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TA Theory

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who developed the theory of Transactional Analysis?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

Tom Hanks

c)

Eric Berne

d)

John B. Watson

2.

Which ego state would you be in if you say, "you must"?

a)

Parent

b)

Adult

c)

Child

3.

What ego state would you be in if you said, " I can "?

a)

Parent

b)

Adult

c)

Child

4.

Which ego state would you be in if you said, " I wish"?

a)

Parent

b)

Adult

c)

Child

5.

Which type of ego state would you be in if you said, " I want"?

a)

Parent

b)

Adult

c)

Child

6.

Which ego state would you be in if you said, "I will"?

a)

Parent

b)

Adult

c)

Child

7.

What ego state would you be in if you said, " I need "?

a)

Parent

b)

Adult

c)

Child

8.

Which one is NOT a pane of Johari Window model?

a)

blind spot

b)

unknown area

c)

hidden area

d)

changing area

9.

How to enlarge the open arena?

a)

by giving time

b)

by giving disclosure

c)

by giving focus

d)

by giving exposure

10.

The unknown area of Johari Window is ___________.

a)

the same as the blind area.

b)

made up of private feelings & needs you don't want to share

c)

an area you need to enlarge in order to build friendships.

d)

an area that you don't know completely & never disappears.

11.

Blind spot in Johari Window means _________.

a)

the information is known by all

b)

the information is known by you only

c)

the information is known by others only

d)

the information is not known by anyone

12.

A (a)   is a simplified representation or abstraction of reality.

13.

A decision support system models (a)   to support managers and business professionals during the decision-making process.

14.

(a)   analysis occurs when users change the value of one variable repeatedly and observe the resulting changes in other variables.

15.

What-if analysis checks the impact of a (a)   in an assumption on the proposed solution.

16.

(a)   systems are computerized advisory programs that imitate the reasoning processes of experts in solving difficult problems.

17.

The ultimate goal of AI is the ability to build a system that can mimic human intelligence.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

A genetic algorithm is an artificial intelligence system that mimics the evolutionary, survival-of-the-fittest process to generate increasingly better solutions to a problem.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Sensitivity analysis, what-if analysis, and market basket analysis are the three quantitative models typically used by a DSS.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Consolidation, drill-down, and association detection are the three most common capabilities offered in an EIS.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Moving up through the organizational pyramid users move from requiring analytical information to transactional information.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which of the following is not a reason for the growth of decision-making information systems?

a)

People need to analyze large amounts of information

b)

People no longer have to worry about protecting the corporate asset of organizational information

c)

People must apply sophisticated analysis techniques to make good decisions

d)

People must make decisions quickly

23.

What can a model accomplish?

a)

Calculate risks

b)

Understand uncertainty

c)

Manipulate time

d)

All of the above

24.

What is consolidation?

a)

Involves the aggregation of information and features simple roll-ups to complex groupings of interrelated information.

b)

The ability to look at information from different perspectives

c)

Enables users to get details, and details of details, of information

d)

Finds the inputs necessary to achieve a goal such as a desired level of output

25.

What is a category of AI that attempts to emulate the way the human brain works?

a)

Intelligent system

b)

Artificial intelligence

c)

Neural network

d)

Expert systems

26.

Which of the following is the most commonly used form of AI in the business arena?

a)

Intelligent system

b)

Artificial intelligence

c)

Neural network

d)

Expert system

27.

What is a technique used to divide an information set into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible?

a)

Association detection

b)

Market basket analysis

c)

Cluster analysis

d)

Intelligent agent

28.

Which of the following represents market basket analysis?

a)

Analyzes Web site information

b)

Analyzes checkout scanner information

c)

Detects customers’ buying behavior

d)

All of the above

29.

What is time-series information?

a)

Analyzes checkout scanner information

b)

Time-stamped information collected at a particular frequency

c)

Reveals the degree to which variables are related

d)

Detects customers’ buying behavior

30.

