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Practice SCHE0201

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In a reversible adiabatic process, entropy

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains unchanged

d)

none of these

2.

A power plant transfers 82 percent of the energy produced from burning fuel to convert water to steam. Of the energy transferred as heat by the steam, 36 percent is converted doing work through a spinning turbine. Which equation best describes the overall efficiency of the heat-to-work conversion in the plant?

a)

eff > 82 percent

b)

eff = 82 percent

c)

eff = 36 percent

d)

eff < 36 percent

3.

If two-thirds of the energy added to an engine as heat is removed to the engine’s surroundings as heat, what is the efficiency of the engine?

a)

1

b)

2/3

c)

1/2

d)

1/3

4.

If the energy added to an engine as heat is 2.5×1042.5\times10^4 J and the net work done by the engine is 7.0×1037.0\times10^3 J what is the engine’s efficiency?

a)

0.72

b)

0.39

c)

0.28

d)

0.22

5.

What must be true of the combined entropy of a system and its environment?

a)

It increases.

b)

It remains constant.

c)

It decreases.

d)

It decreases at first, then increases.

6.

An engine takes in 7.6 x 105 J of energy as heat and gives up 5.7 x 105 J of energy as heat to the surroundings. What is the efficiency of the engine?

a)

1.33

b)

0.33

c)

0.25

d)

0.75

7.

Process B on the PV diagram is an ______________ process.

a)

adiabatic

b)

isobaric

c)

isochoric

d)

isothermal

8.
When applying the first law of thermodynamics to a system, when is heat a positive quantity?
a)
when the system does work
b)
when the system has work done on it
c)
when the system absorbs heat
d)
when the system loses heat
e)
when no work is done either on the system or by the system
9.

For an isothermal process, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

a. Work, heat, and internal energy all undergo changes.

b)

d. No work is done; internal energy change is due to heat.

c)

c. Work and heat balance each other, so that there is no change in internal energy.

d)

d. No energy is transferred as heat; internal energy change is due to work.

10.

In the above image of carnot cycle step D to A shows?

a)

Adiabatic reversible compression

b)

Isothermal Compression

c)

Isentropic

d)

Isothermal Expansion

11.

What is the source temperature of the Carnot engine in K required to get 70% efficiency? Given sink temperature is 27 degree C.

a)

1000 K

b)

90 K

c)

270 K

d)

727 K

12.

The efficiency of carnot heat engine

a)

1+(Temperature of sink/Temperature of source)

b)

1-(Temperature of sink/Temperature of source)

c)

1+(Temperature of source/Temperature of sink)

d)

1+(Temperature of source/Temperature of sink)

13.

In thermodynamics, which is not a state variable

a)

Density

b)

Internal Energy

c)

Enthalpy

d)

Heat

14.

Heat does not spontaneously flow from a colder body to a hotter one. Which of the following thermodynamics law states this?

a)

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

b)

First law of thermodynamics

c)

Second law of thermodynamics

d)

Third law of thermodynamics

15.

Which of the following is true according to Clausius statement?

a)

it is possible to construct a device that can transfer heat from a cooler body to a hotter body without any effect

b)

it is impossible to construct a device that can transfer heat from a cooler body to a hotter body without any effect

c)

it is impossible to construct a device that can transfer heat from a hotter body to a cooler body without any effect

d)

none of the mentioned

16.

What is a heat engine?

a)

device that make heat flow from low temperature to high temperature

b)

device that use heat to produce work

c)

device that make heat flow from cold to hot

d)

device that use work to produce heat

17.
The work available in a Carnot cycle is equal to 
a)
the area under the high temperature curve
b)
the area under the low temperature curve
c)
the area above the low temperature curve and below the high temperature curve
18.
All processes in a Carnot cycle must be reversible. As a result, a Carnot engine must operate ... 
a)
at a low temperature
b)
very slowly
c)
at high temperature
d)
both forward and backward
19.
The transfer of thermal energy between objects of different temperatures is called...
a)
temperature
b)
heat
c)
internal energy
d)
none of these
20.

