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Worksheets

Paramedic Semester 1 Final Study Guide

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the vertebral foramen?

a)

The part of the vertebrae the spinal cord passes through

b)

The opening at the base of the skull

c)

The anterior portion of the vertebrae

d)

The posterior portion of the vertebrae

2.

What does the phrenic nerve do?

a)

Controls your diaphram

b)

Controls the parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Controls the sympathetic nervous system

d)

Controls the face

3.

What does the vagus nerve do?

a)

Controls the parasympathetic nervous system

b)

Controls the face

c)

Controls the sympathetic nervous system

d)

Controls the diaphram

4.

What do multiple tissues make?

a)

An organ

b)

A tissue

c)

A cell

d)

An organ system

5.

What do multiple cells make?

a)

A tissue

b)

An organ

c)

An organ system

d)

A cell

6.

What do multiple organelles make?

a)

A cell

b)

An organ

c)

An organ system

d)

Tissues

7.

What do multiple organs make up?

a)

An organ system

b)

An organ

c)

A tissue

d)

A cell system

8.

When is anaerobic metabolism used?

a)

When there is a lack of O2 for cells to use

b)

When there is a lack of glucose for cells to use

c)

Normally

d)

Never

9.

When is aerobic metabolism used

a)

Normally

b)

Never

c)

When there is no O2 to use

d)

When there is no glucose to use

10.

What is the pressure the LV must pump against called?

a)

Afterload

b)

Preload

c)

Systolic

d)

Diastolic

11.

What is the top BP number?

a)

Afterload

b)

Preload

c)

Systolic

d)

Diastolic

12.

What is the bottom BP number?

a)

Preload

b)

Afterload

c)

Systolic

d)

Diastolic

13.

Constricted pupils is a function of the...

a)

parasympathetic nervous system

b)

Sympathetic nervous system

c)

peripheral nervous system

d)

Central nervous system

14.

Dilated pupils is part of the...

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

central nervous system

d)

peripheral nervous system

15.

Arousal is part of the...

a)

Parasympathetic nervous system

b)

Sympathetic nervous system

c)

peripheral nervous sytem

d)

central nervous system

16.

Lowering BP is part of the...

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

c)

central nervous system

d)

peripheral nervous system

17.

Increasing HR is part of the...

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

c)

central nervous system

d)

peripheral nervous system

18.

decreasing HR is part of the...

a)

parasympathetic nervous system

b)

sympathetic nervous system

c)

peripheral nervous system

d)

central nervous system

19.

Increased GI motility is mediated by the...

a)

parasympathetic nervous system

b)

sympathetic nervous system

c)

central nervous system

d)

peripheral nervous system

20.

Cardiac output equals...

a)

SVxHR

b)

SBPxHR

c)

SBP+2*DBP

d)

RRxVT

21.

What is the amount of air in each breath?

a)

Stroke volume

b)

Cardiac output

c)

minute volume

d)

tidal volume

22.

What is the amount of air in and out of the lungs per minute?

a)

Minute volume

b)

stroke volume

c)

tidal volume

d)

heart rate

23.

IO medication administration has medications going into the...

a)

Bone cavity

b)

Arterial circulation

c)

Venous circulation

d)

muscle

24.

What is the amount of blood pumped per beeat?

a)

Heart rate

b)

stroke volume

c)

cardiac output

d)

tidal volume

25.

When we give artificial breaths, what system do we use?

a)

Negative pressure ventilation

b)

Positive pressure ventilation

c)

BVM type ventilation

d)

tidal volume

26.

CO2 and O2 in the lungs exchanging is called...

a)

diffusion

b)

perfusion

c)

Ventilation

d)

cardiac output

27.

Perfusion is when...

a)

There is a passage of blood through vessels in tissue or an organ

b)

There is O2 and CO2 exchange in the lungs

c)

The heart is beating

d)

There is an adequate CO

28.

