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Mosby's Practice Test II

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which of the following medications is indicated for seizure disorders?

a)

adapalene

b)

darifenacin

c)

fluconazole

d)

phenytoin

2.

which of the following proprietary medications is a combination product?

a)

Cozaar

b)

Hyzaar

c)

Plavix

d)

Zetia

3.

Which of the following is a valid DEA number for Dr.Mary Rocket

a)

AM 4525890

b)

BM 4525891

c)

BR 4525892

d)

MR 4525893

4.

a 75 year old female patient presents a prescription for nitrofurantoin to be filled; what should the pharmacy technician do?

a)

contact the prescriber’s office

b)

fill the prescription

c)

inform the pharmacist of the situation

d)

refuse to fill the prescription

5.

the iPledge is a mandatory program for patients receiving prescriptions of which medication?

a)

conjugated estrogens

b)

isotretinoin

c)

medroxyprogesterone

d)

methylphenidate

6.

a patient calls the pharmacy and informs you that they forgot to take their morning dose of their medication; what do you do?

a)

inform the pharmacist

b)

tell them that it is alright to miss a dose

c)

tell them to call their physician

d)

tell them to take the medicine immediately

7.

which of the following abbreviations should NOT be used in prescriptions

a)

“aa”

b)

“de”

c)

“dtd”

d)

“emil”

8.

which is the generic name for Diovan?

a)

losartan

b)

pioglitazone

c)

rabeprazole

d)

valsartan

9.

which is the generic name for Effexor XR?

a)

dutasteride

b)

nebivolol

c)

varenicline

d)

venlafaxine

10.

which of the following classifications of medications are considered as “High-Alert” medications in a long term care facility by the ISMP?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Insulins

c)

NSAIDs

d)

Macrolides

11.

which type of insulin can be added to an IV solution?

a)

Extended insulin zinc

b)

isophane insulin

c)

NPH insulin

d)

regular insulin

12.

what is the correct interpretation of the following prescription “ 1 tsp PCN 250 mg PO qid for 10 days?

a)

take one tablespoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days

b)

take one teaspoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth every other day for 10 days

c)

take one teaspoon of penicillin G 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days

d)

take one teaspoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days

13.

which of the following medications should be dispensed to the patient in the manufacturer’s container?

a)

Crixivan

b)

Diflucan

c)

Epitol

d)

Singulair

14.

a pateint is prescribed Proventil HFA for bronchospasms; which of the following would be appropriate directions?

a)

1 inhalation every 12 h

b)

1 spray qid

c)

1-2 sprays/nostrils bid

d)

2 puffs inhaled q4-6h

15.

all of the following medications must be packaged in a child resistant container EXCEPT

a)

digoxin

b)

ibuprofen

c)

nitroglycerin

d)

simvastatin

16.

all of the following are required on a prescription label EXCPET for which one?

a)

directions for usage

b)

drug name with strength and quantity

c)

physician’s DEA number

d)

prescription or serial number

17.

a patient has been diagnosed with GERD which medication would be an appropriate treatment ?

a)

citalopram

b)

esomeprazole

c)

gabapentin

d)

venlafaxine

18.

what type of medication error occurs but did not reach the patient ?

a)

no error

b)

error, no harm

c)

error ,harm

d)

error , death

19.

the pharmacy technician receives a prescription for amoxicillin 250 mg and the instructions read “i cap PO tid” What is the total daily dose?

a)

250 mg

b)

500 mg

c)

750 mg

d)

100 mg

20.

what auxiliary label should be included on a container of medication that has the following instruction: “iv gtt au bid”?

a)

for external use

b)

for the ear

c)

for the eye

d)

use rectally

21.

all of the following are controlled substances indicated for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder EXCEPT

a)

amphetamine/dextroamphetamine

b)

atomoxetine

c)

lisdexamfetamine

d)

methylphenidate

22.

how many days will the following prescription last? Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL

150 mL i tsp PO tid

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

d)

15

23.

the formation of a precipitate indicates instability of which dosage form?

a)

cream

b)

emulsion

c)

ointment

d)

solution

24.

which of the following medications may exacerbate heart failure in an elderly patient according to the Beers criteria?

a)

bupropion

b)

medroxyprogesterone

c)

naproxen

d)

ondansetron

25.

which of the following antidepressant is classified as an SNRI?

a)

duloxetine

b)

escitalopram

c)

fluoxetine

d)

phenelzine

26.

which USP chapter addresses compounding non sterile products

a)

USP <790>

b)

USP <795>

c)

USP <797>

d)

USP <800>

27.

a patient is being prescribed Hytrin for benign prostate hypertrophy. When should the patient take their medication?

a)

After meals

b)

at bedtime

c)

before meals

d)

in the morning

28.

