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Biology II 3rd Nine Weeks Exam

Total questions: 157

Worksheet time: 4hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Birds are different from reptiles in that they

a)

are endothermic.

b)

have feathers covering their bodies.

c)

have four-chambered hearts.

d)

All of the above

2.

Scientific evidence suggests that birds arose from

a)

mammals.

b)

amphibians.

c)

dinosaurs.

d)

protozoa.

3.

Which of the following statements is not a true statement providing evidence for the hypothesis that birds evolved from a dinosaur ancestor?

a)

Some dinosaurs had feathers.

b)

Some dinosaurs had hollow bones.

c)

Dinosaurs lack a collarbone, as do birds.

d)

The neck of dinosaurs was S-shaped.

4.

Which of the following characteristics of birds is not found in Archaeopteryx?

a)

feathers

b)

wishbone

c)

beak

d)

ability to fly

5.

bird : hollow bones ::

a)

Hesperornis : well-developed wings

b)

reptile : hollow bones

c)

Archaeopteryx : feathers

d)

bird : dinosaur forelimbs

6.

The earliest flying vertebrates were

a)

birds.

b)

squirrels.

c)

dinosaurs.

d)

mammals.

7.

The first wings appearing on animals are thought to have been used for

a)

movement on the ground or in the air.

b)

capture of prey.

c)

stabilization.

d)

All of the above

8.

Feathers

a)

evolved as a deterrent to insects.

b)

usually have a shaft and four vanes.

c)

are found on all birds and some mammals.

d)

took the place of scales as the body covering of birds.

9.

Which of the following is not a function of contour feathers?

a)

flight

b)

coloration

c)

food capture

d)

insulation

10.

Which of the following would a contour feather most closely resemble when seen under a microscope?

a)

a piece of paper

b)

a chain-link fence

c)

the wing of an airplane

d)

a parachute

11.

The bones of birds

a)

are composed primarily of furcula.

b)

are solid.

c)

are found only sparingly throughout the body.

d)

are thin and hollow.

12.

A bird’s skeleton is

a)

composed of thin, hollow bones.

b)

more rigid than a reptile’s.

c)

composed of many fused bones.

d)

All of the above

13.

A bird’s crop

a)

temporarily stores food.

b)

is the first chamber of its stomach.

c)

is critical for flight.

d)

often contains small stones that the bird has swallowed.

14.

Birds excrete most of their nitrogenous wastes as

a)

urea.

b)

ammonia.

c)

uric acid.

d)

urine.

15.

Food taken into a bird’s body is ground up in the

a)

mouth.

b)

crop.

c)

gizzard.

d)

small intestines.

16.

Bird respiration is very efficient because

a)

bird lungs are small and hollow.

b)

only one lung functions at a time.

c)

a special set of blood vessels helps conserve oxygen.

d)

a system of air sacs permits birds to have oxygenated air in their lungs during both inhalation and exhalation.

17.

A bird’s heart has

a)

one chamber.

b)

two chambers.

c)

three chambers.

d)

four chambers.

18.

Lungs and air sacs are structures of the respiratory system of a(n)

a)

fish.

b)

amphibian.

c)

reptile.

d)

bird.

19.

Talons would most likely be found among birds that

a)

eat seeds.

b)

capture their prey.

c)

live in water.

d)

drink the nectar of flowers.

20.

Large, flat feet would most likely be found on birds that

a)

are predators.

b)

fly.

c)

eat insects.

d)

cannot fly.

21.

A recently developed way to infer relationships among species of birds is the study of

a)

fossils.

b)

bone structures.

c)

feathers.

d)

DNA.

22.

Which of the following associations between a bird order and a member of the order is incorrect?

a)

Apodiformes—hummingbird

b)

Galliformes—turkey

c)

Passeriformes—swan

d)

Psittaciformes—parrot

23.

