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Final Exam Practice test Scranton EMT 2023

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the level of training designed for the rescuer who is often initially on the

scene and whose emphasis is on providing immediate care for life-threatening

injuries as well as controlling the scene?

a)

Emergency Medical Responder

b)

Emergency Medical Technician

c)

Advanced EMT

d)

Paramedic

2.

According to START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of an MCI who is alert and

has a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is deemed a _______ patient.

a)

Priority 0

b)

Priority 1

c)

Priority 2

d)

Priority 3

3.

The national HAZMAT standard written specifically for first responders to a hazardous

materials incident is:

a)

OSHA 1910.1030

b)

NFPA 473

c)

EPA 472

d)

OSHA 1910.120

4.

According to typical state vehicle and traffic laws, when in an emergency vehicle on

an emergency operation, the driver may do any of the following, while displaying a red

beacon 360 degrees and sounding an audible device, except:

a)

exceed the posted speed limit.

b)

pass a school bus that has its red light blinking.

c)

travel opposite the direction of travel.

d)

proceed through a red light with caution.

5.

The key elements of quality CPR in an adult patient include:

a)

hand placement on lower third of the sternum.

b)

compression depth of 2 inches allowing full chest recoil.

c)

compression rate of 100–120 per minute.

d)

all the above.

6.

You are called to a nursing home for an 82-year-old male complaining of abdominal

pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The

nurse states that the patient has been vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an

hour. His blood pressure is 90/40 mmHg, his pulse is 100 and regular, and his respiratory rate

is 24. Aside from the airway, what is your greatest concern?

a)

The patient will go into hypovolemic shock.

b)

The patient will have a myocardial infarction.

c)

The patient will have a stroke.

d)

The patient will become combative.

7.

You respond to a 15-year-old female in labor. Which of the following findings may

indicate the need for neonatal resuscitation?

a)

A patient with a blood pressure of 130/82 mmHg

b)

A mother who has had three previous births.

c)

A young mother who has not had prenatal care.

d)

A patient whose water has already broken.

8.

The supplies in your ambulance for childbirth include all of the following, except:

a)

a bulb syringe.

b)

sanitary napkins.

c)

large safety pins.

d)

sterile surgical gloves.

9.

Experiencing a strong emotional response after caring for a critical pediatric patient is

a normal reaction. If this occurs, you should consider all the following except:

a)

talking to other EMTs about your feelings.

b)

talking with a professional counselor.

c)

contacting your area CISM team.

d)

working through the stress alone with a few beers.

10.

If the heart’s electrical system fails completely and no electricity is created, this would

show _______ on a cardiac monitor.

a)

PEA

b)

ventricular fibrillation

c)

asystole

d)

ventricular tachycardia

11.

You are caring for an 18-month-old male with a fever. He experiences a seizure. Your

treatment should include all the following except:

a)

obtaining a good history of previous seizure activity.

b)

applying rubbing alcohol to lower the patient’s fever.

c)

providing blow-by oxygen.

d)

positioning the patient on his side after the convulsion ends.

12.

You are approaching a 47-year-old female who has bright red blood spurting from her

right leg. She is screaming, and she begs you to help. You should:

a)

ask her to calm down.

b)

control the bleeding.

c)

assess her airway.

d)

apply oxygen.

13.

A 21-year-old male has a serious open wound to the neck. You are concerned about the

possibility of an air embolism. An air embolism can occur because of:

a)

the higher pressure in the vessels of the neck.

b)

the high pressure in the chest.

c)

vessel pressure that is lower than atmospheric pressure.

d)

damage to the trachea.

14.

For the purposes of CPR, a child is defined as a patient who is:

a)

less than 1 year of age.

b)

age 1 year to puberty.

c)

age 1–8 years.

d)

age 1–17 years.

15.

A KED is appropriate to use in spinal motion restriction of a patient with signs of spine

injury who is:

a)

standing.

b)

lying on a firm surface.

c)

lying on a soft surface.

d)

seated in a vehicle.

16.

Your 21-year-old female patient is taking a drug that was prescribed to help regulate her

emotional activity and keep neurotransmitter levels from dropping too low. This type of

drug is an:

a)

analgesic.

b)

antidepressant.

c)

antidysrhythmic.

d)

anticonvulsant.

17.

The major components of the nervous system are the:

a)

cranium and vertebrae.

b)

muscles and tendons.

c)

brain and spinal cord.

d)

arteries and veins.

18.

