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RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 3hrs 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The expected survival of RA patients is likely to decrease 3–10 years.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

leading cause of death among patients with RA

a)

cardiovascular disease

b)

malignancy

c)

infection

3.

These seropositive patients tend to have a more aggressive course than seronegative patients.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

activate the complement system, which amplifies the immune response by enhancing chemotaxis, phagocytosis, and release of lymphokines by mononuclear cells that are then presented to T lymphocytes.

a)

Immunoglobulins (Ig)

b)

Activated T cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Activated B cells

e)

Vasoactive substances

5.

proinflammatory cytokines important in initiation and continuance of inflammation in RA

a)

TNF-α

b)

IL-1

c)

IL-

d)

Macrophages

e)

Immunoglobulins (Ig)

6.

produce cytotoxins and cytokines, which stimulate further activation of inflammatory processes and attract cells to areas of inflammation.

a)

Immunoglobulins (Ig)

b)

Activated T cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Activated B cells

e)

Vasoactive substances

7.

stimulated to release prostaglandins and cytotoxins.

a)

Immunoglobulins (Ig)

b)

Activated T cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Activated B cells

e)

Vasoactive substances

8.

interaction between cell surface receptors is called

(a)  

9.

produce plasma cells, which form antibodies that, in combination with the complement system, result in accumulation of polymorphonuclear (PMN) leukocytes.

a)

Immunoglobulins (Ig)

b)

Activated T cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Activated B cells

e)

Vasoactive substances

10.

a tyrosine kinase responsible for regulating leukocyte maturation and activation

(a)  

11.

Chronic inflammation of synovial tissue lining the joint capsule results in tissue proliferation or also called as

(a)  

12.

co-stimulation modulator

a)

golimumab

b)

abatacept

c)

tocilizumab

d)

rituximab

13.

IL-6 receptor antagonist

a)

golimumab

b)

abatacept

c)

tocilizumab

d)

rituximab

14.

depletes peripheral B cells

a)

golimumab

b)

abatacept

c)

tocilizumab

d)

rituximab

15.

used in patients with early disease of high activity and poor prognostic factors

a)

Hydroxychloroquine or minocycline

b)

Methotrexate, leflunomide, sulfasalazine, or combination DMARD

c)

Combination DMARD or TNF inhibitor with or without Methotrexate

16.

used in patients with early disease of high activity and high prognostic factors

a)

Hydroxychloroquine or minocycline

b)

Methotrexate, leflunomide, sulfasalazine, or combination DMARD

c)

Combination DMARD or TNF inhibitor with or without Methotrexate

17.

used in patients with early disease of low activity and high prognostic factors

a)

Hydroxychloroquine or minocycline

b)

Methotrexate, leflunomide, sulfasalazine, or combination DMARD

c)

Combination DMARD or TNF inhibitor with or without Methotrexate

18.

used in patients with early disease of low activity and poor prognostic factors

a)

Hydroxychloroquine or minocycline

b)

Methotrexate, leflunomide, sulfasalazine, or combination DMARD

c)

Combination DMARD or TNF inhibitor with or without Methotrexate

19.

Features of poor prognosis include

a)

functional limitation

b)

extra-articular disease

c)

positive rheumatoid factor or ACPA

d)

bone erosions

20.

IL-1 receptor antagonist

a)

minocycline,

b)

auranofin),

c)

anakinra

d)

penicillamine,

21.

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which is only a small portion of the inflammatory cascade

a)

Biologic DMARDs

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Non Biologic DMARDs

d)

Corticosteroids

22.

NSAIDs slow disease progression or prevent bony erosions or joint deformity.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Aspirin adult dose

a)

2.6-5.2 g

b)

200-400 mg

c)

150-200 mg

d)

0.5-1.5 g

e)

0.2-1.2 g

24.

Celecoxib adult dose

a)

2.6-5.2 g

b)

200-400 mg

c)

150-200 mg

d)

0.5-1.5 g

e)

0.2-1.2 g

25.

Diclofenac adult dose

a)

2.6-5.2 g

b)

200-400 mg

c)

150-200 mg

d)

0.5-1.5 g

e)

0.2-1.2 g

26.

Diflunisal adult dose

a)

2.6-5.2 g

b)

200-400 mg

c)

150-200 mg

d)

0.5-1.5 g

e)

0.2-1.2 g

27.