all of the following medications may be crushed or chewed EXCPET

a)

amoxicillin

b)

amphicillin

c)

isotretinoin

d)

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

29.

a patient is experiencing an overdose associated with Coumadin; which medication should be prescribed to treat this situation?

a)

cyanocobalamin

b)

folic acid

c)

phytonadione

d)

thiamine

30.

all of the following pharmacy abbreviations would be used for regularly scheduled maintenance medication EXCEPT

a)

BID.

b)

QID.

c)

STAT.

d)

TID

31.

a patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disease but has difficulty swallowing. Which of the following medications is available as a chewable tablet?

a)

carbamazepine

b)

divalproex

c)

lithium

d)

valproic acid

32.

a patient receives the following prescription. How many days will the prescription last? Albuterol 200 inhalations 1 canister 2 puffs inhaled q 6h

a)

15 days

b)

20 days

c)

25 days

d)

30 days

33.

you have received a prescription for amoxicillin 500 mg PO. the patient is unable to chew or swallow capsules or tablets. the physician has approved the dispensing of amoxicillin suspension. how many ml should be given in each dose if the concentration is 125 mg/5 mL

a)

5 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

15 mL

d)

20 mL

34.

what is the generic name for Glucophage ?

a)

glimepiride

b)

glipizide

c)

glyburide

d)

metformin

35.

Cozaar and Zocor are examples of

a)

confused drug names

b)

medications using tall man lettering

c)

medications that may be the therapeutically substituted

d)

nonproprietary drugs

36.

interpret the following prescription. Which of the following is appropriate for the prescription? prochlorperazine 25 mg supp #12 i supp pr 6-8 h prn N&V

a)

insert one suppository pr every 6-8 hours as needed for nausea and vomiting

b)

insert one suppository every 6-8 hours as needed for nausea and vomiting

c)

insert one suppository every 6-8 hours as needed for N&V

d)

insert one suppository rectally every 6-8 hours as needed for nausea and vomiting

37.

which of the following does not need to be dispensed in a child-resistant container?

a)

amoxicillin

b)

ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone

c)

metformin

d)

prednisone

38.

which of the following is classified as a bowel evacuant?

a)

docusate sodium

b)

lactulose

c)

methylecellulose

d)

polyethlene glycol/ electrolytes

39.

which of the following agents is used to increase the viscosity of suspension?

a)

emulsifier

b)

flocculating agent

c)

mucilage

d)

thickening agent

40.

which of the following drugs requires a medication guide be given to a patient every time they receive a patient prescription of that medication?

a)

alendronate

b)

ampicillin

c)

cephalexin

d)

normal saline

41.

a patient has prescribed Humalog insulin. which of the following routes of administration should be used?

a)

ID

b)

IM

c)

PO

d)

SC

42.

which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label “This Drug May Impair the Ability to

Operate a Car” affixed to the prescription bottle?

a)

azithromycin

b)

metformin

c)

naproxen

d)

spironolactone

43.

which of the following is true about pharmaceutical equivalent drugs?

a)

chemically different but are expected to produce the same therapeutic outcome and toxicity

b)

chemically identical in strength, concentration’s ,dosage form and route of administration

c)

contain different active ingredients

d)

priced exactly the same as brand name drugs

44.

predniSONE and prednisoLONE are examples of

a)

drugs that should not be crushed

b)

drugs using tall man lettering

c)

high - alert medication

d)

proprietary drug names

45.

what is the duration of action for Humulin N insulin

a)

1 to 4 hours

b)

6 to 10 hours

c)

10 to 16 hours

d)

20- 14 hours

46.

a patient has been diagnosed as suffering schizophrenia; which of the following would be prescribed ?

a)

amitriptyline

b)

escitalopram

c)

paroxetine

d)

quetiapine fumarate

47.

which of the following would be an appropriate auxiliary label for an inhaled corticosteroid medication?

a)

discard after 14 day use

b)

may cause drowsiness

c)

refrigerate

d)

shake well

48.

a physician ordered a blood cholesterol test for a patient. the results of the test indicated the patient had a blood cholesterol level of 240 mg/mL. which of the following medications would be appropriate to dispense?

a)

amlodipine

b)

bupropion

c)

esomeprazole

d)

simvastatin

49.

the pharmacy technician has dispensed a prescription of penicillin 500 mg tablets to a patient. which of the following should they use to clean the pill tray?

a)

70% isopropyl alcohol

b)

90% isopropyl alcohol

c)

hydrogen peroxide

d)

water

50.

What substance should be used to disinfect gloves after being in contact with nonsterile objects?

a)

Distilled water

b)

Sterile water

c)

70% IPA

d)

90% IPA

51.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a lorazepam prescription?

a)

None

b)

Unlimited

c)

1

d)

5

52.

Which interpretation of the following instructions is correct?