You should consider using a SAM splint for splinting an injury to:

a)

the neck.

b)

the femur.

c)

the elbow.

d)

all the above.

19.

Use of a traction splint is contraindicated if your adult patient has:

a)

a knee injury.

b)

a back injury.

c)

a femur injury.

d)

no distal pulse in the injured extremity.

20.

If you apply a leg splint too loosely to your 22-year-old male patient, complications may

include all the following except:

a)

further soft tissue injury.

b)

an open fracture.

c)

excessive movement.

d)

immobilization of the adjacent joints.

21.

You respond to a burn patient at a house fire. On your arrival, one of the firefighters

is assisting a 36-year-old female into your ambulance. She is conscious and alert with

full thickness burns to both hands and forearms. She also has partial thickness burns

to her chest. Your treatment should include:

a)

soaking the burned areas in saline and wrapping them with a sterile dressing.

b)

carefully wrapping the burned areas with a dry sterile dressing.

c)

applying an antiseptic ointment to the burns to prevent infection.

d)

applying ice to the burned areas to cool them down.

22.

A bruise may be an indication of internal injuries and internal bleeding. It is important

for you to monitor your patient for any signs and symptoms of:

a)

low blood sugar.

b)

shock.

c)

infection.

d)

hypothermia.

23.

When force is transmitted to the body’s internal structures, causing internal organs to

rupture or bleed internally, the injury is called a(n):

a)

crushing.

b)

concussion.

c)

contusion.

d)

avulsion.

24.

Despite your best efforts to help, a 7-year-old child with a known airway obstruction has

become unresponsive. You should next:

a)

perform abdominal thrusts till dislodged.

b)

open the airway and attempt to ventilate.

c)

perform chest compressions.

d)

ventilate the patient for 2 minutes.

25.

Your care for a 52-year-old male patient taking blood thinners, who you suspect has

internal bleeding, should include all the following except:

a)

maintaining ABCs.

b)

fluids by mouth.

c)

control of any external bleeding.

d)

immediate transport to the appropriate facility.

26.

A blood vessel with thick, muscular walls that carries blood away from the heart is

called a(n):

a)

artery.

b)

capillary.

c)

vein.

d)

venule.

27.

 To minimize the delay in beginning compressions for a 62-year-old male in cardiac arrest,

the EMT should:

a)

open the airway while determining unresponsiveness.

b)

look, listen, and feel for breathing.

c)

check for a pulse at least 20 seconds.

d)

immediately begin chest compressions.

28.

In performing CPR, what is the rate of chest compressions per minute for a 58-year-old

female?

a)

At least 80

b)

At least 90

c)

100–120

d)

120 or more

29.

Which of the following characteristics may lead you to believe that the patient could

become hostile?

a)

The patient complains of a severe headache.

b)

The patient displays slow physical movement and slurred speech.

c)

The patient displays rapid speech and physical movement.

d)

The patient complains of chest pain.

30.

A 16-year-old male has ingested hallucinogenic mushrooms. He is vomiting excessively. He

agrees to treatment but does not want to be transported. Your next action should be to:

a)

contact medical direction and the patient’s parent.

b)

leave after advising the family physician of the situation.

c)

request that the patient sign a release form, after which you return to the station.

d)

stay with the patient until he has recovered.

31.

What is the ventilation rate in performing rescue breathing for a 6 year-old female?

a)

10–12 breaths per minute

b)

12–20 breaths per minute

c)

15–30 breaths per minute

d)

25–30 breaths per minute

32.

The depth of compressions in performing CPR on a 55-year-old male is:

a)

1 to 1 ½ inches.

b)

½ to ¾ inch.

c)

2 to 2.4 inches.

d)

¾ to 1 inch.

33.

Do not perform finger sweeps on an unresponsive infant with a foreign body airway

obstruction:

a)

because the patient may bite.

b)

unless your gloves are sterile.

c)

because the patient may cough.

d)

unless the object is visible.

34.

To prevent fatigue while performing CPR, how often should you switch positions with

your partner?

a)

Every five cycles of CPR

b)

Every minute

c)

Each time you deliver a shock.

d)

Each time you ventilate.

35.

Which of the following infectious diseases is often considered a childhood disease, but

can return in adults in a different form?

a)

Meningococcal meningitis

b)

Croup

c)

Varicella zoster

d)

Measles

36.

