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Worksheets

DBA Review Quizzizz

Total questions: 197

Worksheet time: 3hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The diagram shows the general structure of an amino acid. Which type of molecule is formed from amino acids?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
2.
You are analyzing a compound in the laboratory. You find that it is made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of two hydrogen atoms for each carbon atom. How will you classify the compound?
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
carbohydrate
d)
nucleic acid
3.
Fats, oils and cholesterol are all types of what?
a)
cell membranes
b)
hormones
hormones
c)
lipids
d)
fatty acids
4.
RNA and DNA are which type of macromolecules?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
nucleic acid
d)
protein
5.
Many plants have waxy coatings on some surfaces. This coating reduces water loss because it is not water-permeable. This waxy coating is which of the following types of organic molecule?
a)
protein
b)
carbohydrate
c)
nucleic acid
d)
 lipid
6.
A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
7.
The human body maintains a temperature of around 98.6 degrees at all times. Enzymes are involved in almost every chemical reaction in the body. Which of the following describes the connection between these two statements? 
a)
Enzymes function best at a specific temperature.
b)
The body needs to be warm to prevent hypothermia.
c)
The body is kept relatively warm to prevent too much enzyme action. 
d)
There is no connection between the two statements. 
8.
Like complex carbohydrates, proteins are macromolecules that serve many functions and can be chemically broken down and restructured. Both proteins and complex carbohydrates are which of the following?
a)
 polymers of smaller subunits
b)
sequence of sugars
c)
lipids of large molecules
d)
nucleotides of DNA
9.
 In living organisms, lipids function mainly as:
a)
Sources of stored energy and transmitters of genetic information
b)
Sources of stored energy and components of cellular membranes
c)
Transmitters of genetic information and catalysts of chemical reactions
d)
Catalysts of chemical reactions and components of cellular membranes
10.
What is the function of macromolecule subunit below?
a)
energy
b)
catalyst
c)
stores genetic information
d)
composes the majority of the cell membrane
11.

What macromolecule is shown?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Lipid

12.

What macromolecule is shown?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Lipid

d)

Carbohydrate

13.

What is the monomer of a lipid?

a)

Amino Acid

b)

Fatty Acid

c)

Monosaccharides

d)

Glucose

14.

What is the function of carbohydrates?

a)

Short term energy

b)

Long term energy

c)

Storing genetic information

d)

Speeding up chemical reactions

15.

What is one of the functions of lipids?

a)

Storing genetic information

b)

Long Term Energy

c)

Short Term Energy

d)

Acting as chemical signals

16.

What is the function of nucleic acids?

a)

Short Term Energy

b)

Storing Genetic Information

c)

Long Term Energy

d)

Speeding Up Chemical Reactions

17.

What macromolecule is shown?

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

18.

What macromolecule is shown?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Protein

d)

Lipid

19.

What is one of the functions of proteins?

a)

Long Term Energy

b)

Short Term Energy

c)

Storing Genetic Information

d)

Speeding Up Reactions in Cells

20.

What macromolecule is shown?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Proteins

21.

What macromolecule is shown?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

22.

What macromolecule is shown?

a)

Proteins

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Lipids

d)

Carbohydrates

23.

Which of the following is a function of carbohydrates?

a)

Long Term Energy

b)

Storing Genetic Information

c)

Creating the structures that supports plants

d)

Speeding Up Chemical Reactions

24.

What element if the building block of life?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

25.

Which of the following is NOT a macromolecule?

a)

Fiber

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Monosaccharides

26.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
27.
In what part of the cell does photosynthesis occur?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Epidermis
d)
Vacuole
28.

What is cellular respiration?

a)

the breakdown of glucose to release ATP

b)

the breakdown of glucose to release carbon

29.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
30.

Which statement about photosynthesis is correct?

a)

Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis from water.

b)

Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis from soil.

c)

Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis from sunlight.

d)

Plants do not require energy to perform photosynthesis.

31.

Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?

a)

6CO2 + 6H2O → 6O2 + C6H12O6

b)

6CO2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O → O2

c)

6O2 +6H2O → 6CO2 +C6H12O6

d)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6H2O + 6CO2

32.

What gas is released by plants during photosynthesis?