Melodious songs are characteristic of ___ songbirds.

a)

female

b)

male

c)

female and male

d)

young

24.

The syrinx of a bird functions in

a)

capturing prey.

b)

flight.

c)

producing songs.

d)

marking time.

25.

The syrinx is located at the base of a bird’s

a)

mouth.

b)

esophagus.

c)

trachea.

d)

lungs.

26.

What adaptations did therapsids and mammals share?

a)

endothermy

b)

legs beneath the body

c)

hair

d)

All of the above

27.

Refer to the illustration. The fact that the coyote is a predator can be inferred from

a)

the shape of the teeth.

b)

the position of the eye sockets.

c)

the shape of the skull.

d)

the length of the jawbone.

28.

Refer to the illustration. The teeth primarily used for cutting are labeled

a)

“1.”

b)

“2.”

c)

“4.”

d)

“3.”

29.

Refer to the illustration. The teeth labeled “3” are called

a)

molars.

b)

incisors.

c)

premolars.

d)

canines.

30.

Refer to the illustration. The teeth labeled “1” are called

a)

molars.

b)

premolars.

c)

incisors.

d)

canines.

31.

Mammals that lay eggs are

a)

semi-pouched mammals.

b)

placental mammals.

c)

pouched mammals.

d)

monotremes.

32.

Egg-laying mammals are

a)

oviparous.

b)

ovoviviparous.

c)

viviparous.

d)

None of the above

33.

The offspring of marsupial mammals

a)

remain inside their mother until development is complete.

b)

hatch from eggs.

c)

are born early and complete their development in the mother’s pouch.

d)

All of the above

34.

Kangaroos and opossums are

a)

macroscelidea.

b)

placental mammals.

c)

marsupials.

d)

monotremes.

35.

The skeleton of Lucy revealed that she was bipedal. This means that she

a)

lived in trees.

b)

walked on two legs.

c)

walked using all four limbs.

d)

crawled along the jungle floor.

36.

Chimpanzees are different from humans in that they

a)

have identical skeletons but smaller brains.

b)

have very different DNA from that of humans.

c)

walk on four legs.

d)

All of the above

37.

The sheet of muscle at the bottom of the rib cage of mammals is called the

a)

secondary palate.

b)

placenta.

c)

diaphragm.

d)

metabolic sheet.

38.

cetaceans : oceans ::

a)

rodents : all continents except Antarctica

b)

native carnivores : Australia

c)

manatees : terrestrial areas

d)

placental mammals : Antarctica

39.

Refer to the illustration. Scientists examining these skeletons would conclude that only primate 2

a)

had opposable thumbs.

b)

could walk upright on two legs.

c)

had opposable big toes.

d)

All of the above

40.

Refer to the illustration. Skeleton 2 shows the skeleton of a

a)

hominid.

b)

gorilla.

c)

chimpanzee.

d)

prosimian.

41.

Refer to the illustration. The bone labeled “X” on both skeletons is the

a)

fibula.

b)

pelvis.

c)

femur.

d)

spine.

42.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with marsupial mammals?

a)

pouch

b)

shelled egg

c)

internal fertilization

d)

milk-fed young

43.

The forelimbs of ___ are modified into flippers and are used to help these animals move through water.

a)

cetaceans and sirenians

b)

proboscideans

c)

monotremes

d)

edentates

44.

When comparing Homo habilis and Homo erectus, we find that

a)

Homo habilis was taller and walked upright.

b)

Homo erectus was taller and walked upright.

c)

Homo habilis had a larger brain.

d)

Homo erectus made art and clothing.

45.

Placental mammals

a)

give birth to live young.

b)

nurse their young with milk.

c)

have body hair.

d)

All of the above

46.

Mammals, as well as birds, have

a)

teeth.

b)

a four-chambered heart.

c)

air sacs.

d)

All of the above

47.

Bats

a)

are all carnivores.

b)

always emerge only at night.

c)

fly only by gliding.

d)

use echolocation to navigate.