The epiglottis...

a)

Covers the trachea when swallowing

b)

Is a flap of skin

c)

Is unnecessary

d)

A valve to the trachea

29.

Elimination is...

a)

When substances are excreted from the body

b)

When blood pumps in an organ

c)

When CO2 and O2 are exchanged

d)

When someone breaths in

30.

What is the axial skeleton?

a)

The central part - the head, ribs, etc

b)

The peripheral part - the arms and legs, etc.

c)

The upper part - the thorax and head

d)

The bottom part - the legs and hips

31.

What is the appendicular skeleton?

a)

The central part - the ribs and skull, etc.

b)

The peripheral part - the arms and legs, etc.

c)

The upper part - the head and ribs, etc.

d)

The part of your appendix with bones in it

32.

1mg equals

a)

1000mcg

b)

10g

c)

10000mcg

d)

100mcg

33.

200mcg equals

a)

0.2mg

b)

20g

c)

2mg

d)

20mg

34.

100mg equals

a)

0.1g

b)

10g

c)

1g

d)

1000g

35.

IV medication administration has the medication going into the...

a)

muscle

b)

bone

c)

venous circulation

d)

arterial circulation

36.

What is the foramen magnum?

a)

The opening at the base of the skull

b)

The part of the vertebra that the spinal cord goes through

c)

The anterior portion of the vertebrae

d)

The posterior portion of the vertebrae

37.

IM Medication administration has the medication going into the

a)

Muscle

b)

Vein

c)

Skin

d)

Bone

38.

What do we do when a drug is contraindicated?

a)

Do not give it

b)

Discontinue the medication

c)

Seek medical advice

d)

Monitor the patient closely

39.

What do we do when a patient is allergic to a drug?

a)

Do not give it

b)

Give a half dose

c)

Monitor the patient closely

d)

Consider giving the drug anyway

40.

A 2cc vial contains 10mg of a drug, what is the concentration?

a)

5mg/mL

b)

10mg/mL

c)

0.2mg/mL

d)

20mg/mL

41.

A 2cc vial contains 20mg of a drug, what is the concentration?

a)

10mg/mL

b)

5mg/mL

c)

0.2mg/mL

d)

20mL/mg

42.

A 10cc vial contains 5mg of a drug, what is the concentration?

a)

2mg/mL

b)

0.5mg/mL

c)

20mg/mL

d)

5mg/mL

43.

What medication route is fastest?

a)

IV/IO

b)

IM

c)

Oral

d)

Topical

44.

What route is faster?

a)

SL

b)

SQ

c)

IM

d)

Topical

45.

A 132lb patient weighs...

a)

60kg

b)

45kg

c)

72kg

d)

90kg

46.

A 154lb patient weighs...

a)

70kg

b)

35kg

c)

60kg

d)

55kg

47.

A 176lb patient weighs...

a)

80kg

b)

50kg

c)

60kg

d)

70kg

48.

a 198lb patient weighs...

a)

90kg

b)

45kg

c)

100kg

d)

95kg

49.

You have dextrose at 25g/50cc. You must give 12.5g. How many ccs do you give?

a)

25cc

b)

10cc

c)

30cc

d)

50cc

50.

You have dextrose at 12.5g/50cc. You must give 12.5g. How many ccs do you give?

a)

50cc

b)

25cc

c)

75cc

d)

100cc

51.

You have dextrose at 25g/50cc. You must give 25g. How many ccs do you give?

a)

50cc

b)

10cc

c)

75cc

d)

100cc

52.

A microdrip set is typically how many gtts?

a)

60

b)

30

c)

45

d)

75

53.

A macrodrip set is usually...

a)

10 or 15 gtts

b)

20 or 30 gtts

c)

5gtts

d)

60gtts

54.

What does a 60gtts mean?

a)

1 drop is 60cc

b)

60 drops equals 1cc

c)

60gtts is the same as 1 teaspoon

d)

60gtts is the same as 1 tablespoon

55.