You suspect that your nearly unconscious 33-year-old female patient has ingested

sleeping pills and alcohol. She is breathing inadequately. You should be prepared

to immediately:

a)

give her oxygen by nasal cannula.

b)

administer activated charcoal.

c)

administer syrup of ipecac.

d)

assist her ventilations with a BVM device.

37.

The most important part of the treatment of your patient with an absorbed poison is to:

a)

neutralize the poison with vinegar.

b)

remove the poison from the skin.

c)

neutralize the poison with baking soda in water.

d)

administer activated charcoal.

38.

Your 32-year-old male patient is experiencing an allergic reaction after eating shellfish.

He denies breathing difficulty, and his vital signs are within normal ranges. You should:

a)

continue with your physical examination.

b)

 assist the patient in using his epinephrine auto-injector.

c)

give oxygen by nasal cannula.

d)

All the above

39.

Why do patients suffering from allergic reactions have difficulty breathing?

a)

Allergens use up oxygen molecules.

b)

Allergens destroy the respiratory drive in the brain.

c)

Tissues swell in the respiratory system.

d)

The cardiac rhythm is disturbed.

40.

A 12-year-old female patient complains of an “itchy feeling” in her throat. She also

complains of difficulty breathing. She tells that you a bee just stung her.

You suspect that she is suffering from:

a)

high BP.

b)

low blood sugar.

c)

an allergic reaction.

d)

an impending seizure.

41.

In what medication form does oral glucose come?

a)

Gel

b)

Oral suspension

c)

Fine powder

d)

 Slurry

42.

You are not sure whether your conscious 38-year-old female diabetic patient has

too much or too little sugar in her blood. What should you do if she has an altered

mental status?

a)

Treat only after determining the glucose level.

b)

Give nothing by mouth.

c)

Give glucose if she is able to swallow.

d)

Transport, since no other field treatment is indicated.

43.

Treatment of a conscious 12-year-old female with a history of diabetes may include:

a)

providing cardiac compressions.

b)

giving oral glucose.

c)

administering the patient’s prescribed insulin.

d)

giving low-concentration oxygen by nasal cannula.

44.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of nitroglycerin?

a)

The patient has a history of respiratory problems.

b)

The patient complains of chest pain.

c)

The patient has previously had a heart bypass.

d)

The patient’s systolic BP is less than 90.

45.

You are treating a 68-year-old male who states that he has not been feeling well

since returning home from his dialysis appointment. All the following are common

complications of dialysis except:

a)

development of an aortic aneurysm.

b)

bleeding from the site of the A-V fistula.

c)

clotting and loss of function of the A-V fistula.

d)

a bacterial infection of the blood.

46.

You are interviewing a 38-year-old male who is experiencing “severe and sudden

epigastric pain” that radiates to his shoulder. He says that it got worse when he ate.

Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a)

Ectopic pregnancy

b)

 Cholecystitis

c)

A hernia

d)

Renal colic

47.

_______ is an infection in the lungs that may lead to sepsis in elderly patients.

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Mumps

c)

Croup

d)

 Pneumonia

48.

A substance secreted by plants, animals, or bacteria that is poisonous to humans

is called a:

a)

chemical.

b)

toxin.

c)

narcotic.

d)

drug.

49.

Which of the following is a generic name for a prescribed inhaler?

a)

Procainamide

b)

Furosemide

c)

Albuterol

d)

Tolbutamide

50.

You transported a 58-year-old female who presented with a number of the signs and

symptoms of a stroke to the emergency department yesterday. You are talking with

your Medical Director about the call, and he tells you that the signs and symptoms

were completely resolved within the past 24 hours. This patient was most likely

suffering from a(n):

a)

altered mental status.

b)

transient ischemic attack.

c)

acute myocardial infarction.

d)

hypoglycemic incident.

51.

The relationship of glucose to insulin is often described as:

a)

oppositional.

b)

synergistic.

c)

a lock-and-key mechanism.

d)

antagonistic.

52.

Your patient is a child who is having difficulty breathing. The structure of an infant or

child’s airway is different from an adults in all the following ways except that:

a)

All airway structures are smaller and more easily obstructed in the infant or child.

b)

Their tongues are proportionately larger than an adult’s.

c)

The trachea is softer and more flexible.

d)

The cricoid cartilage is more rigid.

53.

Why could a prescribed inhaler be helpful for a patient who is suffering from asthma,

emphysema, or chronic bronchitis?

a)

Inhalers slow the patient’s heart rate.

b)

Inhalers enlarge constricted bronchial tubes.

c)

Inhalers reduce pain.

d)

Inhalers constrict bronchial tubes.