48.

hair : insulation ::

a)

synapsid opening : swallowing

b)

diaphragm : drawing air into lungs

c)

endothermy : keeping mammals cool

d)

complex teeth : breathing

49.

Two features shared by most primates are

a)

depth perception and grasping hands.

b)

depth perception and S-shaped spines.

c)

opposable thumbs and S-shaped spines.

d)

a relatively small cortex and grasping hands and feet.

50.

The duckbill platypus and two species of echidnas are the only living

a)

reptiles.

b)

monotremes.

c)

placental mammals.

d)

marsupials.

51.

Which of the following statements about the earliest mammals is true?

a)

They outcompeted dinosaurs for food and other resources, resulting in the dinosaurs’ extinction.

b)

They were large and preyed on many small dinosaurs.

c)

They first appeared after the extinction of the dinosaurs.

d)

They coexisted with dinosaurs but did not compete with them for food and other resources.

52.

Bat wings

a)

are modified hind limbs.

b)

can be used only for gliding.

c)

include leathery membranes of skin.

d)

are covered with feathers.

53.

Refer to the illustration. Jaw 2 is probably the jaw of a

a)

chimpanzee.

b)

gorilla.

c)

prosimian.

d)

hominid.

54.

Refer to the illustration. The teeth labeled “X” are

a)

molars.

b)

canines.

c)

incisors.

d)

premolars.

55.

Carnivorous mammals have

a)

short, square canine teeth.

b)

large, flat molars.

c)

poor vision.

d)

long, sharp canine teeth.

56.

Today all monotremes and most marsupials live in Australia and New Guinea. This limited distribution is due to

a)

predation by other mammals.

b)

inability of these animals to survive in cold climates.

c)

continental drift.

d)

All of the above

57.

Mammals arose from early reptiles called

a)

ichthyosaurs.

b)

pterosaurs.

c)

therapsids.

d)

mesosaurs.

58.

gills : fish ::

a)

lungs : mammal

b)

blood vessels : circulation

c)

skin : reptile

d)

tree : plant

59.

A dog is a member of the other

a)

Carnivora.

b)

Insectivora.

c)

Cetacea.

d)

Rodentia.

60.

The first primates probably resembled modern

a)

gorillas.

b)

chimpanzees.

c)

prosimians.

d)

humans.

61.

Mammals whose offspring remain inside the mother’s uterus until development is complete are called

a)

marsupials.

b)

placental mammals.

c)

monotremes.

d)

All of the above

62.

All australopithecine fossils have been discovered in

a)

Australia.

b)

South America.

c)

Africa.

d)

Asia.

63.

The large eye sockets on early mammals suggest that the mammals

a)

were active at night.

b)

lived in caves.

c)

did not have to turn their heads to look to the side.

d)

could see in the back of their heads.

64.

The function of the placenta in certain mammals is to

a)

hold the embryo in place, preventing premature loss.

b)

surround and protect the embryo like a shell.

c)

maintain a constant internal temperature.

d)

carry nutrition to and remove wastes from the embryo during development.

65.

Anthropoid primates are different from prosimians in that they

a)

have opposable thumbs and large brains.

b)

live in trees.

c)

only come out at night.

d)

have binocular vision.

66.

Unlike the young of reptiles, mammalian young depend on parental care for

a)

learning.

b)

food.

c)

protection.

d)

All of the above

67.

The major difference between marsupials and placental mammals is

a)

their ability to maintain a steady body temperature.

b)

their pattern of embryonic development.

c)

the size of their eggs.

d)

their teeth.

68.

Natural selection favors

a)

traits that benefit the group.

b)

traits that benefit the species.

c)

traits that benefit the order.

d)

traits that benefit the individual.

69.

Innate animal behaviors are programmed by

a)

genes.

b)

reasoning.

c)

experience.

d)

age.

70.