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

hydrogen

33.
What is the purpose of photosynthesis?
a)
make glucose
b)
make ATP
c)
make light
d)
release carbon dioxide
34.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
35.
Cellular Respiration's goal is to
a)
make water
b)
make ATP
c)
make glucose
d)
make  oxygen
36.
The first step in getting energy in the cell by breaking down glucose is known as
a)
the Krebs cycle
b)
electron transport
c)
fermentation
d)
glycolysis
37.
The two main stages of photosynthesis are the
a)
light reactions and respiration
b)
dark reactions and the Calvin cycle 
c)
light reactions and the Calvin cycle
d)
dark reactions and fermentation
38.

Select all that are inputs for Photosynthesis.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

39.

Select all that are outputs of Photosynthesis.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

40.

Select all that are outputs of Cellular Respiration.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

ATP (Cellular Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

41.

Select all that are inputs for Cellular Respiration.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

42.

What is the best prediction of the relationship between light distance and the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

There is no relationship between light distance and the rate of photosynthesis.

b)

Distance between the light and the algae does not affect the rate of photosynthesis

c)

The more distance between the light and the algae the greater the rate of photosynthesis.

d)

The less distance between the light and the algae the greater the rate of photosynthesis.

43.

Explain the how the process of photosynthesis and cellular respiration cycle matter

a)

The outputs of photosynthesis are the inputs for cellular respiration

b)

The inputs of photosynthesis are the inputs of cellular respiration

c)

The inputs of cellular respiration are the inputs of photosynthesis

d)

The outputs of cellular respiration are the outputs of photosynthesis

44.

BTB was used to indicate the amount of carbon dioxide present in the test tubes. A plant was placed in each test tube. The test tube on the left was placed in the dark and the one on the right was in the light. Which of the following best explains the results?

a)

The solution in the right test tube became more blue because the algae was doing more photosynthesis and using carbon dioxide.

b)

The solution in the right test tube became more blue because the algae was doing more photosynthesis and producing carbon dioxide.

c)

The solution in the right test tube became more blue because the algae was only doing cellular respiration and producing carbon dioxide.

d)

The solution in the right test tube became more yellow because the algae was only doing cellular respiration and using carbon dioxide.

45.

If the amount carbon dioxide is increased what happens to the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

it increases

b)

it decreases

c)

it doesn't change

d)

it is not affected

46.

If the amount of glucose is increased for an animal cell, what will happen?

a)

the cell will produce less ATP

b)

the cell will produce no ATP

c)

the cell will produce more ATP

d)

the cell will produce the same amount of ATP

47.

Which of the following is an example of internal regulation during the cell cycle?

a)

A gap from damaged tissue next to the cell triggers cell division

b)

A cell receives a signal from the cell nucleus to divide

c)

Tumor cells continue to divide without receiving signals to start cell division

d)

Human growth hormone is sent from the pituitary gland to the cell to undergo cell division

48.

A(n) ________________ is the most basic unit of life.

a)

Atom

b)

Cell

c)

Tissue

d)

Organ

49.

A sea otter has 38 chromosomes in their body (somatic) cells. When one somatic cell undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes will a daughter cell have?

a)

19

b)

27

c)

38

d)

76

50.

What imortant cellular process occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?

a)

The cell duplicated its DNA

b)

The cell lines it choromosomes up in the middle

c)

The cell pulls the chromosomes to either end for cell division

d)

The S phase is not a part of the cell cycle

51.

Which of the following statements about stem cells is true?

a)

They are larger than regular somatic cells that can be used to absorb broken cells

b)

They are undifferentiated cells located in the brain stem

c)

They are undifferentiated cells that can turn into different cell types

d)

They are cells that grow uncontrollably

52.

_________________ is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cell cycle.

a)

Metastasis

b)

Checkpoint

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Cancer

53.

Substances or radiation that is known to produce or promote cancer are called

a)

carcinogens

b)

kinases

c)

cyclins

d)

malignancies

54.

While in the womb, the webbed fingers of an embryo undergo programmed cell death, also known as ____________________.

a)

apoptosis

b)

cytokinesis

c)

carcinogen

d)

stem cells

55.

What are the TWO purposes of meiosis? (SELECT TWO)

a)

genetic variation

b)

growth

c)

gamete formation

d)

repair

56.

What are the TWO purposes of mitosis? (SELECT TWO)

a)

genetic variation

b)

growth

c)

gamete formation

d)

repair

57.

Which type of cell division is shown in the diagram? Pay attention to how the chromosomes are being distributed.

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

DNA repliation

58.

Compare the number of chromosomes contained in a human body cell to a human gamete. How many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?

a)

the same number of chromosomes in a human body cell and human gamete

b)

the twice as many chromosomes in a human body cell and human gamete

c)

the on fourth as many chromosomes in a human body cell and human gamete

d)

the half as many chromosomes in a human body cell and human gamete

59.