54.

Which of the following substances most effectively prevents the patient from digesting an

ingested poison?

a)

Salt

b)

Milk

c)

Activated charcoal.

d)

Narcan

55.

Epinephrine is a _______ drug name.

a)

brand

b)

trade

c)

generic

d)

marketing

56.

Compared with an adult’s airway structures, the pediatric patient’s respiratory system

includes:

a)

a narrower trachea.

b)

a softer and more flexible trachea.

c)

a smaller mouth and nose.

d)

all the above.

57.

You are about to apply a BP cuff to an unconscious female when you notice that she

appears to have a tube under the skin of her arm. The tube feels as though it has fluid

going through it. You should:

a)

move the cuff down to the forearm and inflate.

b)

continue to take the BP in the arm.

c)

use the other arm to measure the BP.

d)

use an automatic BP cuff instead.

58.

Suctioning in pediatric patients is not very different than suctioning adult patients. Both

rigid and flexible suction catheters have appropriate pediatric sizes. The difference is:

a)

Time stimulating the hypopharynx should be minimized.

b)

Infants are overly sensitive to vagal stimulation.

c)

Bulb syringes are used in the emergency childbirth setting.

d)

All the above are true.

59.

In dealing with a person experiencing a psychiatric emergency, why is it important to

gather a detailed medical history?

a)

It is not. You want to get the call resolved as quickly as possible, and this will

delay it.

b)

It will alert you to past issues as well as medications.

c)

It will help you to determine whether the police are needed.

d)

It will help you to determine whether you need to restrain the patient.

60.

An elderly female patient who is experiencing a myocardial infarction is more likely to

complain of which of the following symptoms than would be a younger male patient?

a)

Shortness of breath without chest pain

b)

Shortness of breath with chest pain

c)

Chest pain without shortness of breath

d)

No chest pain or shortness of breath

61.

Albuterol and epinephrine both have bronchodilation properties that improve the amount

of oxygen that a person can inhale and absorb. However, albuterol is administrated only

for asthma, whereas epinephrine is administered for both asthma and anaphylaxis. Why

is epinephrine, not albuterol, the first choice for anaphylaxis?

a)

Albuterol makes the heart rate increase too much.

b)

Albuterol slows down the heart rate too much.

c)

Albuterol drops the blood pressure too low.

d)

Albuterol is not a vasoconstrictor.

62.

You are called to the home of a 54-year-old male who is complaining of difficulty

breathing. He is alert and presents with hives over his chest, stridor, a swollen tongue,

and wheezing in the upper fields. His breathing rate is 32 times per minute and shallow.

He is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. What is the best treatment for this patient?

a)

Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control.

b)

Administering oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask.

c)

Administering oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask.

d)

Rapid transport to the nearest facility

63.

You are on the scene of a 74-year-old female patient who is complaining of posterior

chest pain that she states feels “like someone is tearing out my back.” What condition Do you suspect?

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

Congestive heart failure

c)

Aortic aneurysm

d)

Angina pectoris

64.

If you receive an order from on-line medical direction for 10 times the normal dose of a

medicine (e.g., 1,500 mg of ASA instead of 150 mg) you should:

a)

switch to another radio frequency to find another physician.

b)

question the physician about the order.

c)

follow the physician’s order as stated.

d)

ignore the order and do what you believe is correct.

65.

Your adult patient has a heart rate of 82, a respiratory rate of 16, and a BP of 120/80, and

does not appear to be in any distress. You should repeat vital sign measurements at least

every _______ minutes.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

66.

You respond to the scene of a 48-year-old male complaining of heartburn. He

says that it’s just his “acid reflux,” but his partner panicked and called 911 anyway.

What information would lead you to suspect that something more serious is occurring?

a)

The patient had a stroke 10 years ago.

b)

The patient has a history of gastric reflux.

c)

The patient is flushed and diaphoretic.

d)

The patient is hypotensive.

67.

 A secondary assessment is appropriate for:

a)

the trauma patient who is unresponsive en route to the hospital.

b)

the medical patient who is responsive.

c)

the trauma patient without a significant MOI.

d)

all the above.

68.

A 75-year-old female is unresponsive but still breathing. You should obtain pertinent

patient history information from:

a)

bystanders or family members.

b)

the family physician by telephone.

c)

the responding ALS unit.

d)

all the above.

69.

