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PMA End of year review CSIII

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The table shows the number of neutrons, protons, and electrons for two atoms. How are the two atoms alike?

a)

They have the same charge.

b)

They have the same mass number.

c)

They have the same atomic number

d)

They are atoms of the same element.

2.

The diagram shows the arrangement of electrons in a neon atom. How many protons are present in this atom's nucleus?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

2

d)

There is not enough information to answer this question.

3.

In the diagram, the arrows labeled III point to the atom's ______________.

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Nucleus

d)

Electrons

4.

Elements with seven valence electrons —

a)

are highly reactive

b)

are highly stable

c)

have a high mass

d)

have a low mass

5.

The atoms of a certain element each contain 11 protons and 1 valence electron. Which statement correctly identifies this element and describes its chemical reactivity?

a)

The element is sodium, and it is highly reactive

b)

The element is fluorine, and it is highly reactive

c)

The element is sodium, and it is not very reactive

d)

The element is fluorine, and it is not very reactive

6.

Sulfur is a nonmetal. Of the following, the physical characteristic that is most

likely to describe a sample of sulfur is —

a)

a shiny appearance

b)

brittleness

c)

malleability

d)

ductility

7.

How many of each atom are in the compound above?

a)

1 magnesium atom, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

b)

3 magnesium atoms, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

c)

6 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

d)

3 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

8.

Which of the following is the best clue that a chemical reaction has taken place?

a)

Change in color

b)

Change in state

c)

Change in particle size

d)

Change in volume

9.

In this model, which particle determines the reactivity of this atom?

a)

Particle W

b)

Particle X

c)

Particle Y

d)

Particle Z

10.

Which table is correct? (use your periodic table and notes slides)

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
Where are earthquakes most likely to occur?
a)
In the middle of plates
b)
In the oceans
c)
Along plate boundaries
d)
Anywhere on the Earth
12.
Why does the Earth orbit the Sun and not a planet in the solar system?
a)
The Sun is more massive than the planets so it's mass causes the gravitational pull.
b)
It just happened that way.
c)
The Earth pulls the Sun toward it  because it is so massive.
d)
The Earth is closer than the other planets so the distance causes the gravitational pull.
13.
Some objects like the Sun produce their own light.  Others don't.  Why can we see objects that don't produce light?
a)
They absorb the light.
b)
They reflect the light.
c)
They transmit the light.
d)
They bounce the light around until it strikes our eyes.
14.
Suppose you find fossils of dinosaurs on an island but no fossils of bird or mammal fossils found on the continent it broke off from  This information provides evidence of _________________.
a)
global warming
b)
seafloor spreading
c)
mountain building
d)
continental drift
15.
In order to be an index fossil the fossil must
a)
exist for a short period of time over a large area.
b)
exist for a long period of time over a small area.
c)
exist in spotty areas around the world.
d)
exist, die out,  and come back into existence.
16.

How do folded mountains form?

a)

They form when plate boundaries diverge.

b)

They form on the continent side of convergent boundaries.

c)

They form when plates collide or push against each other.

d)

They can form several different ways.

17.
            are observations from which a
conclusion can be drawn.
a)
Predictions
b)
Inventions
c)
Data
d)
Discoveries 
18.
Which statement about opinions is
true?
a)
They are personal beliefs.
b)
They are a valuable tool used by
scientists.
c)
They are supported by evidence.
d)
They can be used to help write
a hypothesis.
19.
You are testing to see if music helps
plants grow better. You divide the
plants into four groups.

 Plant Groups Group Music Type
 A jazz
 B classical
 C rock
 D none
What is group D called??
a)
the model group
b)
the control group
c)
the population group
d)
the experimental group
20.
Which states of matter have volume?
a)
solid and liquid
b)
solid, liquid, and gas
c)
liquid and gas
d)
solid and gas
21.
Which statement best describes atoms? 
a)
They are made of molecules
b)
Some do not have protons
c)
They have a nucleus
d)
They can be seen with a regular microscope
22.
A girl collects rocks while at the beach.  She notices that the rocks are milky white and contain fossils.  What type of rock has she found?
a)
Sedimentary, because it contains fossils
b)
Sedimentary, because it is milky white
c)
Metamorphic, because it contains fossils
d)
Metamorphic, because it is milky white
23.
Which is an example of erosion?
a)
water sitting in a well
b)
magma rising in a volcano
c)
wind blowing sand on a beach
d)
heat melting rock underground
24.