During meiosis, the chromosomal bodies exchange genetic information during Metaphase I. The purpose of this process is to...

a)

Decrease genetic variation

b)

Increase genetic information

c)

Increase adaptations

d)

Decrease apoptosis.

60.

You view a mosquito cell under a microscope and observe that it only has 3 chromosomes. Would that cell be diploid or haploid?

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

61.

Why it is important that gamete cells have only one set of chromosomes?

a)

To increase genetic variation

b)

To make sure new offspring have the correct number of chromosomes

c)

To help increase species survival and adaptability through evolution

d)

All are correct

62.

The graph shows the 5-year survival rate percentages of patients diagnosed with cancer from 1985 through 1997. This data is for all types of invasive cancers and includes males and females of all races.

What is the trend in the data of cancer survival during the span of the time given?

a)

The survival rate of cancer is increasing between 1985 and 1997 indicating an overall increase of people surviving cancer.

b)

The survival rate of cancer is decreasing from 1985 to 1997 indicating an overall decrease of people surviving cancer.

c)

The survival rate has not changed between 1985 and 1997.

63.

How excited are you for spring break?

a)
b)
c)
d)
64.

WHAT DOES MEIOSIS CREATE?

a)

CHROMOSOMES

b)

GAMETES

c)

DNA

d)

TRAITS

65.

MEIOSIS IS NEEDED BECAUSE...

a)

IT ACTUALLY ISN'T, BUT CAN BE HELPFUL IN SOME ORGANISMS

b)

TO REDUCE THE CHROMOSOME NUMBER BY HALF

c)

SO THAT EVERY CELL IS EXACTLY IDENTICAL

d)

TO MAKE SURE EVERY HUMAN CELL HAS 92 CHROMOSOMES

66.

THE END RESULT OF MEIOSIS IS...

a)

FOUR UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

b)

FOUR IDENTICAL GAMETES

c)

TWO IDENTICAL GAMETES

d)

TWO UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

67.

THE GAMETES ARE CONSIDERED TO HAVE ONE HALF OF THE GENETIC INFO SO IT IS CALL

a)

DIPLOID (2N)

b)

DIPLOID (N)

c)

HAPLOID (2N)

d)

HAPLOID (N)

68.

THE STRUCTURE THAT CONTAINS THE DNA IS CALLED (CHOOSE THE MOST SPECIFIC ANSWER)

a)

CHROMOSOME

b)

CELL BODY

c)

CELL

d)

NUCLEUS

69.

MALE GAMETE IS KNOWN AS

a)

EGG

b)

SPERM

70.

A FEMALE GAMETE IS KNOWN AS

a)

EGG

b)

SPERM

71.

HOW MANY CHROMOSOMES DO HUMAN GAMETES HAVE?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

47

d)

22

72.

CROSSING OVER ALLOWS FOR WHAT TO HAPPEN?

a)

ALL CELLS TO STAY THE SAME

b)

GENETIC VARIATION

c)

REDUCTION OF CHROMOSOMES

d)

CHROMOSOME NUMBER TO INCREASE

73.

WHEN THE SPERM FERTILIZES THE EGG WHAT IS FORMED

a)

ZYGOTE

b)

EMBRYO

c)

FETUS

d)

FERTILIZATION

74.

FERTILZATION IS ...

a)

THE FUSION OF A HAPLOID EGG AND SPERM

b)

THE FUSION OF A DIPLOID EGG AND SPERM

c)

THE FUSION OF A HAPLOID EGG AND DIPLOID SPERM

d)

THE FUSION OF TWO EGGS

75.

WHY ARE THE CHROMOSOMES EVEN NUMBERED FOR ORGANISIMS?

a)

JUST A COINCIDENCE

b)

BECAUSE 75% OF THE INFO COMES FROM MOM AND 25% COMES FROM DAD

c)

BECAUSE 51% OF THE INFO COMES FROM MOM AND 49% COMES FROM DAD

d)

BECAUSE HALF OF THE GENTIC INFORMATION COMES FROM MOM AND HALF COMES FROM DAD

76.

THIS IMAGE SHOWS WHAT IS HAPPENING WITH THE CHROMOSOMES?

a)

NON- DISJUNCTION

b)

METAPHASE

c)

TELOPHASE

d)

CROSSING OVER

77.