Which of the following is an incorrect enterprise view of information technology?

a)

Processes are analytical for executives and transactional for analysts

b)

Granularity is coarse for executives and fine for analysts

c)

Processing is OLTP for executives and OLAP for analysts

d)

None of the above

31.

Which of the following represents the top-down (executives to analysts) organizational levels of information technology systems?

a)

TPS, DSS, EIS

b)

DSS, TPS, EIS

c)

EIS, DSS, TPS

d)

None of the above, it varies from organization to organization

32.

What is the definition of a transformational leader?

a)

Give benefits to your followers

b)

Inspirational, influential and charismatic person

33.

What do you achieve with transactional leadership?

a)

Followers are motivated with rewards for reaching goals

b)

Knowledge is shared and created at the group level

34.

What are the stages of the transformation process?

a)

Make a compelling case, inspire a shared vision, lead the transition, implement change

b)

Conduct an analysis, ask questions to the team, implement change

c)

Implement change, receive feedback, study the case to change

35.

Which of the two leaderships seems better to you?

a)

Transformation Leadership

b)

Transactional Leadership

36.

Which of the two leaderships is this?

a)

Transactional Leadership

b)

Transformational Leadership

37.

En. Arif is a human resource manager with his company. Currently he is estimating the demand for employees, as well as the available supply. He is currently engaged in ______________

a)

Forecasting

b)

Hiring

c)

Recruiting

d)

Evaluating

38.

A _____________ summarizes job tasks, while a ______________ explains knowledge and abilities necessary for the job.

a)

Job analysis; job description

b)

Job description; job specification

c)

Job specification; job analysis

d)

Job specification; job description

39.

Which of the following are NOT formal types of employee training program?

a)

Orientations

b)

Corporate boot camps

c)

Intranet self study programs

d)

On the job training

40.

Another word for outsource is _________________

a)

Subcontract

b)

Layoff

c)

Fire

d)

Intrapreneur

41.

________ is the process of gathering information about the demands, responsibilities and worker requirements of each position in the organization.

a)

Employee orientation

b)

Performance monitoring

c)

Compensation analysis

d)

Job analysis

42.

The ________ is a metaphor for discriminatory practices that have prevented women and minorities from advancing to executive level jobs.

a)

high hurtle

b)

glass ceiling

c)

transparent entryway

d)

wall of denial

43.

________ include all the elements and processes from transforming raw materials to making the final products available to the ultimate customer.

a)

Customer chains

b)

Supply webs

c)

Value chains

d)

Supply chains

44.

________ refers to contracting out certain business functions or operations to other companies.

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Scaling

c)

Rescaling

d)

Customization

45.

A supply chain ________.

a)

cannot be distinct for different departments

b)

is applicable for services rather than goods

c)

has only two components

d)

coordinates the flow of goods and materials

46.

________ refers to determining the right quantities of supplies and products to have on hand and tracking where those items are.

a)

Customer relationship management

b)

Summative evaluation

c)

Quality control

d)

Inventory control

47.

The period of time between placing an order for supplies and receiving the material is called ________.

a)

process forecast

b)

run time

c)

lead time

d)

lag time

48.

________ refers to overseeing all the activities involved in producing goods and services.

a)

Facilities management

b)

Capacity planning

c)

Procurement

d)

Operations management

49.

The transformation of resources into goods or services that people need or want is refer to ____________.

a)

Production

b)

Facility Layout

50.

_________The arrangement of production work centers and other elements such as materials, equipment and support departments) needed to process goods and services.

a)

Facility Layout

b)

Six Sigma

51.

Bar chart showing the amount of time required to accomplish each part of the process is known as _______.

a)

360 degree Review

b)

Gantt Chart

52.

__________is tool to solicits feedback from colleagues above below and around the employee to provide observations of the person’s performance in several skill and behavioral categories.

a)

Flextime

b)

360 degree Review

53.

__________refer to cash payment based on the number of hours the employee has worked or the number of units the employee has produces.

a)

Wages

b)

Profit

54.

___________ is refer to data-driven approach and methodology for eliminating defects in any process from manufacturing to transactional and from product to service.

a)

Job sharing

b)

Six Sigma

55.