Leticia is a space scientist who made this diagram of the Moon and Earth as seen from above (top view), with sunlight coming from the left, as shown by the arrows. Why does Leticia’s diagram show that it’s brighter on the left half of the Moon?

a)

Because Leticia’s diagram is showing that the half of the Moon

that is facing the sun is lit by the sun, and the other half is dark.

b)

Because the Moon has some lighter-colored rock and some darker-colored rock, and Leticia’s diagram is showing that the half of the Moon with the lighter-colored rock has rotated to the left.

c)

Because as the Moon gets closer to the sun more of it is lit by the sun, so Leticia’s diagram is showing sunlight on half of the Moon.

d)

Because there is a shadow from Earth falling on half of the Moon, and Leticia’s diagram is showing that shadow on the right half of the Moon.

25.

Tania went outside and made two observations of the Moon that were several days apart. Her observations are shown in the diagram above. The light part of the Moon appeared to get larger over time. Why did this happen?

a)

Between the first observation and the second observation, the Moon moved so that Tania was able to see more of the half that faces the sun.

b)

Between the first observation and the second observation, the Moon moved closer to the sun so more sunlight reached the Moon’s surface.

c)

Between the first observation and the second observation, the Moon rotated so that more of the light-colored rock on the Moon’s surface faced Earth.

d)

Between the first observation and the second observation, Earth’s shadow moved and was blocking less of the Moon so Tania was able to see more of it.

26.

The diagrams above show Earth and the Moon in different positions, as seen from above (top view). Sunlight is coming from the left, but these diagrams do not show what parts of Earth or the Moon are light or dark.

Could the half of the Moon that faces Earth ever be completely dark in any of these diagrams?

a)

No, the Moon is always lit by the sun.

b)

Yes, always in Diagrams 2 and 3, but never in Diagram 1.

c)

Yes, always in Diagram 2, but never in Diagrams 1 or 3.

d)

Yes, always in Diagram 2 and sometimes in Diagram 3.

27.

A student astronomer went out and took photographs of the Moon that were several days apart. Images that look like her photographs are shown above. The light part of the Moon appeared to get smaller over time. Why did this happen?

a)

Between the first photograph and the second photograph, the Moon moved farther away from the sun so less sunlight reached the Moon’s surface.

b)

Between the first photograph and the second photograph, Earth moved so its shadow was blocking more of the Moon so the student astronomer was able to see less of it.

c)

Between the first photograph and the second photograph, the Moon rotated so that less of the light-colored rock on the Moon’s surface faced Earth.

d)

Between the first photograph and the second photograph, the Moon moved so that the student astronomer was able to see less of the half that faces the sun.

28.

What keeps the planets in orbit around the sun?

a)

gravity

b)

friction

c)

density

d)

distance

29.
A person would weigh more on Jupiter than on the Earth because . . .
a)
Jupiter has more mass, and therefore more gravity
b)
Jupiter has less mass, and therefore more gravity
c)
Jupiter has more mass, and therefore less gravity
d)
Jupiter has less mass and therefore less gravity
30.

What two things determine the gravity of an object?

a)

mass & weight

b)

mass & distance

c)

density & mass

d)

volume & distance

31.
Any object with mass is surrounded by a gravitational field.
a)
True
b)
Sometimes
c)
False
d)
Never
32.

What is gravity?

a)

Gas

b)

A force

c)

A mass

d)

The atmosphere

33.

A measure of how much matter is in an object

a)

Force

b)

Matter

c)

Gravity

d)

Mass

34.

What two things determine the gravity of an object?

a)

mass & weight

b)

mass & distance

c)

density & mass

d)

volume & distance

35.