During an adiabatic process, a sample of gas does 400 J of work on the environment. What change occurs with the internal energy of the gas?

a)

The internal energy increases by 400 J.

b)

The internal energy doesn't change.

c)

The internal energy decreases by 400 J.

d)

There is not enough information if we don't know how much heat was added or removed.

21.

On which law of thermodynamics does your centrifugal pump work on!!

a)

Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

b)

First Law of Thermodynamics

c)

Second Law of Thermodynamics

d)

Third Law of Thermodynamics

22.

Area under P-V diagram gives

a)

Heat

b)

Internal energy

c)

work done

d)

temperature

23.

A reaction has both positive ∆S° and ∆H° values. From this information alone, you can conclude that the reaction

a)

can be spontaneous at any temperature.

b)

cannot be spontaneous at high temperatures.

c)

can be spontaneous only at low temperatures.

d)

can be spontaneous only at high temperatures.

24.

Your enthalpy is high and negative but your entropy is also negative. What type of temperature would you want to get a spontaneous reaction?

a)

low

b)

high

25.

Your enthalpy is positive and your entropy is positive. What type of temperature would you want to ensure a spontaneous reaction.

a)

very high

b)

very low

26.

Your enthalpy is -20 and your entropy is -8. Which temperature will give you a spontaneous reaction?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

27.

At what temperature would a given reaction become spontaneous if ΔH =+119kJ and ΔS=+263J/K.mol

a)

452 K

b)

2210 K

c)

382 K

d)

363 K

28.

Which combination of ΔH and ΔS NEVER has a spontaneous reaction?

a)

+ΔH and +ΔS

b)

+ΔH and -ΔS

c)

-ΔH and -ΔS

d)

-ΔH and +ΔS

29.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

30.

Sr(OH)2(s) ↔ Sr+2(aq) + 2OH-1(aq)

When HCl is added: H+(aq) + OH-1(aq) → H2O(l)

What effect does the addition of the acid have on the solubility of strontium hydroxide?

a)

the solubility increases because some of the OH-1 is removed and the equilibrium shifts to the left.

b)

the solubility increases because some of the OH-1 is removed and the equilibrium shifts to the right

c)

the solubility decreases because the hydroxide is removed

d)

the acid does not affect the solubility of the magnesium hydroxide

31.

Zinc hydroxide is a sparingly soluble base. If you add sodium hydroxide to a solution of zinc hydroxide, what will happen?

a)

The addition will have limited impact.

b)

The solubility of zinc hydroxide will increase.

c)

The solubility of zinc hydroxide will decrease.

d)

We would need to know the molar concentrations of each substance in order to answer this question.

32.
Basic buffer is made up of
a)
weak base and weak acid
b)
weak base and its conjugate salt
c)
weak base and its conjugate acid
d)
strong base and its conjugate acid
33.

Two beakers have liquids in them. When you add a base such as ammonia to beaker 1, the pH did not change. But when you add ammonia to beaker 2, the pH changes drastically. Choose the best explanation.

a)

Beaker 1 had only water and Beaker 2 contained a buffer.

b)

Beaker 1 contained a buffer and Beaker 2 contained only water.

c)

Beaker 2 contained an acid.

d)

The beaker that changed pH contained a buffer.

34.

The Ksp expression for a saturated solution of Ca3(PO4)2 is

a)

Ksp = [Ca2+][PO43-]

b)

Ksp = [3Ca2+][2PO43-]

c)

Ksp = [Ca2+]3[PO43-]2

d)

Ksp = [3Ca2+]3[2PO43-]2

35.

The molar solubility of silver sulphide is 5.0 x 10-17 mol/L. Calculate its solubility product.

a)

Ksp = 5 x 1049

b)

Ksp = 5 x 1033

c)

Ksp = 5 x 10-49

d)

Ksp = 5 x 10-33

36.