Lidocaine is packaged in 100mg in 20cc. You must give 1.5mg/kg for a 220 lb patient. How many ccs must you give for a full dose?

a)

30cc

b)

10cc

c)

20cc

d)

40cc

56.

Lidocaine is packaged in 100mg in 20cc. You must give 1mg/kg for a 220 lb patient. How many ccs must you give for a full dose?

a)

20cc

b)

10cc

c)

30cc

d)

40cc

57.

You must give amiodarone at 300mg/dose. It is packaged 150mg/2cc. How many ccs must you give?

a)

4cc

b)

2cc

c)

6cc

d)

8cc

58.

All IO needles should be...

a)

Flush with the skin at 90 degrees

b)

At a 45 degree angle

c)

Drawing blood back

d)

Allowed to infuse, even if creating a hematoma

59.

What is a pyrogenic reaction?

a)

When a patient has a hyperthermic reaction to a medication

b)

When a patient has a hypothermic reaction to a medication

c)

When a patient cannot breath due to a medication

d)

When a patient is complaining too much

60.

What angle is an IM needle inserted into the skin at?

a)

90

b)

45

c)

60

d)

35

61.

What promotes a cell's functions by attaching to on the receptor?

a)

An agonist

b)

An antagonist

c)

An enzyme

d)

A hormone

62.

What blocks a cell's reaction by attaching and staying on a receptor?

a)

Antagonist

b)

Agonist

c)

Inhibitor

d)

Catalyst

63.

What effects how fast the heart beats?

a)

Inotropic medication

b)

Chronotropic medication

c)

Dromotropic medication

d)

Stress levels

64.

What increases electricity flow in the heart?

a)

Dromotropic medication

b)

inotropic medication

c)

chronotropic medication

d)

Dietary changes

65.

What increases the squeeze (pumping) of the heart?

a)

Inotropic agent

b)

chronotropic agent

c)

dromotropic agent

d)

Increased blood pressure

66.

What are endogenous catecholamines?

a)

Synthetic catecholamines

b)

catecholamines made in the body

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Chemical messengers

67.

What do you do if the IV site is swollen, red, and has edema?

a)

Use the IV until it stops flushing

b)

Flush the IV aggressivly

c)

Discontinue the IV

d)

Administer a topical ointment

68.

What do the midbrain and pons have in common?

a)

They both control speech

b)

They are both part of the brainstem

c)

They both control gross motor functions

d)

They both are not part of the brain

69.

What patient will benefit MOST from CPAP?

a)

CHF exacerbation

b)

COPD exacerbation

c)

PE with clear lung sounds

d)

Patients with asthma

70.

What is 500mcg equal to?

a)

0.5mg

b)

0.5g

c)

5g

d)

0.05mg

71.

Body parts away from the midline are...

a)

proximal

b)

distal

c)

medial

d)

lateral

72.

body parts toward the midline are...

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

proximal

d)

distal

73.

When we breath, what system do we use? (normally)

a)

Positive pressure ventilation

b)

negative pressure ventilation

c)

diaphragmatic relaxation

d)

Heart relaxation

74.

body parts further away from the patient are...

a)

distal

b)

proximal

c)

medial

d)

lateral

75.

What is semi-folwer position?

a)

on the back

b)

on the abdomen

c)

sitting up somewhat

d)

legs up

76.

What is trendelenburg position?

a)

legs up higher than the core

b)

sitting upright

c)

On the back

d)

On the abdomen

77.

What is supine?

a)

on the back

b)

sitting up

c)

legs up

d)

on the front

78.

What is closer forward on the body?

(Forward from the frontal plane)

a)

anterior

b)

distal

c)

posterior

d)

proximal

79.

What do RBCs do?

a)

carry O2 and CO2

b)

Fight infection

c)

Provide fluid for blood products to circulate in

d)

Clot

80.

