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WorksheetsIWM507_2023_Test
Total questions: 65
Worksheet time: 3hrs 15mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which is the BEST definition to describe the work package?
a)
The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.
b)
The work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost and duration are estimated and managed.
c)
A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.
d)
The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results .
2.
Generally, a bid differs from a proposal in that the term :
a)
Bid is used when the seller selection decision will be based on price.
b)
Bid is used when technical capability or technical approach are paramount.
c)
Proposal is used when the selection decision will be based on price.
d)
Proposal is used when the project time frame is limited.
3.
What is a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
a)
A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
b)
The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
c)
The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project.
d)
A contract between a service provider (either internal or external) and the end user that defines the level of service expected from the service provider .
4.
Select the answer that BEST describes test and evaluation documents :
a)
Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases to manage a project.
b)
A dependent activity that logically comes after another activity in a schedule.
c)
A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables.
d)
Project documents that describe the activities used to determine if the product meets thequality objectives stated in the quality management plan .
5.
How would you define the statement of work (SOW)?
a)
The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.
b)
A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project.
c)
The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and itsassociated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
d)
Formal responses from sellers to a request for proposal or other procurement document specifying the price, commercial terms of sale, and technical specifications or capabilities the seller will do for the requesting organization that, if accepted, would bind the seller to perform the resulting agreement.
6.
What is the BEST description for scope baseline ?
a)
A component of the program or project management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, .and validated.
b)
The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project.
c)
The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.
d)
The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WT3S dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
7.
What is the definition of cost baseline ?
a)
A financial analysis tool used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.
b)
A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost.
c)
The approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
d)
The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost .
8.
Which of the below represents the BEST definition for resource leveling ?
a)
A resource optimization technique in which adjustments are made to the project schedule to optimize the allocation of resources and which may affect critical path.
b)
The types and quantities of resources required lot each activity in a work package.
c)
A bar chart showing the amount of time that a resource is scheduled to work over a series of time periods.
d)
A hierarchical representation of resources by category' and type.
9.
What is the BEST definition for residual risk?
a)
A risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take- any action unless the risk occurs.
b)
The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward.
c)
A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact.
d)
The risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented.
10.
Which of the below represents the BEST definition for quality audits ?
a)
A quality audit is a structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.
b)
A project document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions, and a summary of findings from quality control activities, and may include recommendations for process, project, and product improvements.
c)
A policy specific to the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area, it establishes the basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as n implements its system for quality management.
d)
A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it .
11.
All of the following are inputs to the Plan Procurement Management process EXCEPT:
a)
Risk register.
b)
Stakeholder register.
c)
Procurement strategy.
d)
Enterprise environmental factors.
12.
An adaptive project life cycle in which the deliverable matures through a series of repeated cycles. The deliverable contains the necessary and sufficient capability to be considered complete at the end of each cycle. Each repeated cycle further enhances the capability of the deliverable.
a)
Project life cycle.
b)
Iterative life cycle.
c)
Product life cycle.
d)
Business analysis life cycle.
13.
Any activity on the critical path in a project schedule .
a)
Critical chain activity.
b)
Positive slack activity.
c)
Critical path activity.
d)
Negative slack activity.
14.
SWOT analysis has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT :
a)
It is a technique that examines the project from each of the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats (SWOT) perspectives to increase the breadth of identified risks by including internally generated risks.
b)
It identifies strengths and weaknesses of the organization, regardless of the specific project or the general business area.
c)
It identifies any opportunities for the project that arise from organizational strengths, and any threats arising from organizational weaknesses.
d)
It examines the degree to which organizational strengths offset threats, as well as identifies opportunities that may serve to overcome weaknesses.
15.
As an output of the Monitor Risks process, an updated risk register generally includes some or all of the following (3 answers are needed)
a)
The work breakdown structure (WBS).
b)
Outcomes of risk reassessments, risk audits, and periodic risk reviews.
c)
Identification of new risks, updates to probability, impact, priority, response plans, ownership, and other elements of the risk register.
d)
Actual outcomes of the project’s risks and of the risk responses.
