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FUNDAMENTALS O2

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Low flow delivery device that delivers 1-6 liters of FIO2 per minute

a)

Simple Face Mask

b)

Partial & Non-Rebreather

c)

Nasal Cannula

d)

CPAP & BiPAP

2.

Low flow delivery device that delivers 6-12 liters of FIO2 per minute

a)

Simple Face Mask

b)

Partial & Non-Rebreather

c)

Venturi Mask

d)

CPAP & BiPAP

3.

Low flow delivery device that delivers 10-15 liters of FIO2 per minute

a)

High-Flow Nasal Cannula

b)

Partial & Non-Rebreather

c)

Venturi Mask

d)

CPAP & BiPAP

4.

High flow delivery device of room air mixed with fixed concentrations of oxygen

a)

High-Flow Nasal Cannula

b)

Partial & Non-Rebreather

c)

Venturi Mask

d)

CPAP & BiPAP

5.

High flow delivery device of up to 60 L of FIO2 per minute

a)

High-Flow Nasal Cannula

b)

Partial & Non-Rebreather

c)

Venturi Mask

d)

CPAP & BiPAP

6.

Non-invasive ventilation that delivers up to 100% oxygen concentration

a)

High-Flow Nasal Cannula

b)

Partial & Non-Rebreather

c)

Venturi Mask

d)

CPAP & BiPAP

7.

What is the meaning of FIO2?

a)

Fractional Intubated Oxygen

b)

Fractional Inspired Oxygen

c)

Functional Intubated Oxygen

d)

Functional Inspired Oxygen

8.

At what percentage is FIO2 delivered through a nasal cannula?

a)

24% to 50%

b)

24% to 44%

c)

35% to 50%

d)

21% to 100%

9.

At what percentage is FIO2 delivered through a simple face mask?

a)

24% to 50%

b)

60% to 90%

c)

35% to 50%

d)

21% to 100%

10.

At what percentage is FIO2 delivered through a partial and non-rebreather mask?

a)

24% to 50%

b)

60% to 90%

c)

35% to 50%

d)

21% to 100%

11.

At what percentage is O2 delivered through a venturi mask?

a)

24% to 50%

b)

60% to 90%

c)

35% to 50%

d)

21% to 100%

12.

At what percentage is O2 delivered through a CPAP and BiPAP machine?

a)

24% to 50%

b)

60% to 90%

c)

35% to 50%

d)

21% to 100%

13.

Reservoir bag of partial and non-rebreather mask should ALWAYS remain

a)

Fully Inflated

b)

Partially Inflated

c)

Fully deflated

14.

A venturi mask administers

a)

Low, intermittent O2

b)

Low, constant O2

c)

High, intermittent O2

d)

High, constant O2

15.

Prevents the use of invasive artificial airways in pt's with acute respiratory failure, cardiogenic pulmonary edema, or COPD

a)

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

b)

Invasive Mechanical Ventilation

c)

Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation

16.

Treats pt's with obstructive sleep apnea, heart failure, and preterm infants with underdeveloped lungs

a)

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

b)

Invasive Mechanical Ventilation

c)

Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation

17.

Supports cardiopulmonary gas exchange, increases lung volume, and reduces the work of breathing

a)

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

b)

Invasive Mechanical Ventilation

c)

Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation

18.

Which of the following are ways to promote lung expansion?

a)

Ambulation

b)

Frequent changes in position

c)

45 degree semi fowler's position

d)

Incentive spirometry

19.

Immobility is a major factor in developing

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Bronchitis

c)

Ventilatory associated pneumonia

d)

Functional limitations

20.

Early ambulation increases

a)

Lung expansion

b)

Respiratory impairment

c)

General strength

d)

Pulmonary secretions

21.

Frequent changes of position reduces

a)

Decreased chest wall expansion

b)

Stasis of pulmonary secretions

c)

Increased chest wall expansion

d)

Flow of pulmonary secretions

22.

45 degree semi fowler's position is the most effective to

a)

Clearing secretions

b)

Reduce pressure from the abdomen of the diaphragm

c)

Gaining strength

d)

Promote lung expansion

23.

In the presence of pulmonary abscess of hemorrhage how should you position the patient?

a)

Hunched over forwards

b)

With affected lung up

c)

With affected lung down

d)

Flat on their back

24.

Incentive spirometry encourages what?

a)

Voluntary, deep breathing

b)

Voluntary, shallow breathing

c)

Involuntary, deep breathing

d)

Involuntary, shallow breathing

25.