Learned animal behaviors, as opposed to innate behaviors, are influenced by

a)

genes.

b)

reasoning.

c)

experience.

d)

age.

71.

Trial-and-error learning is an example of

a)

seasonal conditioning.

b)

classical conditioning.

c)

simple conditioning.

d)

operant conditioning.

72.

In classical conditioning,

a)

an animal learns to associate an action with a punishment or reward.

b)

an animal learns to try various techniques to solve new problems.

c)

an animal learns to ignore a frequent, harmless stimulus.

d)

an animal learns to associate a natural stimulus with a predictive stimulus and therefore responds in the same way to each.

73.

Learning that can occur only during a specific period early in the life of an animal is called

a)

imprinting.

b)

reasoning.

c)

operant learning.

d)

classical conditioning.

74.

Pavlov : classical conditioning ::

a)

Lorenz : reasoning

b)

dog : meat

c)

geese : fixed action pattern

d)

Skinner : operant conditioning

75.

When Konrad Lorenz raised a group of newly hatched goslings, the goslings’ behavior showed

a)

imprinting.

b)

classic conditioning.

c)

reasoning.

d)

operant conditioning.

76.

How animals locate, obtain, and consume food can be explained by

a)

the optimality hypothesis.

b)

territorial behavior.

c)

communication.

d)

aggression.

77.

When a hognose snake flips onto its back and pretends to be dead, what kind of behavior is the snake displaying?

a)

foraging behavior

b)

territorial behavior

c)

a fixed action pattern

d)

aggressive behavior

78.

An example of an animal signal is

a)

movement.

b)

sound.

c)

posture.

d)

All of the above

79.

Animals’ use of signals has been shaped by

a)

reasoning.

b)

natural selection.

c)

classical conditioning.

d)

photoperiod.

80.

The purpose of animal signals is to

a)

obtain food.

b)

travel to a more suitable environment.

c)

learn a new behavior.

d)

stimulate a response in another animal.

81.

Sexual selection is

a)

the choice of mate based on certain traits or behaviors.

b)

an example of aggressive behavior.

c)

the choice of mate by random selection.

d)

the opposite of parental behavior.

82.

A benefit of territorial behavior is that such behavior

a)

usually is not passed to the offspring.

b)

reduces competition for resources.

c)

establishes a territory without expending much energy.

d)

maintains a territory without conflict.

83.

Which of the following is an example of a dominance hierarchy?

a)

bees in a hive having different roles

b)

a bowerbird attracting other birds to its bower

c)

wolves learning their rank in a wolf pack

d)

impalas from neighboring territories engaging in a physical contest

84.

Lions hunting cooperatively is an example of

a)

a dominance hierarchy.

b)

a disadvantage of living in a social group.

c)

territorial behavior.

d)

a benefit of living in a social group.

85.

One member of a social group acting in a way that benefits other members of the group is called

a)

a dominance hierarchy.

b)

aposematic behavior.

c)

altruism.

d)

kin selection.

86.

A benefit of migratory behavior is that

a)

the destination usually can be reached within a day.

b)

it keeps other animals out of an animal’s territory.

c)

it can provide a safe place to spend the winter.

d)

it does not require expending much energy.

87.

The amount of energy used to gather food compared to the amount of energy gained from food

a)

is never equal.

b)

can be explained by the optimality hypothesis.

c)

is balanced during long migrations.

d)

All of the above

88.

Which of the following is not included in the criteria for communication to be considered language?

a)

grammar

b)

productivity

c)

phonemes

d)

pheromones

89.

A farmer has a field near a busy highway. When he gets new horses, they are visibly frightened every time that a car speeds by. However, the horses that have been in the field for a while have no reaction to the cars speeding by. This can be explained by

a)

imprinting

b)

classical conditioning

c)

habituation

d)

insight

90.