16.
All of the following are characteristics of a decision tree :
a)
A decision tree is a diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty
b)
Decision tree analysis is a risk analysis tool that can be used to choose the most appropriate responses.
c)
A decision tree is primarily a graphical, qualitative risk analysis technique and is not generally used in quantitative risk analysis.
d)
Decision tree analysis uses the expected monetary value (EMV) analysis to calculate the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.
17.
The risk management plan generally includes all of the following EXCEPT :
a)
Methodology
b)
Risk strategy.
c)
Responses to individual risks.
d)
Risk categories.
18.
Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies .
a)
Management reserve.
b)
Contingency reserve.
c)
Top-down reserve.
d)
Risk allocation reserve.
19.
A technique for systematically reviewing materials using a list for accuracy and completeness .
a)
Constraints analysis.
b)
Assumptions analysis.
c)
Checklist analysis.
d)
Flowchart analysis.
20.
A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities .
a)
Business need.
b)
Business case.
c)
Benefits realization.
d)
Case study.
21.
Dawn is a project manager in a successful product launch in Silicon Valley. She often comes across factors in the planning process that are considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration. These are called :
a)
Constraints.
b)
Dependencies.
c)
Leads and lags.
d)
Assumptions.
22.
When tailoring processes for Project Cost Management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT :
a)
Estimating and budgeting.
b)
Earned value management.
c)
Governance.
d)
Continuous improvement.
23.
When tailoring processes for Project Stakeholder Management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT :
a)
Complexity of stakeholder relationships.
b)
Stakeholder diversity.
c)
Complexity technology.
d)
Stakeholder engagement
24.
When tailoring processes for Project Risk Management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT :
a)
Project complexity.
b)
Project importance.
c)
Project size.
d)
Project duration.
25.
When tailoring processes for Project Resource Management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT :
a)
Diversity
b)
Physical location.
c)
Number of team members.
d)
Life cycle approach.
26.
To increase the chances of achieving project success, the project manager should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Identify the stakeholders early in the project or phase.
b)
Analyze the stakeholders' levels of interest and individual expectations as well as their importance and influence.
c)
As much as possible, create conflicts among various stakeholders to allow the project team to get optimal work done.
d)
Communicate and work with stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations.
27.
You are using a classification model for stakeholders' analysis that groups the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level or concern regarding the project outcomes. This is known as:
a)
Power/influence grid.
b)
Influence/impact grid.
c)
Power/interest grid.
d)
Salience model.
28.
PowerPoint Presentation
In developing a stakeholder register, you need to include all of the following EXCEPT :
a)
Identification information.
b)
Assessment information.
c)
Stakeholder classification.
d)
Project risk information.
29.
During a public hearing regarding your company's proposed state-of-the- art water of the tower, a highly interested resident of the area challenges you: "Would you have this thing built in your own backyard?" Your best answer can begin by saying :
a)
Given that you are not listed in the stakeholder register, I cannot take your concerns seriously.
b)
I am sorry that you appear to dislike having this water tower as your neighbor. We will look for another location for it.
c)
Given that the experts provided ample information. That the proposed location is the most suitable. I would be pleased to have this state-of the art water tower as a neighbor.
d)
If you want to have usable water pressure in your residence, you should not interfere with outwork.
30.
Examples of interpersonal skills that a project manager uses most often include all of the following indicators EXCEPT:
a)
Leadership
b)
Influencing
c)
Governance
d)
Effective decision making.
31.
PowerPoint Presentation
All legal contractual relationships generally fall into one of the following broad categories EXCEPT
a)
Request for proposal (RFP).
b)
Fixed-price contracts.
c)
Cost-reimbursable contracts.
d)
Time and material contracts (T&M).
32.
Which of the following is one of the terms used to describe contested changes and potential constructive changes where the buyer and seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for the change or cannot agree that a change has occurred?
a)
Forcing
b)
Mediation
c)
Complaints
d)
Claims
33.
When tailoring processes for Project Quality Management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT :
a)
Stakeholder engagement.
b)
Policy compliance and auditing.
c)
Project complexity, uncertainty, and product novelty.
d)
Standards and regulatory compliance.