During suctioning the patient should be in which position?

a)

Right and left lateral recumbent

b)

Supine and dorsal recumbent

c)

Semi and high fowler's

d)

Prone and sims'

26.

Which type of pressure is applied during withdrawal of suctioning catheter?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

27.

Patient is able to cough effectively but cannot clear secretions... Which suctioning would be used?

a)

Orotracheal & Nasotracheal

b)

Tracheal Suctioning

c)

Oropharyngeal & Nasopharyngeal

28.

The patient is unable to cough to manage secretions... Which type of suctioning is used?

a)

Orotracheal & Nasotracheal

b)

Tracheal Suctioning

c)

Oropharyngeal & Nasopharyngeal

29.

Suctioning used with an artificial airway

a)

Orotracheal & Nasotracheal

b)

Tracheal Suctioning

c)

Oropharyngeal & Nasopharyngeal

30.

NEVER apply suction pressure while

a)

Inserting

b)

Removing

31.

Type of suctioning that uses NEW sterile technique

a)

Opened

b)

Closed

32.

Type of suctioning that uses REUSABLE sterile technique

a)

Opened

b)

Closed

33.

Which of the following is the reason closed suctioning is most often used on patients who require invasive mechanical ventilation?

a)

Decreases chance of pulmonary embolism

b)

Reduces risk of infection

c)

Allows for continuous delivery of O2

d)

Aides in the removal of CO2

34.

Catheter inserted through the thorax into the chest cavity for removing air or fluid

a)

Pulmonary Tube

b)

Chest IV

c)

Chest Tube

d)

Central Line

35.

Which of the following is a chest tube used for?

a)

Chest Surgery

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

COPD

d)

Hemothorax

36.

The loss of which kind of intrapleural pressure causes the lung to collapse?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

37.

Type of chest tube used to remove small amounts of air

a)

Large Bore Chest Tube

b)

Medium Bore Chest Tube

c)

Small Bore Chest Tube

d)

Mini Bore Chest Tube

38.

Type of chest tube used to remove a large amount of fluid, blood, or air

a)

Large Bore Chest Tube

b)

Medium Bore Chest Tube

c)

Small Bore Chest Tube

d)

Mini Bore Chest Tube

39.

Chest tube systems should be kept

a)

Opened and above the chest

b)

Opened and below the chest

c)

Closed and above the chest

d)

Closed and below the chest

40.

Clamping a chest tube while ambulating patients can result in what?

a)

COPD

b)

Tension pneumothorax

c)

Asthma

d)

Pneumonia

41.

Decreases the oxygen carrying capacity of blood by reducing the amount of hemoglobin transport oxygen

a)

Shock & dehydration

b)

Chronic hypoxemia

c)

Anemia, CO2, & toxins

d)

Fluid loss

42.

Increases red blood cells to increases the amount of hemoglobin and available oxygen-binding sites

a)

Shock & dehydration

b)

Chronic hypoxemia

c)

Anemia, CO2, & toxins

d)

Fluid loss

43.

Causes extracellular fluid loss and reduces circulating blood volume

a)

Shock & dehydration

b)

Chronic hypoxemia

c)

Anemia, CO2, & toxins

d)

Fluid loss

44.

Peripheral vasoconstriction and increased heart rate increases the volume of blood returned to the heart

a)

Shock & dehydration

b)

Chronic hypoxemia

c)

Anemia, CO2, & toxins

d)

Fluid loss

45.

Decreases FIO2 which limits the delivery of inspired oxygen to alveoli

a)

Chronic Lung Disease

b)

Fever

c)

Emphysema

d)

Airway Obstruction

46.

Metabolic needs are high causing oxygenation decline when needs aren't met and the body starts to breakdown protein store causing muscle wasting

a)

Chronic Lung Disease

b)

Fever

c)

Emphysema

d)

Airway Obstruction

47.

Oxygenation decreases as a direct consequence and varying degrees of dyspnea, tachypnea, hypoxemia, and hypercapnia occur

a)

Chronic Lung Disease

b)

Fever

c)

Emphysema

d)

Airway Obstruction

48.

Changes in the AP diameter of the chest wall (barrel chest) occurs bc of overuse of accessory muscles and air trapped in lungs

a)

Chronic Lung Disease

b)

Fever

c)

Emphysema

d)

Airway Obstruction

49.

What alterations in respiratory function affect respirations?

a)

Hypoventilation

b)

Hyperventilation

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypoxia

50.