Etodolac adult dose

a)

2.6-5.2 g

b)

200-400 mg

c)

150-200 mg

d)

0.5-1.5 g

e)

0.2-1.2 g

28.

Fenoprofen adult dose

a)

0.9-3 g

b)

200-300 mg

c)

1.2-3.2 g

d)

50-200 mg

e)

200-400 mg

29.

Flurbiprofen adult dose

a)

0.9-3 g

b)

200-300 mg

c)

1.2-3.2 g

d)

50-200 mg

e)

200-400 mg

30.

Ibuprofen adult dose

a)

0.9-3 g

b)

200-300 mg

c)

1.2-3.2 g

d)

50-200 mg

e)

200-400 mg

31.

Indomethacin adult dose

a)

0.9-3 g

b)

200-300 mg

c)

1.2-3.2 g

d)

50-200 mg

e)

200-400 mg

32.

Meclofenamate adult dose

a)

0.9-3 g

b)

200-300 mg

c)

1.2-3.2 g

d)

50-200 mg

e)

200-400 mg

33.

Meloxicam adult dose

a)

7.5-15 mg

b)

1-2 g

c)

0.5-1 g

d)

0.55-1.1 g

e)

1.2-4.8 g

34.

Nabumethone adult dose

a)

7.5-15 mg

b)

1-2 g

c)

0.5-1 g

d)

0.55-1.1 g

e)

1.2-4.8 g

35.

Naproxen adult dose

a)

7.5-15 mg

b)

1-2 g

c)

0.5-1 g

d)

0.55-1.1 g

e)

1.2-4.8 g

36.

Naproxen sodium adult dose

a)

7.5-15 mg

b)

1-2 g

c)

0.5-1 g

d)

0.55-1.1 g

e)

1.2-4.8 g

37.

Nonacetylated salicylates adult dose

a)

7.5-15 mg

b)

1-2 g

c)

0.5-1 g

d)

0.55-1.1 g

e)

1.2-4.8 g

38.

Oxaprozin adult dose

a)

10-20 mg

b)

0.6-1.8 g

c)

300-400 mg

39.

Piroxicam adult dose

a)

10-20 mg

b)

0.6-1.8 g

c)

300-400 mg

40.

Sulindac adult dose

a)

10-20 mg

b)

0.6-1.8 g

c)

300-400 mg

41.

Tolmetin adult dose

a)

10-20 mg

b)

0.6-1.8 g

c)

300-400 mg

42.

inhibits cytokine production and purine biosynthesis, and may stimulate adenosine release

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

43.

taken with folic acid To reduce fetal deforminities

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

44.

increases AST and ALT and lowers CrCl; may result to hepatic damage with prolonged use

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

45.

teratogenic, and contraindicated in pregnant and nursing women, chronic liver disease, immunodeficiency, pleural or peritoneal effusions, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, preexisting blood disorders, and creatinine clearance of less than 40 mL/min (0.67 mL/s).

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

46.

inhibits pyrimidine synthesis, which reduces lymphocyte proliferation and modulation of inflammation.

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

47.

A loading dose of 100 mg/day for 3 days may result in therapeutic response within the first month.

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

48.

The usual maintenance dose of 20 mg/day may be lowered to 10 mg/day in cases of GI intolerance, alopecia, or other dose-related toxicity.

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

49.

often used in mild RA or as an adjuvant in combination DMARD therapy.

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

50.

causes alopecia

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

51.

It lacks the myelosuppressive, hepatic, and renal toxicities seen with some other DMARDs, which simplifies monitoring

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

52.

Periodic ophthalmologic examinations are necessary for early detection of reversible retinal toxicity.

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

53.

Antirheumatic effects should be seen within 2 months.

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

54.

inhibit metalloproteinases active in damaging articular cartilage

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

55.

It may be an alternative for patients with mild disease and without features of poor prognosis

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

56.

nonbiologic JAK inhibitor indicated for patients with moderate to severe RA who have failed or have intolerance to MTX.

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

57.

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)–approved dose is 5 mg twice daily as monotherapy or in combination with other non-biologic DMARDs.

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Minocycline

58.

Adverse Effects of TNF- α Inhibitor

a)

induction of multiple sclerosis (MS)–like illness or exacerbate MS

b)

exacerbation of heart failure

c)

increased risk of cancer

d)

risk for tuberculosis.