The idea of non-disjunction of the 21st chromosome means the following:

a)

complete seperation of chromosomes

b)

complete seperation of genes

c)

failure for chromosomes to seperate

d)

failure for genes to seperate

78.

To find out how much variation an organism with a diploid number of 20 chromosomes would have you would need to do the following

a)

20^2

b)

2^10

c)

2^20

d)

10^2

79.

Chromosomes assort independantly, not genes because of the following

a)

The chromosomes contain the genes, genes can't leave the chromosome

b)

The genes contain the chromosomes

c)

It depends on the sex of the offspring

d)

In sexual selection of most organisms the genes will be directed by the DNA to assort independantly

80.

Explain the karyotype of this individual

a)

Male - no genetic defect

b)

Male - Down's Syndrome

c)

Female - no genetic defect

d)

Female - Down's Syndrome

81.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
82.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
83.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
84.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
85.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
86.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
87.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
88.
In pea plants, the tall allele is dominant to the short allele. What key would demonstrate this?
a)
Tall = T
Short = S
b)
Tall = T
Short = t
c)
Tall = t
Short = T
d)
Tall = TT
Short = tt
89.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
90.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?

a)

Yy

b)

yY

c)

yy

d)

YY

91.

What is the genotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

3:1

b)

1:3

c)

1:2:1

d)

2:2

92.

What are the phenotype percentages of the offspring?

(A-Brown fur color; a-white fur color)

a)

50 % Brown fur and 50% White fur

b)

25 % Brown fur and 75% White fur

c)

75 % Brown fur and 25% White fur

d)

0% Brown fur and 100% White fur

93.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
(Click the picture to see it without the text)
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
94.
If you cross a black guinea pig with a white guinea pig and the offspring are gray, what type of dominant trait would that be.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
codependant
d)
cooperative
95.

B=Brown fur

b=tan fur

What percent of the offspring would be tan when you cross BbxBb?

a)

75%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

96.
In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). If a rabbit has brown fur, what can you conclude about its genotype?
a)
It is BB.
b)
It is Bb
c)
It is brown
d)
It is bb.
97.
This punnett square shows a cross between
a)
A hybrid Parent and a Homozygous parent
b)
A heterozygous parent and a heterozygous parent
c)
Two homozygous parents
d)
Two Hybrid Parents
98.
This is an example of
a)
Complete dominance
b)
Mendelian Genetics
c)
Codominance
d)
Incomplete Dominance
99.
 One dog carries homozygous, long-haired traits (SS), and its mate carries homozygous short-haired traits (ss). Use a Punnett square to determine the probability of one of their offspring having long hair.
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
100.
Why are there no white rabbit babies?
a)
The white gene is not present in any of the babies.
b)
It takes two recessive genes to show the trait.
c)
Grey is a better color.
d)
Baby five will be white.
101.

How many alleles does a person carry for a trait?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

102.

How many alleles does a child get from each parent for a trait?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

103.
What do we use pedigrees for?
a)
To look at families
b)
To make determinations about the offspring
c)
To track traits in families
d)
Nothing
104.

In a pedigree, which shape represents a male?

a)

circle

b)

square

105.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ---

a)

not affected female.

b)

not affected male.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

106.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ----

a)

not affected male.

b)

not affected female.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

107.

How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

108.

How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?

a)

Brother and sister

b)

Dad and daughter

c)

Uncle and niece

d)

Grandfather and granddaughter

109.

The trait this pedigree traces is recessive because it skips a generation and individuals can be carriers. What is the most likely genotype for person III-3?

a)

GG

b)

Gg

c)

gg

110.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
111.

If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual 4 be?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

112.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
113.
There are no carriers for Huntington's Disease- you either have it or you don't. Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
114.
How are individuals I-2 and III-5 related?
a)
Grandpa and grandson
b)
Mom and son
c)
Uncle and nephew
d)
Grandma and grandson
115.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
116.
Huntington's Disease is a dominant trait.
What is the correct genotype for individual I-2?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
H_
117.
Does this pedigree show a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
118.
What is the genotype of the mother?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
d)
BB or Bb
119.
What is the genotype of the father?
a)
AA
b)
aa
c)
Aa
d)
AA or aa
120.

Generation 2 individuals 5 and 6 are

a)

brother and sister.

b)

cousins.

c)

married.

d)

not related.