Which system has the greater gravitational attraction between the two objects?

a)

System A

b)

System B

c)

It is the same

36.

Which System has the greater gravitational pull between the two objects?

a)

System 1

b)

System 2

c)

Same

d)

There is no gravitational force between them.

37.

Hydroelectric energy uses movement of

a)

Wind

b)

Rain

c)

Sun's rays

d)

Water

38.

These are the basic building blocks of ordinary matter

a)

atoms

b)

protons

c)

stuff

d)

electrons

39.

Subatomic particles include

a)

wind, water, fire and earth

b)

all the matter on planet Earth

c)

protons, electrons, and neutrons

d)

any particle with a positive charge

40.

The nucleus of an atom is made up of

a)

electrons only

b)

protons only

c)

protons and neutrons

d)

neutrons only

41.

What type of charge do protons possess?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

42.

The atomic number of an element is determined by the

a)

number of electrons in the first shell

b)

how reactive the element is

c)

number of protons in the nucleus

d)

placement on the periodic table

43.

This scientist created our modern day Periodic Table of the Elements

a)

Chewbacca

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Albert Einstein

d)

Dimitri Mendeleev

44.

The elements farthest to the right are known as the

a)

alkali metals

b)

noble gases

c)

metalloids

d)

halogens

45.

Water is matter and we know that matter cannot be created or

a)

identified

b)

destroyed

c)

infiltrated

d)

cycled

46.

Darwin is considered to be the Father of

a)

Evolution

b)

Biology

c)

Ecology

d)

Geology

47.

This is key to species survival

a)

Genetic abnormality

b)

Genetic variation

c)

Genetic modification

d)

Genetic fluctuation

48.

Eukaryotes are cells that have a distinct and clearly defined

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell wall

c)

nucleus

d)

purpose

49.

Examples of Prokaryotes are

a)

archaea and bacteria

b)

plants and animals

c)

amoeba

d)

fungi

50.

The relationship between cellular respiration and photosynthesis is Photosynthesis makes the glucose that is used in cellular respiration to make ATP. The glucose is then turned back into carbon dioxide, which is used in photosynthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

A community is a

a)

the diet of a species

b)

a place where one species lives

c)

the same as habitat

d)

an interacting group of various species in a common location

52.

A tertiary consumer gets its nutrition by consuming

a)

primary and secondary consumers

b)

other tertiary consumers

c)

plants that get their energy from the sun

53.

A carnivore only consumes

a)

plants

b)

chili con carne

c)

meat

d)

vegetables

54.

A plastic stick is attracting small pieces of brightly colored paper. If the stick has a positive charge, then the paper that sticks to it must have

a)

A smaller charge

b)

A greater charge

c)

A negative charge

d)

A positive charge

55.

There are many forces acting on this car. Two of them are shown. What is the net (resulting) force?

Which claim is correct? The Net Force is...

a)

30 N to the left

b)

30 N to the right

c)

70 N to the left

d)

70 N to the right

56.

Which of the following discoveries is evidence supporting the idea of continental drift?

a)

the discovery of matching plant and animal fossils found on different continents

b)

the discovery of sea-floor rock patterns due to magnetic reversals

c)

the discovery that most earthquakes are near plate boundaries

d)

the discovery that rock age increases as distance from mid-ocean ridges increases

57.

Using the model in the picture, which layer of the Earth is represented by the Cork?

a)

Mantle

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Core

d)

Crust

58.

Using the model in the picture, which layer of the Earth is represented by the Water?

a)

Mantle

b)

Core

c)

Lithosphere

d)

Crust

59.

Using the model in the picture, which layer of the Earth is represented by the Heat Source?

a)

Mantle

b)

Core

c)

Lithosphere

d)

Crust

60.

Which of the following does NOT preserve fossils?

a)

Amber (tree sap)

b)

Ice

c)

Asphalt (tar)

d)

Magma

61.

The map shows the boundaries of tectonic plates in the South Pacific. Several cities on the map are labeled. A company wants to build skyscrapers in all of these cities. 