You arrive on the scene of a 53-year-old male patient. The ambulance was called

because he has had chest pain for the past hour. The chest pain in this situation is

referred to as the:

a)

major past illness.

b)

chief complaint.

c)

presenting diagnosis.

d)

call type

70.

A 65-year-old female patient complains of abdominal pain. While you are completing

a SAMPLE history, she tells you that she is not currently being treated by a physician

and takes no medications. You should:

a)

transport the patient to the hospital immediately.

b)

reassess the patient’s complaint and redo the primary assessment.

c)

palpate the abdomen to assess for tenderness.

d)

do a physical examination of the body systems involved.

71.

After arriving in the ED you should introduce the patient by name, summarize what was

in your radio report, and:

a)

provide history that was not given previously.

b)

discuss additional treatment given en route.

c)

update the vital signs.

d)

All the above

72.

You are assessing a 28-year-old male trauma patient who has no significant MOI.

After the primary assessment, you should:

a)

assess the areas that the patient tells you are painful.

b)

continue to assess every body part from head to toe.

c)

focus on just the patient’s airway and cervical spine.

d)

complete only the reassessment.

73.

The MOI is evaluated during the:

a)

scene size-up and primary assessment.

b)

reassessment.

c)

detailed focused exam.

d)

All the above

74.

You are caring for a 48-year-old female who sustained a head injury as a result of

a domestic dispute. You suspect that she has a closed head injury. You have been

monitoring her vital signs every 5 minutes, and you see that her BP is rising and

her pulse is dropping. This part of the assessment is called:

a)

modified secondary assessment.

b)

crisis management.

c)

trending.

d)

intervention check.

75.

You are treating a 52-year-old female for chest pain. You have gathered all pertinent

history of present illness, completed two sets of vital signs, talked with medical control,

and assisted the patient with two doses of her nitroglycerin. Determination of whether

the nitroglycerin was effective is made during the:

a)

primary assessment.

b)

secondary assessment.

c)

reassessment.

d)

primary and secondary assessment.

76.

In assessing the respirations of an infant, it is important to remember that the infant’s

respiratory rate:

a)

is the same as that of the adult.

b)

is usually slower than that of an adult.

c)

is usually faster than that of an adult.

d)

does not tell you much about the patient’s condition.

77.

You arrive on the scene of a car crash. The MOI suggests a rear-end collision. Which of

the following injury patterns should you suspect in the unrestrained driver of

the vehicle that was struck from the rear?

a)

Neck injury

b)

Chest injury

c)

Leg injury

d)

Arm injury

78.

Of the following scenarios, which presents the greatest immediate danger for an

EMT’s safety?

a)

Two women shouting at each other

b)

A college student who has overdosed on “angel dust”

c)

A longtime street alcoholic who is verbally abusive

d)

A young man who appears to be intoxicated

79.

When should you assess the scene for safety?

a)

Only at the beginning of the call

b)

At the beginning and throughout the entire call

c)

Only when needed.

d)

After the patient has been treated for life-threatening injuries.

80.

Which of the following questions will elicit your patient’s chief complaint?

a)

What made you call 911 this evening?

b)

Do you have any medical problems?

c)

How have you been feeling lately?

d)

Have you been drinking today?

81.

A 17-year-old male is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous

activity at school. He has taken several doses of his own bronchodilator with little relief.

Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will

increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the _______ in the patient’s blood,

helping oxygenate critical organs such as the brain.

a)

plasma

b)

hemoglobin

c)

white blood cells

d)

albumin

82.

You are responding to a 54-year-old female patient in respiratory distress. She is on

home oxygen by nasal cannula at 2 lpm. She has diminished lung sounds bilaterally

with wheezes. She appears malnourished and has a barrel chest. Which condition do

you suspect?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

 Asthma

c)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

d)

Congestive heart failure

83.

Your 70-year-old male patient is having trouble breathing. When you auscultate his lungs,

you hear crackles (rales), and you are concerned that he may have pulmonary edema.

His SpO2 is 92 percent, so you place him on 100 percent oxygen via nonrebreather

mask. His breathing gets a little easier with the oxygen. Later, as you are completing your

reassessment, you see that his respirations have slowed to 8 times per minute and he is

barely staying awake. What should you do next?

a)

Ask your partner to pull over and wait for an ALS backup.

b)

Assist the patient with using his metered-dose inhaler (MDI).

c)

Shake the patient to keep him awake.

d)

Begin ventilating the patient with a BVM.