30-mL MOM PO ac and hs prn

a)

Take one teaspoon of milk of magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed

b)

Take one teaspoon of milk of magnesia by mouth after meals and at bedtime as needed

c)

Take 30 mL (1 oz) of milk of magnesia by mouth after meals and at bed time as needed

d)

Take 30 mL (1 oz) of milk of magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed

53.

Which of the following medications may require a patient to take a potassium supplement?

a)

hydrochlorothiazide

b)

lisinopril

c)

simvastatin

d)

spironolactone

54.

Which of the following is a Schedule II drug?

a)

acetaminophen with codeine

b)

alprazolam

c)

methylphenidate

d)

zolpidem

55.

A patient receiving warfarin fails to have their INR/PT checked; what type of medication error is this?

a)

Compliance error

b)

Improper storage error

c)

Monitoring error

d)

Unauthotized drug error

56.

When a pharmacy technician is performing geometric dilution, when does the technician add the most potent ingredient?

a)

Any time

b)

As the first ingredient

c)

As the last ingredient

d)

Intermittently during the compounding process

57.

A pharmacy technician is preparing a Heparin 25000 units in 500ml of D5W, Which concentration should appear on the label?

a)

50 units/mL

b)

75 units/mL

c)

100 units/mL

d)

125 units/mL

58.

What do the three sets of number in a natural drug code NDC number reflect?

a)

Drug manufacturer, drug product, and year the NDA (New Drug Application) was filled

b)

Drug manufacturer, drug product, and drug schedule

c)

Drug manufacturer, drug name, and drug strength

d)

Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package

59.

Which condition is indicated for a patient presenting a prescription for travoprost to be filled?

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Ocular Inflammation

c)

Otitis media

d)

Vertigo

60.

Which is the generic name for the brand name drug Augmentin?

a)

amoxicillin/clavulanate

b)

cephalexin

c)

sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

d)

sulfadiazine

61.

According to the USP, what temperature is considered a warm temperature?

a)

8°C

b)

8° to 15°C

c)

15° to 30°C

d)

30° to 40° C

62.

Which DEA form is required for a pharmacy to dispense controlled substances?

a)

222

b)

224

c)

225

d)

363

63.

What is MedWatch?

a)

A program that identifies controlled substances being overprescribed in areas where there has been an outbreak of heroin overdoses

b)

A reporting program available to pharmacies indicating physicians who may be overprescribing narcotics

c)

A reporting program available to health care providers to report adverse events that pose serious health threats

d)

A service established by the AARP to monitor polypharmacy in elderly adults

64.

How many days would a prescription of 60 tablets last if the directions were "i tab PO qid ac"?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

30

65.

A hazardous drug must be stored in an externally ventilated, negative-pressure room that has a minimum of how many air changes per hour?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

12

d)

14

66.

Which of the following professions permits a practitioner to prescribe medication?

a)

Chiropractor

b)

Physician Assistant

c)

Optometrist

d)

Psychologist

67.

How many milliliters of water should be added to 100 ml of 10% stock solution of sodium chloride to prepare a 9% solution of sodium chloride?

a)

10.1 mL

b)

101 mL

c)

1011 mL

d)

1111 mL

68.

The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy to be filled. When prompted by the pharmacy computer for the day's supply, which would the technician enter?

AMOXICILLIN 250mg/ 5mL 75mL 2.5 mL PO TID

a)

5 days

b)

7 days

c)

10 days

d)

14 days

69.

Which dosage form is an aqueous solution with sucrose?

a)

Elixir

b)

Emulsion

c)

Suspension

d)

Syrup

70.

Which is the maximum Beyond use date (BUD) that might be assigned to a water container at all formulations of the non sterile combined at a control cold temperature?

a)

10 days

b)

12 days

c)

14 days

d)

16 days

71.

Mary Smith presents a prescription of fluticasone/salmeterol to be filled, which condition is being treated?

a)

Asthma

b)

Allergic rhinitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Tuberculosis

72.

A child weighs 30kg and is prescribed a 5-mg/kg dose of amoxicllin tid. The pharmacy stocks 50mg/mL. How many mL will the patient recieve each day?

a)

3 mL

b)

6 mL

c)

9 mL

d)

18 mL

73.

A patient is being treated with olanzapine; for which condition is this medication indicate?

a)

Epilepsy

b)

Smoking

c)

Delirium tremens

d)

Schizophrenia

74.

Under OBRA 90', which of the following tests is a pharmacy technician permitted to perform?

a)

Call a physician abd recommend a different drug dosage

b)

Counsel a patient with regard to his or her drug therapy

c)

Offer to counsel a patient, if allowed by state law

d)

Screen patient prifiles for drug-disease contraindications

75.

Interpret the following: " ii caps stat, then i cap q hr, max 5caps/12 hrs."

a)

Take 2 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule at bedtime, maximum of 5 capsules in 5 hours

b)

Take 5 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule each hour, maximum of 5 capsules in 12 hours

c)

Take 11 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule at bedtime, maximum of 5 capsules in 12 hours

d)

Take 11 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule each hour, maximum of 5 additional capsules in 12 hours

76.

Medication X has been reported to cause irreversible harm to individual. This will result in which type of drug recalled being issued?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

77.

Alkeren and Leukeren are examples of:

a)

Drugs found on the "do not crush" list

b)

Medications found on The Joint Commission's "Do not use" list

c)

Confused drug names

d)

Nonproprietary drugs

78.

The pharmacy technician is asked to combine a liquid preparation. Which type of mortar and plastic should be selected in performing this task?

a)

Glass

b)

Wood

c)

Porcelain

d)

Wedgewood

79.

Which of the following is a side effect of diphenhydramine>

a)

watery eyes

b)

stomach distress

c)

rapid heartbeat

d)

drowsiness

80.

Which is the another name for nonproprietary drug?

a)

Brand name drug

b)

Generic drug

c)

Investigational drug

d)

OTC drug

81.

In multiples of what number should tablet or capsules be counted at the time using a spatula and pill tray?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

10

82.

Which DEA form must be submitted to The Drug Enforcement Administration DEA to request permission to destroy controlled substances?

a)

41

b)

222

c)

224

d)

225

83.

Which is the generic name for the beta blocker Tenormin?

a)

atenolol

b)

metoprolol

c)

nadolol

d)

propranolol

84.

What is the brand name for tetanus/reduced diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine?

a)

Adacel

b)

Afluria

c)

Aggrenox

d)

Aloxi

85.

Which medication error reporting and prevention (MERP) category is associated when the error occurred may have contributed to the patient's death?

a)

Category G

b)

Category H

c)

Category I

d)

Category J

86.

Which auxiliary labeled show big affixed to a prescription bottle for a medication that has the following instruction: " i gtt os bid"?

a)

For external use

b)

For the eye

c)

For the ear

d)

Use rectally

87.

Which of the following medications have the auxiliary label "may discolor urine" affixed to the prescription container?

a)

phenazopyridine

b)

ciprofloxacin

c)

tetracycline

d)

nitrofurantoin

88.

Citalopram is indicated for the treatment of:

a)

alcohol abuse

b)

attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

c)

depression

d)

smoking

89.

Interpret the following prescription. Which directions for use should appear on the prescription label?

Lorazepam 0.5mg #30

1 tab PO TID prn anxiety, refill x2

a)

Take one tablet by mouth as needed for anxiety

b)

Take one tablet by mouth three times a day for anxiety

c)

Take one tablet by mouth three times a day as needed for anxiety

d)

Take one tablet three times a day as needed for anxiety

90.

Which of the following categories of medication is found on the list of high alert medication issued by the ISMP for community Ambulatory care seating?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

c)

Opioids

d)

Proton Pump Inhibitors

91.

MEDMARX is overseen by which organization

a)

IOM

b)

ISMP

c)

USP

d)

ASHP

92.

What type of Hospital error occurred when a patient is administered a dose that is greater or less than the prescribed amount?

a)

Improper dose error

b)

Omission error

c)

Wrong dosage form

d)

Wrong dose preparation

93.

How much Demerol will be given to a patient if the dose on hand was 50 mg/ML and the patient was to receive 75 mg?

a)

0.5 mL

b)

1.0 mL

c)

1.5 mL

d)

2.0 mL

94.

Which of the following is considered mechanical error?

a)

Failing to counsel a patient

b)

Failing to make the correct decision during drug utilization evaluation

c)

Failing to screen a patient properly

d)

Performing incorrect pharmacy calculations

95.

A patient comes to the pharmacy seeking a prescription refill. The patient does not know their prescription number or the name of the medication; however, they know that is is used to relieve the symptoms of atrial fibrillation. What is the medication?

a)

adalimumab

b)

digoxin

c)

lisinopril

d)

lamotrigine

96.

A pharmacy must register with the CNR prior to dispensing which medication?

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

clozapine

c)

isotretinoin

d)

thalidomide

97.

Which is the generic name for Cymbalta?

a)

duloxetine

b)

fluoxetine

c)

paroxetine

d)

sertraline

98.

Which of the following medication has been associated with the high incidence of medication error?

a)

acetaminophen

b)

naprosen

c)

levothyroxine

d)

glyburide

99.

Which of the following is internet accessible database that hospitals and Healthcare System can use to report medication error?

a)

ISMP

b)

MEDMARX

c)

MedWatch

d)

NCCMERP

100.

Which is the generic name for Detrol LA?

a)

ibandronate

b)

mirtazapine

c)

ramelteon

d)

tolterodine

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