34.
When tailoring processes for Project Schedule Management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT :
a)
Life cycle approach.
b)
Knowledge management.
c)
Project dimensions.
d)
Governance.
35.
Project Integration Management includes all of the following EXCEPT :
a)
Prevention is preferred over inspection. It is better to design quality into deliverables, rather than to find quality issues during inspection. The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much less than the cost of correcting mistakes when they are found by inspection or during usage.
b)
Projects and project management are integrative by nature, with most tasks involving more than one Knowledge Area.
c)
The relationships of processes within and between the Project Management Process Groups are iterative.
d)
Managing project performance and changes to the project activities .
36.
Project Scope Management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Scope can refer to product scope (the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result), or to project scope (the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions).
b)
Projects and project management are integrative nature, with most tasks involving more than one Knowledge Area.
c)
Project life cycles range along a continuum from predictive to adaptive or agile. In a life cycle that uses a predictive approach, the project deliverables are defined at the beginning of the project and any changes to the scope are progressively managed In an adaptive or agile approach, the deliverables are developed over multiple iterations where a detailed scope is defined and approved for each iteration when it begins.
d)
Completion of the project scope is measured against the project management plan. Completion of the product scope is measured against the product requirements.
37.
Project Schedule Management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Project scheduling provides a detailed plan that represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope.
b)
The project schedule is used as a tool for communication, managing stakeholder expectations, and a basis for performance reporting.
c)
Project managers may need to be familiar with sampling, including attribute sampling (the result either conforms or does not conform) and variable sampling (the result is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity).
d)
When possible, the detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to adjust for knowledge gained, increased understanding of the risk, and value-added activities .
38.
Project Cost Management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Project Cost Management is primarily concerned with the cost of the resources needed to complete project activities, but it should also consider the effect of project decisions on the subsequent recurring cost of using, maintaining, and supporting project deliverables.
b)
Different stakeholders will measure project costs m different ways and at different times. Stakeholder requirements for managing costs should be considered explicitly.
c)
Predicting and analyzing the prospective financial performance of the project’s product may be performed outside the project, or it may be part of Project Cost Management.
d)
Measuring and monitoring progress and taking appropriate action.
39.
The project life cycle is best defined as :
a)
The continuum of a project life cycle.
b)
The phases that a product or service passes through from its start to its completion.
c)
The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to completion.
d)
The various ways requirements and plans are brought from a project charter to completion.
40.
Stakeholders are
a)
The project engineers who design and construct the project.
b)
The people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by a decision, activity, or outcome of the project.
c)
The organization’s corporate attorneys.
d)
The individuals or agencies that control contingency funds and their disbursement through the project management office (PMO).
41.
the risk rating
a)
Is calculated by multiplying the probability of the occurrence of a risk times its impact (numerical scale) on an objective (e.g., cost, time, scope, or quality) if it were to occur.
b)
Is the sum of squares of the scale values assigned to the estimates of probability and impact?
c)
Cannot be used to determine whether a risk is considered low, moderate, or high.
d)
Is a commonly used technique for risk avoidance?
42.
All of the following are inputs to the Identify Risks process EXCEPT:
a)
Risk management plan
b)
Scope baseline.
c)
Risk mitigation plan.
d)
Quality management plan.
43.
The primary output of the Identify Risks process is the :
a)
Risk register
b)
Expected monetary value of the risk events.
c)
List of corrective actions.
d)
Risk mitigation plan.
44.
The key processes of Project Risk Management are:
a)
Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Assess Risks, Mitigate Risks, Transfer Risks, and Document Outcomes.
b)
Identify Risks, Plan Risk Management, Evaluate Risks, Develop Risk Responses, Mitigate Risks, and Document Results.
c)
Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Validation, Perform Quantitative Impact Assessment, and Develop Risk Response Strategies, Document Response Strategies, and Monitor Risk Responses.
d)
Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses, Implement Risk Responses, and Monitor Risks.
45.