59.

Monitoring test for Abaracept

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

AST/ ALT

c)

CBC with platelets

d)

lipids

e)

neutrophil count

60.

Monitoring test for Tocilizumab

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

AST/ ALT

c)

CBC with platelets

d)

lipids

e)

neutrophil count

61.

Monitoring test for Anakinra

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

AST/ ALT

c)

CBC with platelets

d)

lipids

e)

neutrophil count

62.

Monitoring test for Tofacitinib

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

UA

c)

CBC with differential

d)

lipids

e)

hepatic enzymes

63.

Monitoring test for auranofin

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

UA

c)

CBC with platelets

d)

lipids

e)

hepatic enzymes

64.

Monitoring test for Gold thiomalate

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

UA

c)

CBC with platelets

d)

lipids

e)

hepatic enzymes

65.

Monitoring test for Azathioprine

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

UA

c)

CBC with platelets

d)

AST

e)

hepatic enzymes

66.

Monitoring test for Penicillamine

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

UA

c)

CBC with platelets

d)

AST

e)

hepatic enzymes

67.

Monitoring test for Cycloposphamide

a)

Tuberculin skin test

b)

UA

c)

CBC with platelets

d)

AST

e)

hepatic enzymes

68.

Monitoring test for Cylosporine

a)

Blood pressure

b)

UA

c)

Serum creatinine

d)

AST

e)

hepatic enzymes

69.

Abatacept usual dose IV infusion: <60 kg

a)

500 mg

b)

750 mg

c)

1000 mg

d)

250 mg

70.

Abatacept usual dose IV infusion: 60-100 kg

a)

500 mg

b)

750 mg

c)

1000 mg

d)

250 mg

71.

Abatacept usual dose IV infusion: >100 kg

a)

500 mg

b)

750 mg

c)

1000 mg

d)

250 mg

72.

Tocilizumab usual dose

a)

4-8 mg/kg IV every 4 weeks

b)

100 mg SC daily

c)

Oral: 5 mg twice daily

d)

Oral: 3 mg once or twice daily

e)

IM: 10 mg test dose, then weekly dosing 25-50 mg

73.

Anakinra usual dose

a)

4-8 mg/kg IV every 4 weeks

b)

100 mg SC daily

c)

Oral: 5 mg twice daily

d)

Oral: 3 mg once or twice daily

e)

IM: 10 mg test dose, then weekly dosing 25-50 mg

74.

Tofacitinib usual dose

a)

4-8 mg/kg IV every 4 weeks

b)

100 mg SC daily

c)

Oral: 5 mg twice daily

d)

Oral: 3 mg once or twice daily

e)

IM: 10 mg test dose, then weekly dosing 25-50 mg

75.

Auranofin usual dose

a)

4-8 mg/kg IV every 4 weeks

b)

100 mg SC daily

c)

Oral: 5 mg twice daily

d)

Oral: 3 mg once or twice daily

e)

IM: 10 mg test dose, then weekly dosing 25-50 mg

76.

Gold thiomalate usual dose

a)

4-8 mg/kg IV every 4 weeks

b)

100 mg SC daily

c)

Oral: 5 mg twice daily

d)

Oral: 3 mg once or twice daily

e)

IM: 10 mg test dose, then weekly dosing 25-50 mg

77.

AZT usual dose

a)

Oral: 50-150 mg daily

b)

Oral: 125-250 mg daily ; max 750 mg/day

c)

Oral: 1-2 mg/kg/day

d)

Oral: 2.5 mg/kg/day divided twice daily

78.

Penicillamine usual dose

a)

Oral: 50-150 mg daily

b)

Oral: 125-250 mg daily ; max 750 mg/day

c)

Oral: 1-2 mg/kg/day

d)

Oral: 2.5 mg/kg/day divided twice daily

79.

Cyclophosphamide usual dose

a)

Oral: 50-150 mg daily

b)

Oral: 125-250 mg daily ; max 750 mg/day

c)

Oral: 1-2 mg/kg/day

d)

Oral: 2.5 mg/kg/day divided twice daily

80.

cyclosporine usual dose

a)

Oral: 50-150 mg daily

b)

Oral: 125-250 mg daily ; max 750 mg/day

c)

Oral: 1-2 mg/kg/day

d)

Oral: 2.5 mg/kg/day divided twice daily

81.

antidote for heavy metal poisoning

a)

penicillamine

b)

azathioprine

c)

Gold thiomalate

d)

auranofin

82.