What alterations in cardiac function affect respirations?

a)

Disturbances in conduction

b)

Altered cardiac output

c)

Impaired valvular function

d)

Myocardial ischemia

51.

Transient imbalance b/w myocardial oxygen supply and demand

a)

Angina

b)

Right sided heart failure

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Left sided heart failure

52.

Sudden decreases in coronary blood flow or an increases in myocardial oxygen demand w/o adequate coronary perfusion

a)

Angina

b)

Right sided heart failure

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Left sided heart failure

53.

Abnormal condition characterized by decreased functioning of the left ventricle. resulting is decreased cardiac output

a)

Angina

b)

Right sided heart failure

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Left sided heart failure

54.

Abnormal condition characterized by decreased functioning of the right ventricle

a)

Angina

b)

Right sided heart failure

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Left sided heart failure

55.

Causes respiratory muscle wasting resulting in muscle strength and respiratory excursion

a)

Fluid volume overload

b)

Dehydration

c)

Smoking

d)

Poor diet

56.

Causes thickening of respiratory secretions

a)

Fluid volume overload

b)

Dehydration

c)

Smoking

d)

Substance abuse

57.

Causes vascular congestion and impairs body's ability to deliver oxygen to tissues

a)

Fluid volume overload

b)

Stress

c)

Smoking

d)

Substance abuse

58.

Worsens peripheral and coronary blood vessels decreasing blood flow to peripheral vessels

a)

Fluid volume overload

b)

Stress

c)

Smoking

d)

Substance abuse

59.

Depresses respiratory center reducing the rate and depth of respiration and the amount of inhaled oxygen

a)

Fluid volume overload

b)

Stress

c)

Smoking

d)

Substance abuse

60.

Increases the metabolic rate and oxygen demand of the body

a)

Fluid volume overload

b)

Stress

c)

Smoking

d)

Substance abuse

61.

The effort required to expand and contract the lungs

a)

Residual volume

b)

Work of breathing

c)

Tidal volume

d)

Forced vital capacity

62.

Amount of air exhaled after normal inspiration

a)

Residual volume

b)

Inspiration

c)

Tidal volume

d)

Forced vital capacity

63.

Amount of air left in alveoli after expiration

a)

Residual volume

b)

Inspiration

c)

Expiration

d)

Forced vital capacity

64.

Max amount of air removed with forced expiration

a)

Surfactant

b)

Inspiration

c)

Expiration

d)

Forced vital capacity

65.

Active process stimulated by chemical receptors in the aorta

a)

Surfactant

b)

Inspiration

c)

Expiration

d)

Forced vital capacity

66.

Passive process that is dependent on the elastic recoil properties of the lungs

a)

Surfactant

b)

Inspiration

c)

Expiration

d)

Forced vital capacity

67.

Chemical produced in the lungs to maintain the surface tension of the alveoli and keep them from collapsing

a)

Surfactant

b)

Inspiration

c)

Expiration

d)

Forced vital capacity

68.

Collapse of the alveoli which prevents normal exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

a)

Compliance

b)

Airway resistance

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Accessory muscles

69.

Increases lung volume during inspiration

a)

Compliance

b)

Airway resistance

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Accessory muscles

70.

The ability of the lungs to distend or expand in response to increased intraalverolar pressure

a)

Compliance

b)

Airway resistance

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Accessory muscles

71.

Increase in pressure that occurs as the diameter of the airway decreases

a)

Diffusion

b)

Airway resistance

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Stroke volume

72.

Process for the exchange of respiratory gases in the alveoli of the lungs and capillaries of the body tissue

a)

Diffusion

b)

Airway resistance

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Stroke volume

73.

Volume of blood ejected from the ventricles during systole

a)

Diffusion

b)

Airway resistance

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Stroke volume

74.

Flow of the heart is

a)

Unidirectional

b)

Bidirectional

75.

Period where the atrioventricular valves open and blood flows into the ventricles

a)

Systole

b)

Diastole

76.

Period where the semilunar valves open and blood flows into the pulmonary artery and the aorta

a)

Systole

b)

Diastole

77.

When is the first heart sound heard?

a)

When the AV valves close

b)

Beginning of diastole

c)

When the semilunar valves close

d)

Beginning of systole

78.

When is the second heart sound heard?

a)

When the AV valves close

b)

Beginning of diastole

c)

When the semilunar valves close

d)

Beginning of systole