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MP3 Review (Protein Synthesis & Evolution)

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The idea of evolution by natural selection was developed by

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Charles Lyell

c)

Jean Baptiste Lamarck

d)

Albert Einstein

2.

Darwin discovered 13 species of finch on the Galapagos. He noticed that they had different shaped beaks, and hypothesized that the different beaks developed due to

a)

predators

b)

their diet

c)

the tortoise population

d)

randomly developed

3.

One of the requirements for natural selection to occur in a population is

a)

all animals are the same

b)

acquired traits

c)

common ancestors

d)

variation

4.

Evolution is

a)

a trait that helps an organism reproduce

b)

the ability to survive and reproduce

c)

changes in organisms over time

d)

organisms that have better suited traits survive

5.

What is an acquired trait?

a)

a trait influenced by the environment

b)

a trait you are born with

c)

a trait that is in the DNA of an organism

d)

a trait that is passed from parent to offspring

6.

The ability to survive and reproduce is called

a)

evolution

b)

adaption

c)

trait

d)

fitness

7.

What happens to organisms when there is a big change in their environment, like a forest fire?

a)

organisms become extinct

b)

organisms die

c)

organisms with the best adaptations survive

d)

nothing, they just go on with life

8.

Natural selection is

a)

a process where organisms better suited for their environment survive and reproduce

b)

an inherited characteristic that benefits organisms

c)

a process of change over time to a species

d)

surviving and reproducing in an environment

9.

Which of the following is a vestigial structure?

a)

eyes

b)

hip bones in whales

c)

foot bones

d)

lungs

10.

Organisms are thought to come from species before them, these species are called

a)

fossils

b)

common ancestors

c)

humanoids

d)

siblings

11.

Members of the same species competing for food, mates, and resources

a)

struggle for existence

b)

struggle for extinction

c)

struggle for cardio fitness

d)

struggle for extermination

12.

Fossils provide evidence of evolution because

a)

fossils do not provide evidence of common ancestors

b)

fossils show how organisms lived

c)

fossils show how current species are similar to ancestors

d)

fossils come from rocks

13.

A natural variation that benefits an organisms is called a(n)

a)

fitness

b)

evolution

c)

adaptation

d)

acquired trait

14.

When a dairy farmer chooses to breed the cows that give the most milk, the farmers are demonstrating

a)

artificial selection

b)

natural selection

c)

evolution

d)

fitness

15.

Darwin observed that many organisms seemed well suited to

a)

being preserved as fossils.

b)

providing humans with food.

c)

swimming from South America to the Galápagos Islands.

d)

surviving in the environments in which they lived.

16.

Which of the following is NOT evidence of evolution?

a)

embryology

b)

biochemistry (DNA)

c)

acquired traits

d)

anatomy

17.

When a farmer breeds two corn plants to produce the largest, sweetest corn on the cob, the farmer is using

a)

artificial selection

b)

natural selection

c)

acquired traits

d)

adaptations

18.

Homologous structures

a)

are structures that are similar in related organisms that have a common ancestor

b)

do not exist in animals

c)

are structures that are similar in different organisms

d)

are structures that are exactly the same in organisms

19.

A structure in a organisms that no longer functions

a)

chromologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

homologous structure

d)

vestigial structure

20.

Analogous structures are

a)

anatomically similar with similar functions

b)

anatomically different with similar functions

c)

anatomically similar with different functions

d)

do not exist in animals

21.

True or False: Two organisms that have DNA sequences (ATCG's) in common share a common ancestor.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Small changes over time

a)

Gradualism

b)

Punctuated Equilibrium

c)

Rapid Evolution

d)

Artificial Selection

23.

Rapid bursts of speciation

a)

Gradualism

b)

Punctuated Equilibrium

c)

Rapid Evolution

d)

Artificial Selection

24.

What trait separates amphibians from reptiles?

a)

Vertebrate

b)

Four limbs

c)

Amniotic egg

d)

Hair

25.