Monitor Communications is the process of :
a)
Ensuring that information is provided on a need-to-know basis only to avoid unnecessary confusion and possible conflicts. 1
b)
Ensuring that the information needs of the project stakeholders are met throughout the entire project life cycle.
c)
Providing all project information to all project stakeholders to enhance full buy-in regarding project requirements.
d)
Securing and guarding any negative information related to project performance throughout the entire project life cycle to ensure that the project team can continue working on the project with minimal disruption .
46.
Select all that apply for the following: Techniques and considerations for effective communications management generally include:
a)
Meeting management techniques, such as preparing an agenda and dealing with conflicts.
b)
Conflict management for building consensus and overcoming obstacles.
c)
Listening techniques, such as listening actively and removal of barriers that adversely affect comprehension.
d)
Providing a more comfortable environment in project conference rooms to strengthen project team cohesion.
47.
All of the following are information management and distribution tools
a)
Hard-copy document management.
b)
Electronic communications management.
c)
Inputting project performance data into a spreadsheet or database.
d)
Electronic project management tools
48.
Communication activities have many potential dimensions that generally include all of the following EXCEPT :
a)
Written, oral, and nonverbal.
b)
Internal and external.
c)
Conceptual and definitive.
d)
Formal and informal.
49.
Sources of information typically used to identify and define project communication requirements include all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships.
b)
Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project.
c)
Logistics of how many persons will be involved with the project and at which locations.
d)
Availability of the project sponsor at the project location .
50.
Factors that can affect the choice of communication technology generally include all of the following EXCEPT :
a)
Urgency of the need for information.
b)
Availability of technology.
c)
Executive requirements.
d)
Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information
51.
Motivating involves creating an environment to meet project objectives while providing satisfaction related to what people value most. All of the following are reasons of motivation EXCEPT :
a)
Encouraging someone to act.
b)
Participating in decision making.
c)
Providing accurate criticism in the annual performance review or after the project is completed.
d)
Encouraging people to work independently .
52.
Step 4 of the M&E framework looks at defining and moniroting risks and assumptions. Two types of risk levels can be identified. List the two.
(a)
53.
Assumptions are factors or events that can potentially impede the successful achievement of results if they occur. True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
54.
Grouping indicators at the outcome level is similar with the exception that they may be grouped by survey or study planned. True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
55.
Which of the following should be included when developing an output monitoring tool? Choose three.
a)
Organisation logo
b)
geographical location
c)
reference to the output indicator
d)
who the tool was developed by
e)
how often the tool is administered
56.
Output data collection tools should be pre-tested like study tools. True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
57.
When developing a risk monitoring matrix, which three of the following should be included?
a)
Who will be responsible for monitoring the risk
b)
Mitigation Strategy
c)
Level of likelihood of risk occurring
d)
The performance indicator to monitor the risk
e)
The cause of the risk
58.
The lower the level of the result, the less frequent you would collect the data or information. True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
59.
M&E staff are responsible for studies, surveys and periodic assessments. True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
60.
A (a) method is used when we want to have in-depth information and we do not want to quantify our results. Type the word in the box below.
61.
A method is from where the data collected will come from. True or False?
a)
False
b)
True
62.
What are the three main reasons why we monitor? Select all that apply.
a)
Report to Donors
b)
Upward and Downward Accountability
c)
Decision Making
d)
To inform beneficiaries
e)
Learning
63.
Evaluation is defined as ________________________
a)
None of these
b)
the contribution to organizational learning and continuous improvement of approaches and strategies.
c)
systematic assessment of an on-going or completed project, programme or policy with the aim of determining relevancy, efficiency, effectiveness and sustainability conducted at various times.
d)
systematic assessment of an on-going or completed project, programme or policy.
64.
The main difference between monitoring and evaluation in terms of its purpose is:
a)
Monitoring is continuous and regular whereas evaluation is conducted at the end of the project or programme.
b)
Monitoring demonstrates results and informs decision making whereas evaluation assesses what results have been achieved and how they have been achieved.
c)
Monitoring measures activities and results whereas evaluation measures efficiency periodically.
d)
None of these
65.
Monitoring is the periodic collection of data for selected indicators to demonstrate the achievement of results. True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
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