A family lives near a very loud train but doesn’t seem to notice when it roars by their house. However, whenever people come to visit, they are startled by the sound of the train going by the house. This is an example of:

a)

operant conditioning

b)

habituation

c)

classical conditioning

d)

imprinting

91.

Generally, you eat lunch at noon. Now, everyday around noon, you become hungry. Regardless of what you eat before this point in time, as soon as you see that it is noon, you immediately feel that it is time for lunch. This behavior is best known as

a)

insight

b)

classical conditioning

c)

habituation

d)

imprinting

92.

Some male birds that did not find a mate will help raise the offspring of a relative. This self-sacrifice is best known as:

a)

altruistic behavior

b)

kin selection

c)

selfish behavior

d)

spiteful behavior

93.

The organization of group of animals in such as way that some members of the group have greater access to resources like food or mates than others is called:

a)

hierarchy

b)

altruism

c)

agnostic

d)

territory

94.

Refer to the illustration. Which of the following is the compact bone?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

95.

Refer to the illustration. Structure 3 is a

a)

nerve.

b)

blood vessel.

c)

muscle.

d)

ligament.

96.

Refer to the illustration. The material labeled “1,” which fills the center and spaces at the ends of bones and produces blood cells, is called

a)

exocrine material.

b)

cartilage.

c)

marrow.

d)

spongy bone.

97.

Smooth muscle can be found

a)

attached to the skeleton.

b)

in the wrist bones.

c)

at the knee joint.

d)

in internal organs.

98.

Muscles exert force by

a)

converting ADP and organic phosphate into ATP.

b)

interfering with the forces of gravity and friction.

c)

rapidly relaxing the muscle fibers.

d)

pulling on surrounding tissues.

99.

Tendons connect

a)

bone to bone.

b)

muscle to bone.

c)

muscle to muscle.

d)

cartilage to bone.

100.

Refer to the illustration. Which joint allows bones to glide over each other?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

101.

Refer to the illustration. The elbow, a hinge joint that allows your arms to bend, is shown in diagram

a)

1.

b)

2.

c)

3.

d)

4.

102.

Refer to the illustration. Joint 4 would most likely be found in the

a)

shoulder.

b)

elbow.

c)

knee.

d)

wrist.

103.

Refer to the illustration. Joint 1 is an example of a

a)

suture joint.

b)

ball-and-socket joint.

c)

pivot joint.

d)

plant joint.

104.

Actin and myosin

a)

are found in the sarcomeres.

b)

are proteins.

c)

interact during muscle contraction.

d)

All of the above

105.

The skin performs all of the following except

a)

protection.

b)

elimination of waste products.

c)

control of body temperature.

d)

production of chemical messengers.

106.

The dermis of the skin is

a)

composed of corneal and basal layers.

b)

the outer layer of the skin.

c)

the location of melanin.

d)

involved in temperature regulation.

107.

The total amount of force that a muscle exerts

a)

is determined by the strength of the nerve impulse that caused the contraction.

b)

depends on the total number of individual muscle fibers that have been stimulated.

c)

depends upon the weight of the object being moved.

d)

correlates to the number of Z lines contained within the sarcomeres of the muscle.

108.

The origin of a muscle

a)

is at the opposite end of the muscle from the insertion.

b)

is located on a bone that remains stationary when the muscle contracts.

c)

does not move when the muscle contracts.

d)

All of the above

109.

A person with a broken pelvis would probably be unable to

a)

walk.

b)

turn his or her head.

c)

raise his or her arm.

d)

bend his or her wrist.

110.

Which of the following is a function of both the excretory system and the digestive system?

a)

regulating metabolism

b)

eliminating wastes

c)

regulating other organ systems

d)

maintaining homeostasis

111.

Muscle tissue functions to move

a)

blood.

b)

food in the digestive tract.

c)

bones.

d)

All of the above

112.

A skin disorder caused by blockage of oil glands is called

a)

acne.

b)

carcinoma.

c)

osteoporosis.

d)

psoriasis.