84.

Your 79-year-old male patient appears to show all the signs and symptoms of a stroke.

His mental status has rapidly deteriorated, he is now unconscious, and he can no longer

control his own airway. While you intervene to manage his airway, the best position in

which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding his airway would be the _______ position.

a)

supine

b)

Fowler’s

c)

recovery

d)

prone

85.

Your patient is a 68-year-old female with a long history of emphysema. She is sitting up

in the tripod position and complaining of severe shortness of breath. You should:

a)

suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter.

b)

administer 4 lpm of oxygen via nasal cannula.

c)

insert a nasal airway and ventilate.

d)

apply a nonrebreather mask to administer 15 lpm of oxygen.

86.

A powder prepared from charred wood administered by some EMS systems to conscious

poisoning patients is called:

a)

Zofran.

b)

naloxone.

c)

activated charcoal.

d)

ipecac.

87.

A 19-year-old female is reported to have taken too many narcotic pain pills that were

prescribed for her recent elbow surgery. She is extremely sleepy with very shallow

breathing. Her color is pale, and her SpO2 is 84 percent. Her body is probably

attempting to compensate for her poor level of ventilatory effort by stimulating the

respiratory system to increase rate and tidal volume. Normally, respiratory drive is

triggered by changing levels of:

a)

carbon dioxide.

b)

oxygen.

c)

ph.

d)

glucose.

88.

The seat of the brain’s respiratory control is a section called the:

a)

medulla oblongata.

b)

foramen magnum.

c)

cerebellum.

d)

cerebrum.

89.

The type of muscle that controls your legs as you walk is called:

a)

voluntary.

b)

involuntary.

c)

cardiac.

d)

smooth.

90.

The vessel that carries oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium is the:

a)

posterior tibia.

b)

internal jugular.

c)

vena cava.

d)

aorta.

91.

In stroking the newborn’s lips, the EMT is assessing a nervous system reflex known as

the _______ reflex.

a)

Moro

b)

sucking

c)

palmar

d)

rooting

92.

When informing a 45-year-old male of treatment that is needed and the associated risks,

the EMT is asking for _______ consent.

a)

expressed.

b)

 mutual

c)

implied.

d)

emancipated.

93.

The set of regulations that define the extent and limits of an EMT’s job are called the:

a)

advanced directive.

b)

treatment protocol.

c)

scope of practice.

d)

duty to act provision.

94.

The role of the EMS system is usually found in:

a)

the state’s EMS enabling legislation.

b)

the state’s Good Samaritan act

c)

NFPA 423.

d)

CFR 1910.1030.

95.

An off-duty EMT is driving to a doctor’s appointment when he passes a major vehicle

collision. There are no EMRs on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The

EMT is late for the appointment, so he decides not to stop and help. The driver of

the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices the EMT license.

plates and writes the number down as he drives past. The Good Samaritan is angry.

that the EMT did not stop and help, and later tries to get the EMT fired for not assisting.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping.

b)

The EMT is negligent because the patient died

c)

The EMT is not negligent, because he had a doctor’s appointment.

d)

The EMT is not negligent, because he did not have a duty to act.

96.

For calls at which the physician cannot be present, there should be:

a)

a detailed plan for every action of the EMT.

b)

standing orders for the patient’s treatment.

c)

a chief officer present.

d)

a police officer on the scene.

97.

While not directly involved as EMTs, your family may exhibit reactions because of

their collateral involvement with EMS. These reactions may be due to:

a)

your unavailability to participate in certain social activities.

b)

your requirement to work some holidays and weekends.

c)

their inability to understand your emotional reactions to calls.

d)

all the above.

98.

Positive ways of dealing with EMS work stress include all the following except:

a)

requesting a busier work shift.

b)

exercising at least every other day.

c)

developing more healthful and positive habits.

d)

devoting time to relaxing each day.

99.

A 52-year-old man is experiencing a fight-or-flight situation, and his body is attempting to

compensate by increasing his cardiac output. How does the body do this on a moment’s

notice?

a)

By decreasing the pulse rate

b)

By increasing the stroke volume

c)

By increasing the heart rate

d)

By decreasing the respiratory rate

100.

The ratio of compressions to ventilations for single-rescuer CPR for adult, child, and infant

patients are:

a)

1 compression:6 ventilations.

b)

2 compressions:15 ventilations.

c)

15 compressions:2 ventilations.

d)

30 compressions:2 ventilations.