___________ is refer to the overall environment that results from job and work conditions.

a)

Quality of work life (QWL)

b)

Burnout

56.

Scheduling that allows employees to choose their own work hours within certain limits is known as ________.

a)

job sharing

b)

flextime

57.

These following are some of the consequences of the situation that contributed to initiate training need assessment, except :

a)

The slowing down of production and the under utilization of machines and equipment.

b)

An increase in the proportion of work rejected on inspection for not meeting the standards laid down.

c)

Increased demands on supervisors’ time.

d)

Job satisfaction because the worker is adequately prepared to do the job.

58.

When general performance weakness have been observed or are anticipated in functions at or across divisional boundaries, indicated that the performance problem and training needs classification level of :

a)

Individual

b)

Organizational

c)

Occupational

d)

Transactional

59.

These are some of training benefits for organization :

a)

Improved employee work performance and productivity

b)

Less absenteeism

c)

Extra earning accrued through improved job performance and the enhancement of career and promotion prospect

d)

Greater customer or client satisfaction

60.

A systematic approach to training as follow : (1). Assess effectiveness of training; (2) Design training; (3) Investigate training and (4). Conduct training

The correct sequence of stages are :

a)

1 – 2 – 3 – 4

b)

1 – 3 – 4 – 2

c)

3 – 2 – 4 – 1

d)

3 – 4 – 2 – 1

61.

Below statement refers to Training Need Assessment

a)

The selection of the systematic design and development of training content

b)

Seek to identify accurately the levels of the present situation in the target surveys, interview, observation, and others secondary data

c)

Internal validation of measuring trainee’s performance

d)

Is the method of determining if a training need exist and if it does what training is required to fill the gap

62.

What are differences between training, education and development ?

a)

Training : knowledge and skill for what you do now

b)

Education : knowledge and skill for your next role

c)

Experience : experiences and targeted assignments that grow you

d)

All above statement correctly

63.

Three occasions to determine training needs :

a)

Proactive, Reactive, Preventive

b)

Proactive, Reactive, Evaluative

c)

Reactive, Proactive, Determinant

d)

Reactive, Preventive, Determinant

64.

Identify gaps in job performance; Identify causes of job performance; Identify solutions to close performance gap; Clarity and confirm if training is an appropriate solution. These are activities of phase :

a)

Gather job performance data

b)

Conduct a performance analysis

c)

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis

d)

Conduct a training plan design

65.

Two of phases of proactive training needs are :

a)

Gather information

b)

List of training course

c)

Interview stakeholders

d)

Analyze information

66.

When we know little about the topic or area and training is about something complicated, the best of survey method to use :

a)

Observation

b)

Focus Group Discussion

c)

Interview

d)

Questionnaire

67.

It refers to learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the job

a)

Case studies

b)

Special course

c)

Interview

d)

Training

68.

Test to measure one's present knowledge on the subject

a)

Aptitude

b)

Performance

c)

Psychological

d)

Physiological

69.

It is the combination of on-the-job training and classroom instructions to trainees

a)

orientation

b)

in-basket

c)

vestibule

d)

apprenticeship

70.

An appraisal method that involves behavior results in an unusual success or failure of the trainee in some parts of the job.

a)

Essay

b)

Critical incident

c)

Checklist

d)

Work standards

71.

This training makes the seniors works as assistant to the juniors and allowed to take over the job.

a)

Position rotation

b)

Multiple management

c)

Understudy

d)

Management games

72.

The three activities in Human Resource planning are

a)

Planning, Programming and Evaluation

b)

Planning, Predicting and Control

c)

Forecasting, Programming and Implementing

d)

Forecasting, Programming and Evaluation

73.

The accepted methods commonly used as forecasting techniques are

a)

Trends

b)

Seasonal index

c)

Correlation

d)

Time series

74.

The blatant impact of wrong staffing to the organization is

a)

Lower productivity

b)

Jeopardized operations

c)

Chaos and instability

d)

Demotivation

75.