113.

human skeleton : internal organs ::

a)

spoon : fork

b)

construction worker’s hard hat : construction worker’s head

c)

whisk broom : dust

d)

turnstile : a ticket

114.

Degeneration of cartilage causes

a)

menopause.

b)

bone replacement.

c)

bone fractures.

d)

osteoarthritis.

115.

Tightly connected cells that are arranged in flat sheets are characteristic of

a)

epithelial tissue.

b)

connective tissue.

c)

muscle tissue.

d)

nervous tissue.

116.

The type of bone that provides the greatest strength for support is

a)

spongy bone.

b)

chitinous bone.

c)

compact bone.

d)

marrow bone.

117.

Yellow bone marrow

a)

provides internal support to spongy bone.

b)

produces red blood cells.

c)

is found only in lower vertebrates.

d)

provides an energy reserve.

118.

Organs that work together form

a)

connective tissues.

b)

tissue systems.

c)

organ systems.

d)

All of the above

119.

The point where two or more bones meet is called a

a)

sprain.

b)

joint.

c)

point of intersection.

d)

growth region.

120.

Repeating units of myosin and actin filaments bound by two Z lines are

a)

muscles.

b)

myofibrils.

c)

sarcomeres.

d)

extensors.

121.

What is the difference between cartilage and bone?

a)

Cartilage contains cells that can continue to divide and grow, while bone does not.

b)

Cartilage is found only in the fetus, and bone is found only in children and adults.

c)

Bone contains significant mineral deposits between its cells, while cartilage does not.

d)

Bone contains dead cells, while cartilage contains living cells.

122.

Energy reserves are stored in the skin as

a)

fat cells.

b)

nerve tissue.

c)

keratin.

d)

lymph vessels.

123.

Ligaments attach

a)

bone to bone.

b)

muscle to bone.

c)

muscle to muscle.

d)

cartilage to bone.

124.

It has been known for a long time that muscle contraction requires ATP. Recently, scientists have discovered that ATP is required in order for the muscle filaments actin and myosin to slide past each other, resulting in muscle contraction. The ATP is specifically required to release the attachments between actin and myosin in many cycles of attachment, release, and reattachment that result in sliding of these filaments past each other. Which of the following phenomena is explained by this specific role of ATP?

a)

muscle fatigue

b)

stiffening of a body after death (rigor morris)

c)

opposing pairs of muscles functioning as flexors and extensors

d)

muscle sprain

125.

In a fetus, most bones are originally made of

a)

red and yellow marrow.

b)

calcium phosphate.

c)

cartilage.

d)

osteopores.

126.

Muscles that bend joints are categorized as

a)

flexors.

b)

origins.

c)

extensors.

d)

insertions.

127.

Blood, bone, and cartilage are examples of

a)

three different tissue types found in the body.

b)

connective tissue.

c)

epithelial tissue.

d)

organs of the body.

128.

Tissue that is specialized to cover the inner and outer surfaces of the internal organs is called

a)

epithelial tissue.

b)

connective tissue.

c)

muscle tissue.

d)

nervous tissue.

129.

A muscle can

a)

push a bone.

b)

pull a bone.

c)

both push and pull a bone simultaneously.

d)

sometimes push and sometimes pull a bone.

130.

Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?

a)

the backbone

b)

the pelvis

c)

the rib cage

d)

the skull

131.

The region between Z lines is called the

a)

myofibril.

b)

sarcomere.

c)

muscle fiber.

d)

myosin filament.

132.

Keratin

a)

is a protein.

b)

fills dead cells in the dermis.

c)

is a skin pigment.

d)

All of the above

133.

The periosteum is a section of the bone that contains

a)

blood vessels.

b)

osteocytes.

c)

spongy bone.

d)

red bone marrow.

134.

The heart and lungs are protected by the

a)

pectoral girdle.

b)

pelvic girdle.

c)

rib cage.

d)

periosteum.