Name the three cities where earthquake-resistant technology would be most important in building these skyscrapers. Then explain why you chose these cities. Select the best answer

a)

Perth, Sydney and Osaka would need the earthquake-resistance technology because they are close to the water.  Earthquakes usually happen on the boarder of the land and water. 

b)

Shanghai, Perth and Sydney because they are all on the coast and most happen on the coast.

c)

Earthquake-resistant technology would be most important in Wellington, Osaka, and Shilong. The reason why I chose these cities was because they were closer to the plate boundary than the other cities. Earthquakes tend to happen closer to the plate boundaries therefore, these cities would most benefit from the earthquake-resistant technology.

d)

The cities that would need to earthquake-resistant technology would be Shilong, Osaka and Wellington.  The reason I chose these cities was because they are the ones that are closer to the middle of the land.  Earthquake tend to occur in the middle of land and those cities are the closest to the middle of land. 

62.

During a severe drought a dry lake was explored for fossils. The diagram represents the fossils uncovered and the layers they were in. According to this information, this area was once a

a)

Forest that was replaced by a fresh water lake.

b)

Saltwater sea that was replaced by a forest.

c)

Freshwater lake that was replaced by a desert.

d)

Freshwater lake that was replaced by a forest.

63.

Location 1 represents

a)

Convection Currents

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Rift Valley

64.

What is represented at location 2

a)

Convection currents

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Rift Valley

65.

What is represented at location 3

a)

Convection current

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Rift Valley

66.

The scientist Alfred Wegener hypothesized that all the continents were once joined together in a single landmass and have since drifted apart. This theory became known as

a)

continental drift.

b)

continental mass.

c)

land drift.

d)

land movement.

67.

Why does a red tomato appear red?

a)

It absorbs red wavelengths of light.

b)

It reflects red wavelengths of light.

c)

It refracts red wavelengths of light.

d)

It transmits red wavelengths of light.

68.

The diagram shows the waveforms for two sounds. Which statement about sound A and sound B is correct?

a)

Sound A is louder because its frequency is greater.

b)

Sound A is louder because its amplitude is greater.

c)

Sound B is louder because its frequency is greater.

d)

Sound B is louder because its amplitude is greater.

69.

When a light wave hits a surface, part of the wave bounces back in a process called

a)

reflection.

b)

refraction.

c)

resonance.

d)

repulsion.

70.

Which experimental observation would demonstrate the uniformity of gravitational force on an object at Earth’s surface?

a)

the constant downward displacement of a falling body

b)

the constant downward velocity of a falling body

c)

the constant downward acceleration of a falling body

d)

the increasing downward acceleration of a falling body

71.

You are planning an experiment to observe the relationship between magnetism and electricity. What question will least help you focus your research?

a)

How can I use electricity to change the strength of a magnetic field?

b)

What is needed to make Earth’s most powerful electromagnet?

c)

Can an electrical charge reverse the direction of a magnetic field?

d)

What happens to the magnetic field if I turn off the electricity?

72.

A sound wave is an example of a mechanical wave because a sound wave requires

a)

a mechanical device to be heard.

b)

a medium through which to travel.

c)

empty space through which to travel.

d)

a standing wave to be produced.

73.

Imagine an object is at rest. If two forces push on the object in the same direction, what must be true about the motion of the object?

a)

The object must remain at rest.

b)

The object must move at constant velocity.

c)

The object must accelerate in the direction of the forces.

d)

The object must accelerate in the direction opposite the forces.

74.

Suppose you throw a ball across a field, and the ball lands 10 m away from you. If you throw the ball again but with a much greater force you can expect

a)

the ball will travel the same distance.

b)

the ball will travel a shorter distance.

c)

the ball will travel a greater distance.

d)

the ball will travel half the distance.

75.

A fossil record can provide evidence of all the following except the

a)

environments in which organisms lived.

b)

genes of past life forms that are now extinct.

c)

past climates of different regions.

d)

extinctions of many kinds of organisms.

76.