What do WBCs do?

a)

Fight infection

b)

Provide fluid for blood products to flow in

c)

carry O2 and CO2

d)

Clot

81.

What do platelets do?

a)

clot

b)

provide fluid for blood products to circulate in

c)

fight infection

d)

carry CO2 and O2

82.

Efferent nerves...

a)

Carry motor signals

b)

Carry information signals

c)

Fight infection

d)

Attack people

83.

Afferent nerves...

a)

Carry information (toward the brain)

b)

Carry motor messages

c)

Carry signals away from the brain

d)

Transmit signals from the brain

84.

First cervical vertebrae...

a)

Atlas

b)

Axis

c)

Occipital

d)

Thoracic

85.

Second cervical vertebrae is called...

a)

Axis

b)

Atlas

c)

Occipital

d)

Thoracic

86.

Hearts primary pacemaker...

a)

AV node

b)

SA node

c)

Perkinjie Fibers

d)

Bundle of His

87.

Heart node between the top and bottom of the heart...

a)

AV node

b)

SA node

c)

QA node

d)

SV node

88.

What kinds of patients have a hypoxic drive?

a)

Asthmatics

b)

End stage COPD

c)

CHF

d)

Drug users

89.

What is the primary drive for our bodies to breath?

a)

Hypoxic drive - from O2

b)

Hypoxic drive - from CO2

c)

Carbonic drive - from O2

d)

Carbonic drive - from CO2

90.

What is the secondary drive to breath?

a)

Hypoxic drive - from O2 levels

b)

Hypoxic drive - from CO2 levels

c)

Carbonic drive - from O2 levels

d)

Carbonic drive - from CO2 levels

91.

The central nervous system contains...

a)

Brain and spinal cord

b)

Other nerves outside of the spinal cord

c)

Just the spinal cord

d)

Skin and hair

92.

The peripheral nervous system is...

a)

The nerves outside of the spinal cord and brain

b)

The spinal cord

c)

A system of organs and tissues

d)

A network of neurons and synapses

93.

What slows down impulses in the heart?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Stress

94.

What in the pancreas is responsible for producing insulin and glucagon?

a)

Isles of All the Hands

b)

Islets of Langerhans

c)

Beta cells

d)

Alpha cells

95.

What does systole represent?

a)

The ventricular squeeze

b)

The atrial squeeze

c)

The relaxation of the ventricle

d)

The release of hormones from the adrenal glands

96.

What does diastole represent?

a)

The ventricular relaxation

b)

The ventricular squeeze

c)

A blood pressure

d)

The atrial squeeze

97.

What is the universal donor?

a)

O neg

b)

O pos

c)

AB neg

d)

AB pos

98.

What is the universal recipient?

a)

AB pos

b)

AB neg

c)

O neg

d)

O pos

99.

What does ejection fraction equal?

a)

Stroke volume / total ventricular filling volume

b)

SV x HR

c)

Cardiac output / total heart rate

d)

Heart rate / total cardiac output

100.

What is the vessel that pumps from the heart to the lungs?

a)

Pulmonary Artery - O2 rich blood

b)

Pulmonary Artery - CO2 rich blood

c)

Pulmonary Vein - O2 rich blood

d)

Pulmonary Vein - CO2 rich blood

101.

If I am having trouble giving PPV and want to insert an airway into a patient with a gag reflex, what are my options?

a)

OPA

b)

NPA

c)

ETT orally

d)

Supraglottic airway

102.

When I am hyperventilating, what happens to my EtCO2 levels?

a)

They stay the same

b)

They increase

c)

They decrease

d)

They don't matter

103.

When a patient is apnic, what happens to their EtCO2 levels?

a)

They decrease

b)

They increase

c)

They stay the same

d)

They don't matter

104.

When a patient has a gag reflex, what is an advanced airway that can be used?

a)

Nasal ETT

b)

LMA

c)

igel

d)

ETT

105.

A contraindication to CPAP is...

a)

Altered LOC

b)

Hypertension

c)

COPD

d)

CHF

106.

What is a common curved laryngoscope blade?

a)

MAC

b)

Miller

c)

King Vision

d)

CMAC

107.

What is a common straight laryngescope blade?

a)

Miller

b)

MAC

c)

King Vision

d)

CMAC

108.

When using a MAC laryngoscope, where should the tip of the blade be?

a)

Holding the epiglottis

b)

At the back of the throat

c)

At the base of the tongue

d)

at the vallecular space

109.

When using a Miller laryngescope, how should it be used?

a)

Hold the epiglottis

b)

Place it in the vallecular space

c)

Poke the vocal cords to stop them from moving

d)

Place the laryngoscope deep in the hypopharynx

110.

Blood goes from the vena cava to the...

a)

RA

b)

RV

c)

LA

d)

Lungs

111.

Blood goes from the RV to the...

a)

Pulmonary Artery

b)

Pulmonary Vein

c)

vena cava

d)

Aorta

112.

Blood goes from the lungs to the...

a)

Pulmonary Artery

b)

Pulmonary Vein

c)

Aorta

d)

Vena Cava

113.

Blood is received from the pulmonary vein to the...

a)

RA

b)

LA

c)

LV

d)

lungs

114.

After the LV blood is pumped to the...

a)

Aorta

b)

Vena Cava

c)

Lungs

d)

Pulmonary artery

115.

Body parts closer to the patient's core are...

a)

proximal

b)

distal

c)

medial

d)

lateral

116.

What is the vessel that pumps from the lungs to the heart?

a)

Pulmonary Vein - CO2 rich blood

b)

Pulmonary Artery - CO2 rich blood

c)

Pulmonary Vein - O2 rich blood

d)

Pulmonary Artery - O2 rich blood

117.

How many leaflets does the tricuspid valve have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

118.

How many leaflets does the aortic valve have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

119.

How many leaflets does the pulmonary valve have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

120.

How many leaflets does the mitral valve have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

121.

What is hyperkalemia?

a)

High Sodium

b)

High Calcium

c)

High Potassium

d)

High Bicarb

122.

What is hypercalcemia?

a)

High Sodium

b)

High Calcium

c)

High Potassium

d)

High Bicarb

123.

What is hypernatremia?

a)

High Sodium

b)

High Calcium

c)

High Potassium

d)

High Bicarb

124.

A pH of 7.2 is...

a)

Acidotic

b)

Basic

c)

Impossible

d)

Neutral

125.

A pH of 7.52 is...

a)

Acidotic

b)

Basic

c)

neutral

d)

Impossible

126.

A pH of 7.37 is...

a)

acidotic

b)

basic

c)

neutral

d)

impossible

127.

a CO2 of 60 is...

a)

Acidotic

b)

Basic

c)

Neutral

d)

Impossible

128.

a CO2 of 25 is...

a)

Acidotic

b)

Basic

c)

Neutral

d)

Impossible

129.

a CO2 of 40 is...

a)

Acidotic

b)

Basic

c)

Neutral

d)

Impossible

130.

a HCO3 of 20 is...

a)

Acidotic

b)

Basic

c)

Neutral

d)

Impossible

131.

a HCO3 of 30 is...

a)

Acidotic

b)

Basic

c)

Neutral

d)

Impossible

132.

a HCO3 of 24 is...

a)

Acidotic

b)

Basic

c)

Neutral

d)

Impossible

133.

If I mix 4mg of Epinephrine into a 100cc bag, what is the concentration?

a)

40mcg/mL

b)

0.04mcg/mL

c)

4mcg/mL

d)

400mcg/mL

134.

If I mix Levophed at 8mg/250cc, what is the concentration?

a)

32mcg/mL

b)

16mcg/mL

c)

64mcg/mL

d)

8mcg/mL

135.

If I mix 2g of an antibiotic into a 500cc bag, how many mLs is administering only 1g of antibiotic?

a)

250cc

b)

100cc

c)

500cc

d)

125cc

136.

What is a DNR order?

a)

An order to not resuscitate a patient in accordance with their wishes

b)

A form to show that someone is in a nursing home

c)

A legal document granting permission to perform a medical procedure

d)

A directive to not provide medical treatment

137.

Can someone with a DNR go to the ED and be admitted to the hospital?

a)

Yes, but they must give up their DNR

b)

Yes, they keep their DNR

c)

No, the must give up their DNR

d)

They aren't allowed to be treated

138.

What happens on hospice or comfort care?

a)

The patient is not treated

b)

The patient is treated to keep them comfortable

c)

The patient is monitored closely

d)

The patient is given medication

139.

What does iatrogenic mean?

a)

Caused by a healthcare treatment or exam

b)

An illness caused by a virus

c)

A condition caused by a paramedic

d)

A medical condition caused by a drug

140.

Why is PPE worn on every call?

a)

To provide proper body substance isolation

b)

To annoy providers

c)

To keep the patient clean

d)

To look cool

141.

What does an N95 protect against (commonly)

a)

TB

b)

Pollen

c)

Bacteria

d)

Viruses

142.

How much stronger is Fentanyl than Morphine?

a)

1000x

b)

81x

c)

10x

d)

100x

143.

What is the minimum gauge needle to use for an EJ?

a)

18g

b)

20g

c)

16g

d)

14g

144.

Which needle size is typically used in small children?

a)

24g

b)

22g

c)

20g

d)

18g

145.

What is ETT depth approximatly?

a)

3x tube legnth

b)

Twice the diameter of the tube

c)

The length of the tube multiplied by four

d)

The circumference of the tube divided by two

146.

Do supraglottic airways need to be measured?

a)

No - one size fits all

b)

No - they should all work on most airways

c)

Yes - they are based on real weight

d)

Yes - they are based on ideal body weight from height

147.

What is Josh's favorite kind of monster?

a)

White

b)

Pipeline Punch - Pink

c)

Ultra Red

d)

Regular Green

148.

When doing CPR, what rate should we go at?

a)

80-100

b)

100-120

c)

110-130

d)

90-110

149.

Is visualizing the cords a confirmation method for intubation

a)

No - it is not recorded

b)

No - it does not count

c)

Yes - but you need more than 1 confirmation method

d)

Yes - that is all you need

150.

After intubating, where do we listen for sounds?

a)

Epigastric sounds first

b)

R upper lung first

c)

L upper lung first

d)

Trachea first

151.

Albuterol Dose

a)

2.5mg

b)

0.5mg

c)

3mg

d)

2.5cc

152.

Aspirin Dose

a)

324mg

b)

81mg

c)

400mg

d)

600mg

153.

Atropine Dose

a)

1mg

b)

2mg

c)

3mg

d)

1mcg

154.

Diphenhydramine Dose

a)

50mg

b)

50mcg

c)

100mg

d)

100mcg

155.

Fluid Bolus dose

a)

20cc/kg

b)

30cc/kg

c)

10cc/kg

d)

40cc/kg

156.

Epi anaphylaxis dose

a)

0.3mg

b)

0.3mcg

c)

0.3g

d)

3mg

157.

Epi cardiac arrest dose

a)

1mg/kg

b)

1mg

c)

1mcg

d)

10mcg

158.

Fentanyl Dose

a)

1mcg/kg

b)

1mg/kg

c)

1mg

d)

1mcg

159.

Ipratropium Bromide Dose

a)

500mcg

b)

500mg

c)

50mcg

d)

0.05mg

160.

Ketamine Pain dose

a)

0.2mg/kg

b)

1-2mg/kg

c)

2-4mg/kg

d)

4mg/kg

161.

Ketamine excited delirium dose

a)

0.2mg/kg

b)

0.4mg/kg

c)

2-4mg/kg

d)

1-2mg/kg

162.

Toradol Dose

a)

15mg

b)

15mcg

c)

60mg

d)

60mcg

163.

Solu-Medrol dose

a)

125mg

b)

125mcg

c)

250mg

d)

250mcg

164.

Midazolam Dose during seizure

a)

5-10mg IM

b)

2mg IV

c)

5-10mcg IM

d)

2mg IM

165.

Ondansetron dose

a)

4mg

b)

4mg/kg

c)

4mcg

d)

4mcg/kg

166.

Prednisone Dose

a)

50-60mg PO

b)

50-60mg IV

c)

50-60mcg PO

d)

50-60mcg IV

167.

Racemic Epinephrine dose

a)

500mcg

b)

500mg

c)

0.05mmg

d)

5mg

168.

What receptor does Narcan bind to?

a)

Opioid

b)

Cannaboid

c)

Serotonin

d)

Histamine

169.

What is narcan?

a)

An opioid agonist

b)

An opioid antagonist

c)

A type of antidepressant

d)

A type of anti-inflammatory

170.

What category of medications are Solu-Medrol and Prednisone?

a)

Analgesics

b)

Steroids

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antidepressants

171.

What kind of medication is Warfarin?

a)

Blood thinner

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Steroid

d)

Anti-inflammatory

172.

Is epinephrine made naturally in the body?

a)

Yes - but not in high enough quantities to matter

b)

Yes - and the body uses it often

c)

No - it is only produced in a laboratory

d)

Maybe - it depends on the individual

173.

Is norepinephrine made naturally in the body?

a)

Yes - but not in high enough quantities to matter

b)

Yes - and the body uses it often

c)

No - it is only produced in a laboratory

d)

Maybe - it depends on the individual

174.

Is atropine made naturally in the body?

a)

Yes - but not in high enough quantities to matter

b)

Yes - and the body uses it often

c)

No - it is only produced in a laboratory as a medication

d)

Maybe - it depends on the individual

175.

When initially intubating, what should always be on hand and be in the paramedic's right hand?

a)

The ETT

b)

A supraglottic device

c)

Suction

d)

A laryngoscope

176.

When initially intubating, what should always be on hand and be in the paramedic's left hand?

a)

The ETT

b)

A supraglottic device

c)

Suction

d)

A laryngoscope

177.

What happens if a patient cannot be intubated or oxygenated? (CICO)

a)

Cricothyrotomy

b)

Attempt another intubation

c)

Further attempt PPV

d)

The patient is given a tracheostomy

178.

What happens if a patient cannot be intubated but can be oxygenated?

a)

Cricothyrotomy

b)

Attempt another intubation

c)

Further attempt PPV if working - if not follow CICO and preform a Cricothyrotomy

d)

The patient is given a tracheostomy

179.

When priming a bag of saline, what should you ensure?

a)

There is minimal air in the drop set

b)

There is already an IV in place

c)

The patient has not had anything to drink recently

d)

The patient is not on ED medications

180.

Which is a contraindication to aspirin?

a)

GI bleeding

b)

Not liking the taste

c)

Took a baby aspirin this morning

d)

Only adult aspirin are available

181.

What happens if Atropine is pushed too slow?

a)

Reflex bradycardia

b)

Extreme tachycardia

c)

It can cause an increase in blood pressure

d)

It can cause a decrease in respiration rate

182.

What is a side effect of Fentanyl?

a)

apnea/decreased respiratory drive

b)

hallucinations

c)

screaming

d)

diarrhea

183.

What is a side effect of Albuterol?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bronchodilation

c)

constipation

d)

hallucinations

184.

What is a side effect of IM Epi for anaphylaxis

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

bradycardia

c)

hypotension

d)

decreased respiratory drive

185.

How can you prevent nausea when giving opioids? (does not always work)

a)

Push the medication slowly and dilute it

b)

Give the patient an emesis bag

c)

Take the medication with food

d)

Take the medication with antacids

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