What traits are shared between primates and amphibians?

a)

Vertebrate

b)

Four limbs

c)

Amniotic egg

d)

Hair

26.

Which species is the out group?

a)

Sharks

b)

Amphibians

c)

Rodents & Rabbits

d)

Birds

27.

Which two species have the strongest evolutionary relationship?

a)

Sharks

b)

Crocodiles

c)

Rodents

d)

Birds

28.

Which two species have the weakest evolutionary relationship?

a)

Sharks

b)

Crocodiles

c)

Rodents

d)

Birds

29.

Which type of selection pattern is shown?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Stabilizing

d)

Darwinian

30.

Which type of selection pattern is shown?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Stabilizing

d)

Darwinian

31.

Which type of selection pattern is shown?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Stabilizing

d)

Darwinian

32.

Which theory of natural selection is shown?

a)

Gradualism

b)

Punctuated Equilibrium

c)

Stabilizing Selection

d)

Disruptive Selection

33.

Which theory of natural selection is shown?

a)

Gradualism

b)

Punctuated Equilibrium

c)

Stabilizing Selection

d)

Disruptive Selection

34.
In DNA, Adenine pairs with ___________. 
a)
Guanine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
35.
DNA has a _____________ structure. 
a)
double helix
b)
single strand
c)
ring 
d)
chain
36.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
37.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
38.
DNA is found in ALL cells.
a)
True
b)
False
39.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
40.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
41.
What is common among all living organisms?
a)
DNA
b)
nucleus
c)
breathing
d)
movement
42.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
43.
How many codons are needed to specify for five amino acids?
a)
3
b)
5
c)
15
d)
30
44.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand: 
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
45.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
46.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
47.

What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA

a)

Met-Pro-Ala-Val

b)

Met-Pro-Val

c)

Tyr-Gly-His

d)

Tyr-Gly-Arg-His

48.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
49.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
50.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
51.
21 nucleotides will provide how many codons?
a)
3 amino acids
b)
5 amino acids
c)
7 amino acids
d)
9 amino acids
52.
Contains the bases adenine, uracil, cytosine and guanine
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
53.
Set of nitrogen bases that are complementary to one codon
a)
peptide bond
b)
polypeptide
c)
anti-codon
d)
amino acid
54.

Which term best describes this process?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

DNA Replication

c)

Meiosis

d)

Central Dogma

55.

What is the function of a chromosome?

a)

Chromosomes contain thousands of genes

b)

Chromosomes are found inside genes

c)

Chromosomes are found in DNA

d)

Chromosomes are found in mutations

56.

Label #1

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

Amino Acid

57.

Label #2

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

Amino Acid

58.

Label #3

a)

Anticodon

b)

Codon

c)

tRNA

d)

Amino Acid

59.

Label #4

a)

mRNA

b)

Polypeptide

c)

tRNA

d)

Amino Acid

60.

Label #5

a)

Anticodon

b)

Codon

c)

Polypeptide

d)

Amino Acid

61.

Label #6

a)

Anticodon

b)

Protein

c)

Polypeptide

d)

Amino Acid

62.

Label #8

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

Polypeptide

d)

Amino Acid

63.

Using the DNA fingerprint, which two bear species are most closely related?

a)

Bear 1 & 2

b)

Bear 1 & 3

c)

Bear 2 & 3

d)

All are the same species

64.

What is a benefit of cloning?

a)

Cloning healthy organs

b)

Cloning bacteria

c)

Cloning food is healhtier

d)

Cloning increases life span

65.

Why is the Human Genome Project important?

a)

Prevents mutations

b)

Helps identify criminals with DNA fingerprinting

c)

Identification of genetic diseases

d)

Helps identify paternity of a child

66.

True or False: GMO crops are always harmful to the environment and human health

a)

True, they require more pesticides

b)

True, they give food poisoning

c)

False, we do not know long-term effects

d)

False, they only harm nearby populations