An electric current produces

a)

a magnetic domain.

b)

a magnetic field.

c)

an electrical resistance.

d)

a permanent magnet.

77.

What are fossils?

a)

molds and casts of organisms that live today

b)

soft parts of ancient animals and other organisms

c)

footprints or burrows of small animals that live today

d)

the preserved remains or traces of organisms that lived in the past

78.

What is the movement of rock particles by ice, wind, water, or gravity called?

a)

abrasion

b)

erosion

c)

weathering

d)

uniformitarianism

79.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The revolution of Earth around the sun explains the occurrence of eclipses.

b)

Earth’s rotation in relation to the positions of the sun and moon are responsible for the occurrence of tides.

c)

The moon’s revolution around Earth explains the apparent movement of constellations in the night sky.

d)

The moon’s elliptical orbit is responsible for the occurrence of tides.

80.

Metamorphic rock changes to igneous rock by first going through which process?

a)

deposition

b)

crystallization

c)

erosion

d)

melting

81.

The thick fluid region of a cell located inside the cell membrane or between the cell membrane and nucleus:

a)

cytoplasm

b)

cell wall

c)

organelle

d)

golgi apparatus

82.
What is the name of the genetic material that is inside the nucleus?
a)
ER
b)
ATP
c)
YOLO
d)
DNA
83.

Plant cells and animal cells

a)

are both prokaryotic

b)

are both eukaryotic

c)

do not have a nucleus

d)

do not have DNA

84.

Check the three major differences between a plant cell and an animal cell.

a)

cell wall

b)

mitochondria

c)

large central vacuole

d)

chloroplasts

85.
This organelle helps plants keep their rigid structure. 
a)
Cell wall
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleus
86.

Small structures in the cytoplasm that do special jobs.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Organelles

d)

Vacuoles

87.

What 2 structures only exist in plant cells?

a)

Cell wall and Chloroplasts

b)

Cell Membrane and Chloroplasts

c)

Lysosomes and Cell wall

d)

Vacuole and Mitochondria

88.
In cells a large oval organelle that contains the cells genetic material in the form of DNA and controls many of the cells activities
a)
organelle
b)
ribosome
c)
cell wall
d)
nucleus
89.

This type of cell is lacking a nucleus

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

c)

both prokaryotic and eukaryotic

d)

neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic

90.

Powerhouse of the cell, organelle that is the site of ATP ( energy production ) and cellular respiration in plants and animals.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

91.

Small structures in the cytoplasm that do special jobs.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Organelles

d)

Vacuoles

92.

Which organelle only exists in plant cells?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Cell Membrane

93.

This organelle is the site of photosynthesis

a)

Cell wall

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Cell membrane

94.

Which of the following functions do all organisms share?

a)

They make their own food

b)

They must get rid of waste material

c)

They must hunt and chase their food

d)

They hibernate in the winter

95.

Joe is examining a cell under a microscope. Some of the structure Joe can see are a cell wall, mitochondria, a nucleus and chloroplasts. Based on what he can see, what type of cell is Joe most likely looking at?

a)

An animal cell

b)

A plant cell

96.

The total amount of energy in a system

a)

will stay the same.

b)

will change depending on its surroundings.

97.

What is the name when heat energy is released during a reaction?

a)

endothermic reaction

b)

physical change

c)

exothermic reaction

d)

chemical change

98.

What is the name when heat energy is absorbed during a reaction?

a)

endothermic reaction

b)

physical change

c)

exothermic reaction

d)

chemical change

99.

Emily slid down a sliding board. Where did Emily have the most potential energy? Kinetic energy?

a)

Emily had the most potential at the bottom and the most kinetic at the top.

b)

Emily had the most potential at the bottom and the most kinetic in the middle.

c)

Emily had the most potential at the top and the most kinetic near the bottom.

d)

Emily had no potential energy just kinetic during the entire slide ride.

100.

Frank jumps onto a raft in his pool. As he jumps, he moves forward as the raft moves in the opposite direction. Which one of Newton's Laws does this best demonstrate?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth