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Worksheets

Unit 3 AOS1 revision

Total questions: 187

Worksheet time: 3hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
2.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
3.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA? (This is the MONOMER of DNA.) 
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
4.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
5.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
6.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
7.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
8.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
9.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
10.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
11.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
12.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
13.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
14.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
15.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
16.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
17.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
18.
In eukaryotes, functional messenger RNA molecules are made from
a)
exons spliced together after introns are removed
b)
introns spliced together after eons are removed
c)
exons spliced together with introns
d)
long pieces of RNA shortened by the Dicer enzyme
19.
Promoters are
a)
genes that code for individual proteins
b)
proteins that bind with DNA and prevent transcription
c)
DNA sequences near operons that regulate transcription
d)
small molecules that bind with repressor proteins
20.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
21.
Which of the following describes RNA?
a)
RNA is usually double-stranded and contains the base thymine
b)
RNA is usually single-stranded and contains the base uracil
c)
RNA is longer than DNA and uses five bases to encode information
d)
RNA is made in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and stays there to carry out its functions
22.
In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular
a)
nucleotide
b)
enzyme
c)
amino acid
d)
promoter
23.
Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true?
a)
A codon can specify more than one amino acid
b)
Every codon specifies a different amino acid
c)
Some codons specify the same amino acid
d)
Some codons have no function at all
24.
The process of making proteins on the ribosome based on instructions from messenger RNA is called
a)
transcription
b)
transformation
c)
translation
d)
molecular biology
25.
Changes is DNA sequences that affect genetic information are known as
a)
replications
b)
mutations
c)
transformations
d)
translations
26.
An expressed gene
a)
functions as a promoter
b)
is transcribed into RNA
c)
codes for just one amino acid
d)
is made of mRNA
27.
A group of genes that are regulated together is called a(n)
a)
promoter
b)
operon
c)
intron
d)
allele
28.
what is an operon?
a)
a part of a ribsome
b)
a part of a Rna
c)
a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task
d)
needed for dna replication
29.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
30.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
31.
What is the name of the stretch of DNA where RNA polymerase binds?
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
enhancer
d)
origin
32.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
33.
Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?
a)
prokaryotes (bacteria)
b)
eukaryotes (plant and animals)
c)
animals only
d)
viruses
34.

In the trp operon, __ acts as a __ and helps the repressor bind to the operator.

a)

tryptophan, corepressor

b)

tryptophan, inducer

c)

lactose, corepressor

d)

lactose, inducer

35.

Where does the RNA Polymerase bind to for the initiation of

a)

Regulator

b)

Structural genes

c)

Operator

d)

Promotor

36.

When tryptophan (try) is absent, the trp represser unbinds from the operator and this results in RNA synthesis to do what?

a)

be blocked

b)

proceed

37.

Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?

a)

operon

b)

inducer

c)

repressor

d)

corepressor

38.

trp is a..

a)

repressible operon

b)

inducible operon

39.

When tryptophan is high in the cell

a)

the operon is turned off

b)

the operon is turned on

40.

when tryptophan is high in the cell...

a)

RNA polymerase cannot bind, so no transcription

b)

RNA polymerase can bind, so transcription happens

41.

When tryptophan is low in the cell

a)

the operon is on

b)

the operon is off

42.

Are enzymes used up in chemical reactions?

a)

Yes, they can not be used again for another reaction

b)

No, they can be used again in another reaction

43.

Which letter represents the enzyme?

a)

A

b)

B

44.

Which letter represents the substrate?

a)

A

b)

B

45.

Which letter represents the Product ?

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

46.

Enzymes are "Specific", which best describes this?

a)

function best under certain environmental conditions

b)

speeds up only one type of reaction.

c)

can catalyze the same reaction over and over again.

47.

Enzymes are "Sensitive" which best describes this?

a)

function best under certain environmental conditions

b)

speeds up only one type of reaction. (Like a lock and key!!!) Example: Amylase – only breaks down starches.

c)

can catalyze the same reaction over and over again.

48.
Enzymes are considered to be 
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrate
c)

Proteins

d)
Nucleic Acid
49.
What is the purpose  of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
50.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
51.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
52.
What 3 letters do enzymes typically end in?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
53.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
54.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
55.
Enzymes need certain environmental conditions in order to function properly.  What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
they die
b)
they denature
c)
they change their amino acid sequence
d)
they work better
56.
What makes an enzyme substrate specific?
a)
Size
b)
Shape
c)
Name
d)
Location it is found in
57.
What factors affect an enzyme's reaction rate?
a)
temperature 
b)
pH
c)
substrate concentration
d)
all of these
58.

Which of these is most likely an enzyme? 

a)
Sucrose
b)
Saccharide
c)
Fructose
d)
Amylase
59.

CRISPR-Cas9 is a type of ________ system found in bacteria.

a)

digestive

b)

endocrine

c)

circulatory

d)

immune

60.

CRISPR-Cas9 was discovered in which of the following organisms?

a)

protists

b)

fungi

c)

bacteria

d)

viruses

61.

Scientists have adapted it to turn it into a biotechnology tool for _______ DNA.

a)

building

b)

editing

c)

destroying

d)

synthesizing

62.

The enzyme portion of this complex is called ________.

a)

CRISPR

b)

Replicase

c)

Lysozyme

d)

Cas9

63.

What type of RNA is used as a GPS of sorts, to find or locate specific genes?

a)

mRNA

b)

gRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

64.

What is PAM?

a)

a 3 letter sequence for binding on the target DNA

b)

the main gene portion of the DNA

c)

the cut site for Cas9

d)

a 10 letter sequence for binding on the target DNA

65.

Which is the correct order for the PCR process

a)

denaturation, elongation, annealing

b)

annealing, elongation, denaturation

c)

denaturation, annealing, elongation

d)

annealing, denaturation, elongation

66.

Process of determining the precise order of nucleotides within a segment of DNA

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

Polymerase chain reaction

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

DNA amplification

67.

What is PCR used for

a)

genetic testing

b)

paternity testing

c)

determining evolutionary relationship

d)

DNA profiling

68.

In gel electrophoresis, which direction do the DNA fragments move?

a)

negative to negative electrodes

b)

negative to positive electrodes

c)

positive to negative electrodes

d)

the DNA doesn't move, the gel does

69.

What happens during the denaturing step of a PCR reaction

a)

DNA nucleotides on each backbone are broken apart

b)

A heat tolerant polymerase initiates the copying of each strand of DNA

c)

DNA primers attache to the 3' ends of the target sequence

d)

The DNA double helix is separated into two single strands

70.

Where is Taq polymerase sourced from

a)

man-made in a laboratory

b)

thermal pools

c)

salt mines

d)

all of the above

71.

Choose the correct order for the temperature changes that occur during the PCR process

a)

95° - 1 minute / 55° - 1 minute / 72° -2 minutes

b)

95° - 1 minute / 72° -2 minutes / 55° - 1 minute

c)

55° - 1 minute / 95° - 1 minute / 72° -2 minutes

d)

95° - 1 minute / 72° -2 minutes / 52° - 1 minutes

72.

Choose the correct term to match the definition:

short nucleic acid that provides a starting point for DNA synthesis

a)

short tandem repeat

b)

agarose gel

c)

Taq polymerase

d)

primer

73.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
74.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
75.
What applications can gel electrophoresis be used for?
a)
Parental Testing
b)
Criminal Investigations
c)
Sequence Endangered Species DNA
d)
All of the above
76.
Which DNA fragment bands move faster and farther in a gel electrophoresis? 
a)
there is no way to tell 
b)
the largest ones
c)
the smallest ones
d)
none of these
77.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
78.
Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel elctrophoresis?
a)
It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing
b)
It restricts the number of base pairs that can be tested in a sample
c)
It makes the testing simpler by moving the strands into the gel faster
d)
It charges the DNA strands
79.
Which two bat species are most closely related?
a)
 Bat 1 and Bat 2
b)
Bat 1 and Bat 3
c)
Bat 2 and Bat 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
80.
What is the purpose  of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
81.

1. The DNA base sequences recognized by Endonuclease are called

a)

a).Restriction Site

b)

b). Recognition Site

c)

c).Fragmentation Site

d)

d).cutting Site

82.

The recognition sites for restriction enzymes are :

a)

a).Tautomer

b)

b). Pallindrome

c)

c).Metamere

d)

d).Acronym

83.

Restriction Enzymes are isolated from :

a)

a).Protozoa

b)

b). Bacteria

c)

c).Virus

d)

d).Fungi

84.

Restriction Enzymes were primarily used as :

a)

a).Defence by Protozoa against antibiotics

b)

b).Tool by Virus to cleave Bacterial genome

c)

c)Defence by Bacteria against bacteriophages viruses

d)

d).All of the above

85.

In molecular cloning, a __________ is used to insert a fragment of DNA into the host cell.

a)

plasmid

b)

DNA fragment

c)

bacterium

d)

virus

86.

The enzyme used to join the DNA fragments

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Reverse transcriptase

87.

Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is INCORRECTLY paired with one of its uses?

a)

restriction endonuclease - production of DNA fragments for gene cloning.

b)

DNA ligase - enzyme that cuts DNA, creating sticky ends.

c)

reverse transcriptase - production of cDNA from mRNA.

d)

Taq polymerase - copies DNA sequences in the polymerase chain reaction.

88.
Which is true about plasmids?
a)
Plasmids can be cut at specific sequences called restriction sites.
b)
Plasmids contain a promoter sequence that defines where transcription begins.
c)
Plasmids can contain an antibiotic resistance gene.
d)
All of the statements are true about plasmids.
89.
In bacteria, restriction enzymes are used for defense. They cut up the DNA of a virus that infects bacteria.
a)
True
b)
False
90.

Which of the following terms describes the process of the uptake of recombinant plasmids into bacteria cells?

a)

amplification

b)

insertion

c)

transformation

d)

screening

91.

Which enzyme helps fuse the foreign into the new DNA?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

DNA ligase

92.

To produce desired protein _____________ should be taken from any source like human, animal and plant.

a)

recombinant DNA

b)

Target DNA

c)

plasmid

d)

ligase

93.

Which of the following enzymes can cut nucleic acids?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

restriction endonuclease

c)

modifying enzymes

d)

reverse transcriptase

94.

What type of cut is this photo?

a)

Blunt

b)

sticky

95.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
96.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
97.

What is the pigment in chloroplasts that is involved in photosynthesis?

a)

Chlorosynthesis

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Green

98.

Which gas enters the leaves through the stomata and is required for photosynthesis?

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

nitrogen

d)

carbon dioxide

99.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
100.

Which statement about photosynthesis is correct?

a)

Plants get the energy they need to start photosynthesis from water.

b)

Plants get the energy they need to start photosynthesis from soil.

c)

Plants get the energy they need to start photosynthesis from sunlight.

d)

Plants do not require energy to perform photosynthesis.

101.
A student is collecting the gas given off from a plant in bright sunlight at a temperature of 27°C. The gas being collected is probably ________.
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
ATP
d)
glucose
102.

Which of the following are reactants of photosynthesis?

a)

CO2 and H2O

b)

O2

c)

H2O and Glucose

d)

None of the above

103.

Photosynthesis produces Glucose for plants. This is a form of __________________________ for plants.

a)

Chemical energy

b)

Thermal energy

c)

Light energy

d)

Radiant energy

104.

In which organelle does photosynthesis occur?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Cytoplasm

105.

Stomata are made of specialized cells called ______ which surround a tiny pore/opening

a)

stoma

b)

guard cells

c)

dermal cells

d)

diffusion channels

106.

Leaves will have the highest number of stomata when

a)

temperatures are unusually high and CO2 levels are also high

b)

temperatures are low and CO2 levels are also low

c)

temps are high and CO2 levels are low

d)

temps are low and CO2 levels are high

107.

What is another name for the light independent phase of photosynthesis?

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

Rubisco

c)

Stroma

d)

Krebs cycle

108.

Where in the chloroplast does the light dependent phase occur?

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoid membrane

c)

Grana

d)

Pigments, mainly chlorophyll

109.

What are the products of the light dependent phase of photosynthesis? (select all)

a)

ATP

b)

Glucose

c)

Oxygen

d)

NADPH

110.

What are the products of the light independent phase of photosynthesis? (select all)

a)

Rubisco enzyme

b)

Glucose

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide

111.

What is the stroma? (select all)

a)

The site of the Calvin Cycle

b)

The intracellular liquid of the chloroplast

c)

Pancake-like stacks where photosynthesis takes place

d)

Enzyme containing liquid where the light independent phase takes place

112.

Rubisco is ...

a)

a pigment which captures light energy

b)

a membrane protein used to transport electrons

c)

an enzyme which catalyzes carbon fixation

d)

a simple glucose monomer produced in the calvin cycle

113.

What is carbon fixation?

a)

The joining of inorganic carbon atoms into an organic molecule

b)

Taking carbon gas and fixing it to a solid

c)

Correcting an error in the carbon atom

d)

Being obsessed with carbon

114.

How is glucose transported out of the chloroplast?

a)

Passive diffusion through the membrane going with its concentration gradient

b)

Facilitated diffusion using a carrier protein as glucose is a large molecule

c)

Active transport through a protein against a concentration gradient

d)

Exocytosis as glucose is a large molecule

115.

Do chloroplasts contain their own DNA?

a)

Yes, contained in a nucleus

b)

Yes, circular strands of DNA suspended in the stroma

c)

No, they do not contain their own DNA

116.

The flat disk-like structures inside the chloroplast are called

a)

Pancakae

b)

Stroma

c)

Lamellae

d)

Thylakoids

117.

Stacks of thylakoids are called

a)

Granum / grana

b)

Lamellae

c)

Stroma

d)

High-rise

118.

Granum are connected by

a)

DNA strands

b)

Thylakoid sheets

c)

Stroma

d)

Lamellae

119.

How many membranes do chloroplasts have?

a)

One - similar to the cell membrane it surrounds the chloroplast

b)

Two - one surrounding the chloroplast and the thylakoid membrane

c)

Three - a double membrane surrounding the chloroplast and the thylakoid membrane

120.

Which of the following outputs of the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis are used in the Calvin cycle?

a)
CO2 and glucose
b)
H2O and O2
c)
electrons and H+
d)
ATP and NADPH
121.
The enzyme responsible for Carbon Fixation in C3 Photosynthesis is
a)
RuBisCo
b)
PEP Carboxylase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
Pyruvate DeHydrogenase
122.

Rubisco is important in which step of photosynthesis

a)

energizing the electrons in chlorophyll in order to activate NAD+

b)

carbon fixation when CO2 is bound to RUBP during the Calvin cycle

c)

regeneration phase as RUBP is made during the Calvin cycle

d)

reduction of the carbon chain during the Calvin cycle

123.

Photorespiration lowers the efficiency of photosynthesis by preventing

a)

Carbon dioxide molecules from being produced

b)

Preventing the fixation of CO2 by Rubisco

c)

Prevents formation of ATP molecules

d)

Prevents oxygen reduction

124.
Compared to C3 plants, C4 plants
a)

have higher rates of photorespiration when the temperature increases

b)

can continue to fix CO2 even at relatively low CO2 concentrations and high oxygen concentrations.

c)

do not use rubisco for carbon fixation.

d)

grow better under cool, moist conditions.

125.

In C4 plants the initial reactions to fix CO2 occur in the

a)

Guard cells

b)

Epidermal cells

c)

Mesophyll cells

d)

Bundle-sheath cells

126.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place? (pick the most accurate answer)

a)

stroma of the chloroplast

b)

thylakoid membrane

c)

Bundle sheath cells

d)

mesophyll cells

127.
CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they
a)
fix CO2 into organic acids during the night when temperatures are cooler.
b)
fix CO2 into by combining it with RuBP in the Calvin cycle.
c)
obtain CO2 through their roots during the day.
d)
fix CO2 into organic acids in the mesophyll cells, which do not rely on stomata.
128.

Why C4 plants are able to carry out photosynthesis efficiently?

a)

They do not use the Calvin cycle during photosynthesis

b)

They use PEP carboxylase to fix carbon dioxide before entering the Calvin cycle

c)

They are adapted to cold climates and absorb CO2 efficiently

d)

They conserve water efficiently

129.

Which of the following does NOT occur during the Calvin Cycle

a)

carbon fixation

b)

oxidation of NADPH

c)

release of oxygen

d)

regeneration of the carbon dioxide acceptor

130.

The alternative pathways of photosynthesis using the C4 or CAM systems are said to be compromises. Why?

a)

C4 compromises on water loss and CAM compromises on photorespiration.

b)

Both minimize photorespiration but expend more ATP during carbon fixation.

c)

CAM plants allow more water loss, whereas C4 plants allow less CO2 into the plant.

d)

C4 plants allow less water loss but CAM plants allow more water loss.

131.

Photorespiration involves

a)

the production of oxygen gas during the break down of sugar

b)

the breakdown of sugar when CO2 levels are low.

c)

the production of massive amounts of ATP in the thylakoid

d)

water being pulled out of the plant

132.

Why does photorespiration occur?

a)

stomata are closed and the ratio of CO2CO_2   levels compared to O2O_2   is too low

b)

stomata are closed and O2O_2  levels are too low.

c)

stomata are open and too much water is leaving the plant by the process of transpiration

d)

stomata are open and the plant receives too much CO2CO_2  

133.

The process of photosynthesis in C4 plants involves

a)

Physically separates carbon fixation and the Calvin cycle in different cells

b)

Converting carbon dioxide into organic acids at night time to be used during the day

c)

Photorespiration occurs when Oxygen levels are high

d)

The light dependent and independent reactions occurring in different cells

134.

Which type of plant does not have a carbon dioxide storage method

a)

C3

b)

C4

c)

CAM

135.
The main advantage of C4 Photosynthesis is the ability to avoid:
a)
Transpiration
b)
Photorespiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Signal Transduction
136.

What would be the expected effect on plants if the atmospheric CO2 concentration was doubled?

a)

All plants will experience increased rates of photosynthesis.

b)

C3 plants will have faster growth; C4 plants will be minimally affected.

c)

C4 plants will have faster growth; C3 plants will be minimally affected.

d)

C3 plants will have faster growth; C4 plants will have slower growth.

137.

In C4 plants, the Calvin cycle occurs in

a)

Guard cells

b)

Epidermal cells

c)

Mesophyll cells

d)

Bundle-sheath cells

138.
The main advantage of CAM Photosynthesis is the ability to avoid:
a)

Transpiration

b)

Photorespiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Signal Transduction

139.
In CAM Photosynthesis CO2 is stored as:
a)

Malate or other organic acids

b)
RuBP
c)
Pyruvate
d)
G3P
140.

All forms of photosynthesis involve the enzyme RuBisCo in the Calvin cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

141.
Which of the following molecules is not needed for the Calvin Cycle?
a)
CO2
b)
ATP
c)
NADPH
d)
H2O
142.

As the intensity of light increases, the rate of photosynthesis in a C3 plant will...

a)

steadily increase

b)

increase exponentially

c)

increase, then level off, then decrease

d)

decrease at first, then increase

143.

The process of photosynthesis in CAM plants has a disadvantage which is

a)

Plant entering photorespiration when temperature increases

b)

A low overall rate of photosynthesis (leading to a slow growth rate) due to limited storage of malate

c)

Photorespiration when Oxygen levels are high

d)

The light dependent and independent reactions occurring in Bundle sheath cells requiring energy expenditure

144.
True or False CAM plants open their stomata at night
a)
true
b)
false
145.
what part of the chloroplast does the Calvin cycle take place
a)
outer membrane
b)
thylakoid
c)
stroma
d)
inner membrane
146.
Cam plants have a different adaptation to what climate
a)
cold and wet
b)
hot and dry
c)
both
d)
none of the above
147.
Why do CAM plants open their stomata at night
a)
It just happens
b)
To reduce evaporation
c)
To collect Carbon Dioxide
d)
None of the above
148.

A nucleotide does NOT contain

a)

sugar

b)

polymerase

c)

nitrogen base

d)

phosphate group

149.

Which of the following nucleotides bonds with uracil?

a)

guanine

b)

cytosine

c)

thymine

d)

adenine

150.

DNA is copied into 2 new strands of DNA during a process called:

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

transformation

151.

In DNA replication, a section of DNA with bases ATTC will line up with bases:

a)

GAAC

b)

AUUG

c)

ATTC

d)

TAAG

152.

One difference between DNA and RNA is that

a)

DNA= 1 strand

b)

DNA contains ribose sugar

c)

DNA has a double strand

d)

RNA is more complex

153.

The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of mRNA is called:

a)

translation

b)

transformation

c)

transcription

d)

replication

154.

A group of 3 letters representing an amino acid is called:

a)

nucleotide

b)

ribosome

c)

codon

d)

anticodon

155.

If the triplet code in DNA is AGT, then the mRNA codon would be:

a)

TCA

b)

AGT

c)

TCU

d)

UCA

156.

What happens during the process of translation?

a)

mRNA is made from DNA

b)

mRNA attaches o tRNA and makes protein

c)

copies of DNA molecules are made

d)

transfer RNA is made from mRNA

157.

In protein synthesis, amino acids are brought to the ribosome by:

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

158.

Changes in the DNA sequence that affect genetic information are known as:

a)

replications

b)

transformations

c)

mutations

d)

prokaryotes

159.

A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called:

a)

chromosomal mutation

b)

point mutation

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

160.

DNA controls our heredity by coding for what substance in our body?

a)

fats

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

lipids

161.

How many nitrogen bases are needed to specify 3 amino acids?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12

162.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding RNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil
b)
RNA can only be found inside the nucleus
c)
RNA is single stranded
d)
RNA contains genetic information
163.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
DNA Replication
c)
Polymerase is unzipping the DNA
d)
Transcription
164.
What is the mRNA strand that would be created from this DNA strand:
T A C A G G C C T
a)
A C G T C C G G A
b)
A U G U C C G G A
c)
T U G G G C C A T
d)
U T G U C C G G U
165.
What does Letter C indicate?
a)
Polypeptide Chain
b)
Anticodon
c)
Codon
d)
Amino Acid
166.
What process is occurring in the diagram?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Mitosis
167.
What does Letter E Indicate?
a)
Codons
b)
Amino Acids
c)
An Anticodon
d)
Ribosome
168.
What is occurring in this diagram?
a)
Translation
b)
Transcription
c)
Dehydration Synthesis
d)
Hydrolysis
169.
What does Letter A indicate?
a)
amino acids being brought to the ribosome by tRNA
b)
ribosomes translating DNA
c)
A growing polypeptide chain
d)
new mRNA being formed
170.

which of the following terms refers to the order in which amino acids are linked together in a protein.

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

171.

The chain of amino acids folds and coils on itself

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

172.

The entire polypeptide forms a three-dimensional structure

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

173.

Two or more polypeptides attached together and work as one unit

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

174.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
175.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
176.
How many different amino acids are there?
a)
15
b)
20
c)
25
d)
30
177.
What is the monomer of proteins?
a)
amino acids
b)
polypeptides
c)
nucleotides
d)
monosaccharides
178.

The diagram shows a bond forming between two amino acids. What is the name of this reaction?

a)

Condensation

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Pepysis

d)

Oxidation

179.
Refers to the three-dimensional structure of an entire amino acid chain in a protein molecule
a)
tertiary structure
b)
primary structure
c)
secondary structure
d)
fibrous proteins
180.
What is the monomer of a protein?
a)
amino acid
b)
monosaccharide
c)
fatty acid
d)
nucleic acid
181.
The name of the initial chain of monomers in a protein is called.....
a)
polypeptide
b)
polysaccharide
c)
polyester
d)
polynucleotide
182.
The two types of folding in the secondary structure are.....
a)
alpha-helix & beta-pleated sheets
b)
polypeptide & nucleotide
c)
globular & fibrous
183.
The main bonding in the secondary structure of a protein is due to.....
a)
covalent bonding
b)
ionic bonding
c)
hydrogen bonding
d)
polar bonding
184.
The tertiary structure folding in proteins is primary due to the interactions of....
a)
the 'R' groups
b)
the 'P' groups
c)
the 'A' groups
d)
the 'S'
185.
What is the name of this molecule?
a)
amino acid
b)
nucleotide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
triglyceride
186.
The diagram shows the structure of an amino acid. Which type of molecule is formed from amino acids?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
187.
The bond between two amino acids is called...
a)
Peptide bond
b)
Amino acid bond
c)
Nothing. There isn't a name for it
d)
Hydrogen bond

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