The solubility product of silver chromate (VI) at room temperature is 2.4 x 10-12. Calculate the molar solubility of Ag+(aq) and CrO42-(aq) ions in a saturated solution of silver chromate (VI) at room temperature.

a)

Ag+ = 1.68 x 104 M and CrO42- = 8.4 x 10-5 M

b)

Ag+ = 1.68 x 104 M and CrO42- = 8.4 x 105 M

c)

Ag+ = 1.68 x 10-4 M and CrO42- = 8.4 x 105 M

d)

Ag+ = 1.68 x 10-4 M and CrO42- = 8.4 x 10-5 M

37.

The Ksp value for PbF2 is 4 x 10-8. Calculate the molar solubility of solid PbF2 in a 0.5M NaF solution.

a)

8 x 108

b)

1.6 x 107

c)

8 x 10-8

d)

1.6 x 10-7

38.

A person mixes 100.0 mL of 0.0015M CaCl2 and 50.0 mL of 0.0081M K2SO4. If the Ksp for CaSO4 is 2.4 x 10-5 , will a CaSO4 precipitate be observed?

a)

No precipitate occur

b)

Precipitate occur

39.

Which of the following is the correct units of the solubility product, Ksp for PbI2?

a)

mol dm-3

b)

mol2 dm-6

c)

mol3 dm-9

d)

mol4 dm-12

e)

no unit

40.

What is the pH at the equivalence point?

a)

The pH is approximately 5

b)

The pH is approximately 6

c)

The pH is approximately 8

d)

The pH is approximately 9

41.

Which type of titration is shown by this titration curve?

a)

Titration of a strong acid by a strong base

b)

Titration of a weak acid by a strong base

c)

Titration of a strong base by a strong acid

d)

Titration of a weak base by a strong acid

42.

Which acid base pair produce the titration curve shown below?

a)

HCI + KOH

b)

HCI + NH3

c)

CH3COOH + KOH

d)

CH3COOH + NH3

43.

Which of the following salts is the most soluble?

a)

AgCl, Ksp = 1.8x10-10

b)

AgBr, Ksp = 5.3x10-13

c)

AgI, Ksp = 8.3x10-17

d)

CuBr, Ksp = 5.3x10-9

44.

Titrations based on reactions between reducing and oxidising agents are called_______

a)

back titrations

b)

redox titrations

c)

complexometric titrations

d)

acid-base titrations

e)

rough titrations

45.

Tick all correct statements about EDTA.

a)

EDTA is an important complexometric reagent

b)

EDTA can be used to determine the concentration of metal ions in a solution

c)

EDTA is a monodentate ligand

d)

EDTA is a hexadentate ligand

46.

Titrations based on reactions in which complexes are formed are called_______

a)

back titrations

b)

redox titrations

c)

complexometric titrations

d)

acid-base titrations

e)

rough titrations

47.

__________ is a suitable indicator for the titration of a weak acid and a strong alkali.

a)

Methyl orange

b)

Phenolphthalein

c)

Litmus solution

d)

Universal indicator

48.

__________ is a suitable indicator for the titration of a strong acid and a weak alkali.

a)

Methyl orange

b)

Phenolphthalein

c)

Litmus solution

d)

Universal indicator

49.

Which of the following is not an oxidising agent?

a)

potassium permanganate

b)

Oxalic acid

c)

potassium dichromate

d)

potassium iodate

50.

Name the acid used in permanganometric titration.

a)

dil sulphuric acid

b)

dil hydrochloric acid

c)

dil. nitric acid

51.

What is the stoichiometric ratio in titration of K2Cr2O7 vs Fe2+

a)

1/6

b)

6/1

c)

1/5

d)

5/1

52.

Select the external indicator used in dichrometry.

a)

N-phenyl anthranilic acid

b)

Sodium diphenylamine sulphonate

c)

Potassium ferrocyanide

d)

Potassium ferricyanide

53.

The direct titration of a reducing agent with a standard solution of iodine is called iodimetry.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Select the redox indicators and its colour change .

a)

Mureoxide ,red to colurless

b)

Diphenyl amine ,blue to colourless

c)

Diphenyl amine,violet to colourless

55.

2. If acidic solution are used in Mohr method?

a)

Chromates ion are decreased.

b)

Chromates ion are increased.

c)

A and B

d)

None of the above

56.

