Glycopeptide hormones

d)

Catecholamines

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