121.
Which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
122.
Which of the following is the blueprint for the production of RNA within a cell?
a)
DNA
b)
protein
c)
ATO
d)
carbohydrate
123.
The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this message?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
12
d)
20
124.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA controls the production of protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
125.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
126.
The diagram shows the process of
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Mitosis
127.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
ribosome
c)
cytoplasm
d)
smooth ER
128.
Where does translation take place?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Golgi Body
d)
Cytoplasm
129.
DNA sequence is ACAGTGC. How would this be coded on mRNA?
a)
TGTCACG
b)
UGUCACG
c)
GUGACAU
d)
CACUGUA
130.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding RNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil
b)
RNA can only be found inside the nucleus
c)
RNA is single stranded
d)
RNA contains genetic information
131.
What nitrogen base is in DNA but NOT RNA?
a)
uracil
b)
thymine
c)
guanine
d)
adenine
132.
This cannot leave the nucleus
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
133.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAA
a)
ACCGTT
b)
UGGCAA
c)
UCCGUU
d)
ACCGUU
134.
Carries the genetic code to the ribosome
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
135.
Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?
a)
protein synthesis, transcription, translation
b)
protein synthesis, translation, transcription
c)
transcription, translation, protein synthesis
d)
translation, transcription, protein synthesis
136.

A virus consists of:

a)

RNA or DNA and a cell membrane

b)

RNA or DNA and a protein coat

c)

RNA and DNA and a protein coat

d)

proteins, cell membrane, and RNA

137.

What happens after the virus has been taken up by the cell?

a)

it begins making protein

b)

it divides, or replicates

c)

it inserts into the host DNA

d)

it switches to infectious mode

138.

What is the outside protective coating of a virus made of?

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

protein

d)

carbon

139.

What reason do scientists give for saying that viruses are not living organisms?

a)

they cannot reproduce without the aid of a host

b)

they do not metabolize food into energy

c)

they do not have organized cells

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

140.

True or False: Most viruses are so small that they can't be seen with with the unaided eye (basically saying we can't see them unless we have a microscope)

a)

True

b)

False

141.

What happens in the lytic cycle?

a)

the spacecraft shaped virus attaches to the host cell then leaves

b)

the spacecraft virus kills the host cell

c)

the spacecraft shaped virus attaches to the host cells and as it leaves it kills the host cell

d)

the spacecraft virus attaches to the host cell injects DNA as the virus leaves it kills the host cell

142.

What happens in the lysogenic cycle?

a)

A virus injects DNA into a host cell

b)

Bacteria injects genetic material into a host cell

c)

Bacteria injects DNA into a host cell

d)

A virus injects its genetic material into a host cell

143.

Why do viruses need a host cell?

a)

because they aren't living

b)

because they need to reproduce

c)

because they can't live without a host cell

144.

What does the lytic cycle result in?

a)

destruction of the infected cell and the membrane

b)

multiple new cells

c)

people going in sane

145.

What is the outside, protein coat on a virus called?

a)

genetic material

b)

capsid

c)

envelope

d)

tail fibers

146.

Viral DNA that is incorporated into a host cell's chromosome is called a

a)

provirus

b)

plasmid

c)

party animal

d)

prophage

147.

What does the term 'obligate intracellular parasite' mean?

a)

does not need a host to survive

b)

needs a host to survive

148.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

149.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

150.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

151.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

152.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

153.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

154.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

155.

Identify the DELETION mutation form the following:

ATG CCA AAT

a)

ATG TCA AAT

b)

ATG CCT AAA T

c)

ATC CA AT

d)

ATG CCA AAT

156.

Which mutation will cause translation to stop?

a)

Mutations 1 and 3 only

b)

Mutation 1 only

c)

Mutation 2 only

d)

Muations 1, 2, 3

157.

Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

a)

Deletion

b)

Substitution

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

158.
Natural disasters such as flooding and tornadoes are linked to ________________.
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
old field
d)
ecosystem
159.
How do lichens contribute to primary succession?
a)
Lichens decompose organic matter from animals and plants
b)
Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil
c)
Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria
d)
Lichens convert carbohydrates into fossil fuels.
160.
What is formed during primary succession that doesn't need to be formed during secondary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
soil
c)
climax community
d)
lichens
161.
After a forest fire, an ecosystem would start regrowth through -
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
climax community
d)
limiting factors
162.
succession that occurs in an area with no soil
a)
ecological succession 
b)
primary succession 
c)
secondary succession
d)
pioneer speciles
163.

Which experiences the least change over time?

a)

Pioneer Species

b)

Primary Succession

c)

Aquatic Succession

d)

Climax Community

164.

