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ISTQB Question Bank 621 to 660

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The test strategy that is informal and non structured is:
a)
Equivalence partitioning
b)
Validation strategy
c)
White box testing
d)
Ad hoc testing
2.
The test strategy that involves understanding the program logic is:
a)
Equivalence partitioning
b)
White box testing
c)
Black box testing
d)
Boundary strategy
3.

Which of the following details would most likely be included in an incident report?

<br>

I. Identification of the test item (configuration item) and environment.

II. Development process characteristics such as organization stability and test process used.

III. A review of the test basis, such as requirements, architecture, design, interfaces.

IV. Scope or degree of the impact on the stakeholders' interests.

a)

I, II and III.

b)

II and III.

c)

I and IV

d)

III and IV.

4.
What is the main focus of System Testing?
a)
Communications between the system and other systems.
b)
Ensuring that the system is fit for business purpose.
c)
The defined behavior of the whole system or product.
d)
The defined behavior of the whole system or product.
5.
Which of the following is NOT a test planning activity?
a)
Selecting test conditions based on an analysis of the test object.
b)
Scheduling test analysis and design, implementation and execution activities.
c)
Assigning resources for the activities to be performed.
d)
Making decisions about which roles will perform the test activities and setting the level of detail for the test procedures.
6.
The programs send bad data to devices, ignore error codes coming back, and try to use devices that are busy or aren’t there. This is a:
a)
Calculation error
b)
Functional error
c)
Hardware error
d)
System error
e)
User Interface error
7.
Which of the following are included as part of static testing (manual and automated)?
a)
Inspections, execution of the software, and walkthroughs.
b)
Inspections, walkthroughs, and comparison of expected to actual results.
c)
Inspection of work products and analysis of software artifacts using tools.
d)
Walkthroughs, simulation, and defect tracking.
8.
If a system is not functioning as documented and the data is not corrupted. What priority and measure are assigned?
a)
Priority 1: Critical
b)
Priority 2: High
c)
Priority 3: Medium
d)
Priority 4: Low
9.
A testing process that is conducted to test new features after regression testing of previous features.
a)
Operational testing
b)
Progressive testing
c)
Recovery testing
d)
Regression testing
10.

Which of the following are major test documents? (choose the best answer)

<br>

1) Test plan

2) Test case

3) Test design

4) Test procedure

5) Defect report

a)

1 and 2

b)

1, 3, and 4

c)

1, 3, 4, and 5

d)

All of the above

11.
For the following piece of code, how many test cases are needed to get 100% statement coverage?
a)

5

b)

3

c)

1

d)

2

12.

What is the actual and potential result when a human being makes a mistake while writing code?

<br>

I. A bug

II. A failure

III. A fault

IV. An error

V. A defect

a)

I, II, III and IV

b)

I, III and IV

c)

V only

d)

II, III and IV

13.
What test document contains all the information about a specific test case, including requirements and the modules to be tested?
a)
Test plan
b)
Test case specification
c)
Test design specification
d)
Test procedure
e)
Defect report
14.
Even though a test that once revealed many defects is part of the regression suite, no new test cases have been created for the module under test in a long time. What test principle is the QA team forgetting?
a)
Absence-of-errors fallacy
b)
Defect clustering
c)
Pesticide paradox
d)
Early testing
15.
Which best describes an analytical approach to testing?
a)
Testing is directed to areas of greatest risk.
b)
Testers study industry standards and base their testing on that analysis.
c)
Test analysis, execution and evaluation are concurrent tasks.
d)
ISO 9126 is used to guide the non-functional testing effort.
16.

Which of the following are most likely to enhance the formal review process?

<br>

I. Review software work products as soon as they are available and reasonably mature.

II. Ensure that reviewers have clear, predefined objectives.

III. Exclude customers, managers, and outside experts to minimize impact on problem solving.

IV. Make use of checklists during the review to drive the process and aid reviewers.

V. Conduct reviews just before coding and dynamic testing begins to find defects early and minimize costs of extra reviews.

a)

I, III and V

b)

II, III and IV

c)

II, IV and V

d)

II and IV

17.
Which of the following is TRUE of Alpha Testing?
a)
It is performed by potential or existing customers.
b)
It also referred to as 'field testing'.
c)
It is performed by customers at their own locations.
d)
Developers execute the tests.
18.