5. In Volhard Method ,the solution filled in the burette.

a)

Silver Nitrate

b)

Potassium chromate

c)

Potassium thiocyanate

d)

Ferric ammonium sulphate

57.

7. Which type of solution is used in Mohr method ?

a)

Strong acid

b)

Strong base

c)

Neutral

d)

A and B

58.

9. End point colour in Mohr method is?

a)

Red colour

b)

Green colour

c)

Yellow colour

d)

Black colour

59.

10. Indicator used in Mohr method?

a)

Fluorescein

b)

Fe3+

c)

Eosin

d)

Potassium Chromate

60.

Volumetric analysis is a quantitative analysis

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

61.

The following are types of titrations:

a)

Comlpexometric

b)

Acid base

c)

Precipitation

d)

Gravimetric

62.
Which curve is produced by the titration of a 0.1M weak base with 0.1M strong acid?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
63.

Condition for the molecule to be vibrational active

a)

permanent dipole moment

b)

change in dipolemoment

c)

change in polarisibility of the molecule

d)

All

64.

Homonuclear diatomic molecules with no permanent dipole moment show

a)

Vibrational spectroscopy

b)

Rotational spectroscopy

c)

Electronic spectroscopy

d)

NMR

65.

A straight line representing a transition between electronic states will be

a)

Inclined with x axis

b)

Inclined with Y axis

c)

Horizontal

d)

Vertical

66.

Molecules which are having _______ are microwave active.

a)

Dipole moment

b)

High pressure Detector

c)

Principle axis

d)

Acidity

67.

A photon of wave number 100 cm-1 has a wavelength of

a)

1 m

b)

1 mm

c)

1000 nm

d)

100 m

68.

The energy in joules of a photon of wavelength 355 nm is

a)

5.596 x 1019 J

b)

5.596 x 1028 J

69.

Full form of NMR is

a)

Nuclear Magnetic Reaction

b)

Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

c)

Nuclear Mass Reaction

d)

Nuclear Mass Resonance

70.

Which among the following impart colour to the organic compound?

a)

Auxochrome

b)

Chromophore

c)

Chromone

d)

Auxochromone

71.

Which of the following has shortest wavelength?

a)

γ-rays

b)

radio waves

c)

visible spectrum

d)

micro waves

72.

Infrared rays have a shorter wavelength than

a)

Ultraviolet ray.

b)

X-rays.

c)

radio waves.

d)

gamma rays

73.

Which of the following molecule shows rotational spectra?

a)

CO

b)

CO2

c)

H2

d)

N2

74.
For an electron to change from ground state to an excited stated it must...
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Release energy
75.

When electrons of an element comeback from an "excited" state, ___ lines are produced.

a)

dark

b)

emission (bright)

c)

continuous

d)

invisible

76.
What part of the atom or molecule does infrared radiation affect
a)
the nucleus
b)
the electrons
c)
the  bonds
d)
the charge
77.
Non polar symmetrical molecules 
a)
do not absorb IR radiation
b)
absorb IR  radiation
c)
absorb the most IR  radiation
d)
transmit IR radiation
78.
Which of the following type of electromagnetic radiation affects spin of the nucleons
a)
infrared
b)
ultraviolet
c)
microwaves
d)
radiowaves
79.
NMR can only be done with 
a)
molecules
b)
1H and 13C
c)
any element with a odd number of protons
d)
any element with a odd number of nucleons
80.
What kind of spectrum is this?
a)
absorption spectrum
b)
continuous spectrum
c)
emission spectrum
81.

Which of the following molecule shows rotational spectra?

a)

CO

b)

CO2

c)

H2

d)

N2

82.

Select the statement regarding IR Spectroscopy which is wrong.

a)

Infrared radiation is higher in energy than UV radiation.

b)

Infrared spectra record the transmission of IR radiation.

c)

Molecular radiations are due to periodic motions of atoms in molecules and include bond stretching, torsional changes and bond angle changes.

d)

Infrared spectra give information about bonding features and functional groups in molecules.

83.