135.

The heart and the blood vessels are separate organs that form the

a)

skeletal system.

b)

cardiovascular system.

c)

reproductive system.

d)

digestive system.

136.

From the smallest functional units to the largest, the body is organized as follows:

a)

cell, system, organ, tissue, body.

b)

organ, cell, tissue, system, body.

c)

system, organ, tissue, cell, body.

d)

cell, tissue, organ, system, body.

137.

The insertion of a muscle

a)

is located on a bone that remains stationary when the muscle contracts.

b)

moves away from the origin during muscle contraction.

c)

is attached to the bone by a ligament.

d)

None of the above

138.

The lungs are located in the

a)

cranial cavity.

b)

abdominal cavity.

c)

thoracic cavity.

d)

spinal cavity.

139.

The thin outer layer of the skin is

a)

the dermis.

b)

the epidermis.

c)

the fatty layer.

d)

connective skin.

140.

The ventricles are

a)

the upper chambers of the heart.

b)

the chambers of the heart that pump blood to the lungs and the rest of the body.

c)

the chambers of the heart that receive blood from the lungs and the rest of the body.

d)

lower chambers of the heart that contract separately.

141.

Refer to the illustration. Structure 4 is

a)

the right atrium.

b)

the left atrium.

c)

the right ventricle.

d)

the left ventricle.

142.

Refer to the illustration. The aorta is structure

a)

2.

b)

3.

c)

5.

d)

6.

143.

Refer to the illustration. The vessels labeled “2” carry deoxygenated blood. The vessels are

a)

the pulmonary arteries.

b)

the pulmonary veins.

c)

parts of the aorta.

d)

parts of the atria.

144.

Refer to the illustration. Blood in chamber 1

a)

is full of oxygen.

b)

is going toward the lungs.

c)

has a low concentration of oxygen.

d)

has very little plasma.

145.

Vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called

a)

veins.

b)

capillaries.

c)

arteries.

d)

venules.

146.

The heart chamber that receives blood from the venae cavae is the

a)

left atrium.

b)

right atrium.

c)

left ventricle.

d)

right ventricle.

147.

Blood entering the right atrium

a)

is full of oxygen.

b)

is returning from the lungs.

c)

is deoxygenated.

d)

is low in plasma and platelets.

148.

Oxygenated blood from the lungs is received by the

a)

left ventricle.

b)

right atrium.

c)

left atrium.

d)

right ventricle.

149.

Which type of blood vessel is both strong and elastic?

a)

capillary

b)

artery

c)

vein

d)

venule

150.

An artery has a much thicker muscle layer than

a)

a vein.

b)

a capillary.

c)

a venule.

d)

All of the above

151.

The smallest and most numerous blood vessels in the body are the

a)

venules.

b)

veins.

c)

arteries.

d)

capillaries.

152.

An artery

a)

usually carries oxygen-rich blood.

b)

has thin, slightly elastic walls.

c)

has valves that prevent blood from flowing backward.

d)

All of the above

153.

If a blood vessel has valves, it is probably

a)

a vein.

b)

an artery.

c)

a venule.

d)

part of the lymphatic system.

154.

The force exerted against the arterial walls when the heart contracts is called

a)

hypertension.

b)

systolic pressure.

c)

diastolic pressure.

d)

arterial relaxation.

155.

Normal blood pressure in millimeters of mercury is

a)

145/95 for males and 135/85 for females.

b)

130/100 for both males and females.

c)

120/80 for males and 110/70 for females.

d)

100/50 for males and 120/70 for females.

156.

The pressure exerted on the inner walls of the arteries when the heart relaxes between beats is the ___ pressure.

a)

systolic.

b)

diastolic.

c)

barometric.

d)

residual.

157.

Pulmonary circulation is the flow of blood to and from the

a)

stomach.

b)

liver.

c)

intestines.

d)

lungs.