Which of the following are general risks of using test-support tools during the testing process?

<br>

I. Underestimating the amount of time needed to learn the tool.

II. Ease of access to information about tests will be decreased.

III. There will be an increase in repetitive work for testers.

IV. Having unrealistic expectations for test-support tools.

V. Using test-support tools when manual testing would better serve.

a)

I and V

b)

I, IV and V

c)

III, IV and V

d)

I and IV

19.
Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool?
a)
Test comparator
b)
Database model checker
c)
Coverage measurement tool
d)
Memory leak detector
20.

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

<br>

I. Regression testing and acceptance testing are alternative terms for the same thing.

II. Regression tests show that all faults have been resolved.

III. Regression tests are a good candidate for automation.

IV. Regression tests are executed to determine if side-effects have been introduced through changes to the code.

V. Regression tests are primarily performed in integration testing.

a)

I, III, IV and V

b)

III and IV.

c)

I, III and V.

d)

II and V.

21.
A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
a)
To build confidence in the application.
b)
To detect bugs in the application.
c)
To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
d)
To train the users.
22.
According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word ‘bug’ is synonymous with which of the following words?
a)
Incident
b)
Defect
c)
Mistake
d)
Error
23.
According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
a)
Negative feedback to the tester.
b)
Negative consequences that will occur.
c)
Negative consequences that could occur.
d)
Negative consequences for the test object.
24.
Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?
a)
Preventing defects in the system.
b)
Finding defects through dynamic testing.
c)
Gaining confidence in the system.
d)
Finishing the project on time.
25.
A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?
a)
Exhaustive testing is impossible
b)
Defect clustering
c)
Pesticide paradox
d)
Absence-of-errors fallacy
26.
According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
a)
To verify the success of corrective actions.
b)
To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
c)
To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
d)
To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.
27.
Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
a)
Understanding what managers value about testing.
b)
Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
c)
Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
d)
Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
28.
Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?
a)
Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
b)
Test principles only affect test execution activities.
c)
Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.
d)
Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.
29.
Using an error guessing test design technique to convert temperature (Celsius to Fahrenheit, and Fahrenheit to Celsius), experienced testers will MOST LIKELY use which set of test data?
a)
-1, 0, 89.6 and 212
b)
-40, 37.78, and 100
c)
-1, 0, 1 and 37.78
d)
-40, 0, 32 and 100
30.
Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?
a)
Objectives should be generic for any test level.
b)
Objectives are the same for each test level.
c)
The objectives of a test level don’t need to be defined in advance.
d)
Each level has objectives specific to that level.
31.
Which of the following is a test type?
a)
Component testing
b)
Functional testing
c)
System testing
d)
Acceptance testing
32.
Which of the following is a non-functional quality characteristic?
a)
Feasibility
b)
Usability
c)
Maintenance
d)
Regression
33.
Which of these is a functional test?
a)
Measuring response time on an on-line booking system.
b)
Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.
c)
Checking the on-line bookings screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.
d)
Checking how easy the system is to use.
34.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency changes?
a)
There is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process.
b)
Just run the retest of the defect actually fixed.
c)
Always run a full regression test of the whole system in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
d)
Retest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
35.
A regression test:
a)
Is only run once.
b)
Will always be automated.
c)
Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
d)
Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
36.
Non-functional testing includes:
a)
Testing to see where the system does not function correctly.
b)
Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability.
c)
Gaining user approval for the system.
d)
Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.
37.
Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?
a)
Software code
b)
Requirements specification
c)
Test designs
d)
All of the above
38.
Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?
a)
Gives quality information about the code without executing it.
b)
Checks expected results against actual results.
c)
Can detect memory leaks.
d)
Gives information about what code has and has not been exercised.
39.
Which is not a type of review?
a)
Walkthrough
b)
Inspection
c)
Informal review
d)
Management approval
40.
What statement about reviews is true?
a)
Inspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily.
b)
Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not.
c)
In a walkthrough, the author does not attend.
d)
Participants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly trained.