How does IR spectroscopy identify different molecules?

a)

By measuring the vibrational movement and absorption of each bond.

b)

By measuring the weigh of each atom.

c)

By watching how molecules react to different compounds.

d)

By breaking apart the molecule into individual atoms.

84.

Raman effect is scattering of

a)

Atoms

b)

Molecules

c)

Protons

d)

Photons

85.

Which of the following lines are most intense?

a)

Stokes lines

b)

Rayleigh-scattered lines

c)

Anti-strokes lines

d)

All have the same intensity

86.

Which of the following molecule has no rotational spectrum?

a)

NH3

b)

HCl

c)

N2

d)

H2O.

87.

Can two different elements have the same emission spectrum?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only if they are in the same group in the periodic table

88.

What molecular vibrations are inactive in IR spectra?

a)

Antisymmetric stretching vibrations

b)

Bending vibrations

c)

Symmetric vibrations

89.

The anti-Stokes scattering component has a wavelength which is ... the wavelength of the incident light

a)

smaller than

b)

larger than

c)

the same as

90.

Raman scattering ...

a)

is elastic

b)

occurs with a change in the wavelength of light

c)

occurs without changing the wavelength of light

91.

Which term does not apply to atomic spectroscopy?

a)

Atomic absorption

b)

Atomic emission

c)

Atomic fluorescence

d)

Atomic force

92.

light that continues after the light source has been removed

a)

bioluminescence

b)

phosphorescence

c)

incandescence

d)

chemiluminescence

e)

fluorescence

93.

light created when a material absorbs higher frequency EM light and emits visible light

a)

incandescence

b)

chemiluminescence

c)

fluorescence

d)

bioluminescence

e)

phospherescence

94.

T1 to S0 transition is referred to as (T Stands for triplet state)

a)

Phosphorescence

b)

Fluorescence

c)

Vibration cascade

95.

Which of the following is a non-radiative transition

to a lower vibrational level within the same electronic state

a)

Internal conversion

b)

fluorescence

c)

inter system crossing

d)

vibrational relaxation

96.

This process promotes the molecule from the S0 to one of the vibration levels of the singlet excited states (S1, S2,..)

a)

Absorption of photon

b)

Emission of photon

c)

Fluorescence

d)

Vibrational relaxation

97.

Which of the following is the way how to measure a color changes by proper instrument?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Colorimeter

c)

Pipette

98.

Which of the following is the correct equation for BeerLambert law?

a)

ϵ=Acl\epsilon=Acl

b)

c=ϵAlc=\frac{\epsilon}{Al}

c)

A=ϵclA=\epsilon cl

d)

l=Acϵl=Ac\epsilon

99.

if concentration is expressed in g dm-3, then epsilon is known as

a)

molar absorptivity

b)

absorptivity

c)

None of the above

100.

The amount of light that passes through a sample is called:

a)

Transmittance

b)

Absorbance

c)

Radiation

d)

Quantum force

101.

The function of the monochromator in a UV Visible spectrophotometer is to

a)

detect the transmitted light

b)

detect the absorbed light

c)

produce light of a range of wavelengths

d)

select the wavelength of light

102.

molar extinction coefficient is

a)

characteristic of solute

b)

depends upon temperature

c)

depends on nature of solvent

d)

All are correct

e)

option 1 and 3 are only correct

103.

Stokes lines show negative Raman shift

a)

T

b)

F

104.

The concentration of OH– in a saturated solution of Mg(OH)2 is 3.6 x 10–4 M. The Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is

a)

1.3 x 10–7

b)

4.7 x 10–11

c)

3.6 x 10–4

d)

2.3 x 10–11

105.

Calculate the solubility of Ag2CrO4 [Ksp = 9.0 x 10–12] in a 1.0 x 10–2 M AgNO3 solution.

a)

1.3 x 10–4 mol/L

b)

2.3 x 10–8 mol/L

c)

9.0 x 10–8 mol/L

d)

9.0 x 10–10 mol/L

106.
Limes have a [H3O+] of 1.3 x 10-2 mol/L.  Their pOH is
a)
1.89
b)
12.11
c)
1.03
d)
12.97

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