Which of the following best describes primary succession?

a)

Volcano wipes out ecosystem that gradually grows back from ash covered soil

b)

Volcano creates a new island of rock that must break down to form an ecosystem

c)

Forest fire burns down forest that must bounce back over time

d)

Tornado destroys a crop that must slowly grow back over time.

165.

If farmers use a controlled burn to prevent forest fires, what would most likely be the first plants to return?

a)

trees

b)

shrubs

c)

mosses

d)

grasses

166.

Which would most likely result in primary succession?

a)

old forest growing

b)

undisturbed prairie

c)

pollution kills mountain lake species

d)

a Newly formed volcanic island

167.

Primary succession occurs in areas with:

a)

very little soil

b)

lots of soil

c)

no soil

d)

soil that has been disturbed

168.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
169.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
ecological succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
170.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
171.
What are examples of pioneer species in a primary succession?
a)
Bushes and Shrubs
b)
Oak trees
c)
Mossess and Lichens 
d)
A rose Bush
172.
After a volcanic eruption, lava covers the land. What is the order that plants grow to repopulate the area?
a)
Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees
b)
Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses
c)
Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees
d)
Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees
173.
What is the most important function of pioneer species?
a)
To create rocks
b)
To create soil and add nutrients to the environment 
c)
To look nice
d)
Food for animals 
174.
this type of succession occurs after a forest fire
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
both
175.
This is the process that forms a new ecosystem where no organisms lived before.
a)
resource
b)
invasive (non- native) species
c)
primary succession
d)
competition
176.
This is an example of...
a)
Climax communities
b)
Secondary succession
c)
Lichen
d)
Pioneer species
177.

What is an example of a disturbance that could bring about secondary succession?

a)

Humans cut down many trees in a small region

b)

A volcanic eruption covers a village in lava.

178.

What type of disturbance can be beneficial to ecosystems and communities?

a)

Volcanic Eruption

b)

Fire

c)

Invasive Species

d)

Flood

179.
Which best describes what a food chain shows you?
a)
Energy flow through an ecosystem
b)
Food flowing through an ecosystem
c)
Consumers going into other consumers
d)
Who eats who
180.
What are plants called in a food chain?
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Scavengers
181.
What are animals called in a food chain?
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Plants
182.
What are the organisms that break down dead stuff?
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Organisms
183.
Where does the energy start in this food chain?
a)
Plant
b)
Sun
c)
Deer
d)
Wolf
184.
What is the role of a producer?
a)
Use sunlight to make food
b)
Gain energy from eating other organisms
c)
Keep other species from overpopulating
d)
Breaking down dead stuff 
185.
What's the role of consumers in a food chain?
a)
Use sunlight to make food 
b)
Eat other species and keep them from overpopulating
c)
Break down dead stuff
d)
Add nutrients to the soil
186.
What is the role of decomposers in a food chain?
a)
Use sunlight to make food
b)
Eat other organisms to gain energy
c)
Make the food for the whole food chain
d)
Break down dead organisms and add nutrients to the soil
187.
Which of these organisms would receive energy from the snake?
a)
Plant
b)
Rabbit
c)
Mouse
d)
Hawk
188.
Which type of consumer eats plants only?
a)
Herbivores
b)
Omnivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Scavengers
189.
Which type of consumer eats meat only?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Omnivores
190.
Which type of consumer eats meat and plants?
a)
Herbivores
b)
Carnivores
c)
Omnivores
d)
Plants
191.
Which type of consumer is always a first consumer?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Carnivore
d)
Producer
192.
Which type of consumer could be a first or second consumer?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Carnivore
d)
Producer
193.
Which is the correct food chain order?
a)
Plant-->1st Consumer--> 2nd Consumer 
b)
Plant <-- 1st Consumer <-- 2nd Consumer
c)
2nd consumer     --> 1st consumer  --> Plant
d)
1st Consumer      --> 2nd consumer --> Plant
194.
Which of the following is a producer?
a)
Maple tree
b)
Sunfish
c)
Bunny
d)
Bear
195.
Which of these is a decomposer?
a)
Fungi
b)
Hawk
c)
Dog
d)
Grass
196.
True/False
Food webs show you everything an animal eats. Food chains show you one thing.
a)
True
b)
False
197.
Which of these is true about this food web?
a)
The Owl gets its energy from the producer.
b)
The Lion gets its energy only from a wild cat.
c)
The Kite gets its energy from the goat.
d)
The Mouse is most likely to die, several ways.

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