The fourth process in the staffing procedure is

a)

Training and development

b)

Performance appraisal

c)

Selection

d)

Induction and Orientation

76.

Which is NOT a good source of possible applicants to the job?

a)

Schools

b)

Internet

c)

Current employees

d)

Competitors

77.

What kind of training does a team building activity contribute?

a)

role playing

b)

behavior modelling

c)

sensitivity training

d)

transactional analysis

78.

In the checklist method, which category is NOT included?

a)

attendance and punctuality

b)

hobbies and extra-curricular activities

c)

interpersonal relationships

d)

industry and enthusiasm

79.

Which among the personal data in the application blanks is most scrutinized by the Hiring Officer?

a)

ID picture

b)

Age

c)

Religion

d)

Civil status

80.

Which among the following considerations would an applicant be interested to know besides pay?

a)

Position

b)

Workplace

c)

Co-workers

d)

Superior

81.

Which is NOT a physical examination?

a)

X-ray

b)

Urinalysis

c)

Dental

d)

Blood test

82.

Trainees are evaluated on the basis of how well they have achieved the goals.

a)

Assessment center

b)

Work standards

c)

MBO

d)

OJT

83.

Which is NOT a purpose of performance appraisal?

a)

To motivate all employees

b)

To determine merit pay increases

c)

To determine training and development needs

d)

To plan for future performance goals

84.

It is where the trainee is placed in a situation almost exactly the same as the workplace where all elements are present.

a)

Apprenticeship

b)

Management games

c)

Position rotation

d)

Vestibule

85.

It is the management's term referring to the personal records of each employee.

a)

200 File

b)

201 File

c)

202 File

d)

203 File

86.

Which is NOT TRUE about separation?

a)

It can be voluntary or involuntary

b)

If someone resigns, he is entitled to his last pay normally called severance or separation pay.

c)

Retirement is also a form of separation.

d)

If made voluntary, there should be a written or verbal notice to management and separation takes effect after a 60-day notice.

87.

What does S stand for in SWOT?

a)

small

b)

strong

c)

strengths

d)

slow

88.

What does W in SWOT stand for?

a)

weather

b)

weaknesses

c)

wrong

d)

wide

89.

What does O in SWOT stand for?

a)

open

b)

only

c)

opportunities

d)

open-minded

90.

What does T in SWOT stand for?

a)

true

b)

threats

c)

trade

d)

troubles

91.

Positive and controllable factors that contribute to the success of parks

a)

Strength

b)

Weaknesses

c)

Opportunities

d)

Threat

92.

Negative factors that are beyond the control of the Parks Management.

a)

Strength

b)

Weaknesses

c)

Opportunities

d)

Threat

93.

Positive factors that are not within the control of the business.

a)

Strength

b)

Weaknesses

c)

Opportunities

d)

Threat

94.

 

Internal resources such as skilled, knowledgeable staff.

a)

Strength

b)

Weakness

c)

Opportunity

d)

Threat

95.

Things your company lacks.

a)

Strength

b)

Weakness

c)

Opportunity

d)

Threat

96.

Things your competitor does better than you.

a)

Strength

b)

Weakness

c)

Opportunity

d)

Threat

97.

Resource limitations.

a)

Strength

b)

Weakness

c)

Opportunity

d)

Threat

98.

The information in the SWOT must be?

a)

Honest and Real

b)

Theoretical

c)

Unrealistic

d)

Based on future events

99.

Negative press/media coverage.

a)

Strength

b)

Weakness

c)

Opportunity

d)

Threat

100.

You conduct a SWOT analysis and find out that a new competitor is opening within 5 miles of your store. This would be considered a __________.

a)

Strength

b)

Weakness

c)

Opportunity

d)

Threat

101.

By identifying areas under the weaknesses section, how does this help you develop?

a)

So that you can avoid them.

b)

So that you can pretend they don't exist and ignore them

c)

Use them to identify areas for development and focus on them

d)

By allowing other people to see them and use them against you.