Initial monitoring test for NSAIDs

a)

SCr

b)

BUN

c)

CBC

d)

Serum salicylates level

e)

Glucose

83.

Initial monitoring test for Corticosteroids

a)

SCr

b)

Blood pressure

c)

CBC

d)

Serum salicylates level

e)

Glucose

84.

Initial monitoring test for MTX

a)

AST/ALT/ ALK-P

b)

Albumin

c)

total bilirubin/ SCr

d)

Hepa B and C studies

e)

CBC with platelets

85.

Initial monitoring test for Leflunomide

a)

ALT

b)

Tuberculin skin test

c)

Automated central perimetric analysis

d)

Color fundus photography

e)

CBC with platelets

86.

Initial monitoring test for Hydroxychloroquine

a)

ALT

b)

Tuberculin skin test

c)

Automated central perimetric analysis

d)

Color fundus photography

e)

CBC with platelets

87.

Initial monitoring test for Sulfasalazine

a)

ALT

b)

Tuberculin skin test

c)

Automated central perimetric analysis

d)

Color fundus photography

e)

CBC with platelets

88.

Initial monitoring test for Etanercept

a)

ALT

b)

Tuberculin skin test

c)

Automated central perimetric analysis

d)

Color fundus photography

e)

CBC with platelets

89.

Initial monitoring test for Inflizimab

a)

ALT

b)

Tuberculin skin test

c)

Automated central perimetric analysis

d)

Color fundus photography

e)

CBC with platelets

90.

Initial monitoring test for Adalimumab

a)

ALT

b)

Tuberculin skin test

c)

Automated central perimetric analysis

d)

Color fundus photography

e)

CBC with platelets

91.

Initial monitoring test for Certolizumab

a)

ALT

b)

Tuberculin skin test

c)

Automated central perimetric analysis

d)

Color fundus photography

e)

CBC with platelets

92.

Initial monitoring test for Golimumab

a)

ALT

b)

Tuberculin skin test

c)

Automated central perimetric analysis

d)

Color fundus photography

e)

CBC with platelets

93.

Initial monitoring test for Rituximab

a)

ALT

b)

Tuberculin skin test

c)

Automated central perimetric analysis

d)

Color fundus photography

e)

CBC with platelets

94.

monitoring parameters for kidney except for

a)

CrCl

b)

SCr

c)

BUN

d)

Rf

e)

AST/ ALT

95.

monitoring parameters for liver

a)

CrCl

b)

SCr

c)

BUN

d)

Rf

e)

AST/ ALT

96.

Can cause osteoporosis

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

97.

Can cause Thrombocytopenia and Leukopenia

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

98.

Can cause Elevated enzymes and Rarely cirrhosis

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

99.

Can cause Fibrosis and pneumonitis

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

100.

symptom: Lymph node swelling

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

101.

cause ocular toxicities

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

102.

causes Anorexia

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

103.

symptom: Photosensitivity

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

104.

Causes Leukopenia and Rarely agranulocytosis

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

105.

Causes Malignancy, GI perforation and URTIs

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Gold

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Penicillamine

e)

Cyclosporine

106.

Causes Proteinuria

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Gold

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Penicillamine

e)

Cyclophosphamide

107.

Causes dysgeusia

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Gold

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Penicillamine

e)

Cyclophosphamide

108.

Causes Lymphoproliferative disorders

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Gold

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Penicillamine

e)

Cyclophosphamide

109.

Causes Infertility

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Gold

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Penicillamine

e)

Cyclophosphamide

110.

Causes Hemorrhagic cystitis

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Gold

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Penicillamine

e)

Cyclophosphamide

111.

Causes Cardio toxicity

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Gold

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Penicillamine

e)

Cyclophosphamide

112.

Symptom: Chest pain and Respiratory difficulties

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Gold

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Penicillamine

e)

Cyclophosphamide

113.

Symptom: Urination difficulties

a)

Tofacitinib

b)

Gold

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Penicillamine

e)

Cyclophosphamide

114.

Causes Urticaria

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Leflunomide

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

e)

Sulfasalazine

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