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Biol 1010 Final

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 10hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
All the living things in an ecosystem are called ______________________ factors.
a)
Ecosystem
b)
Environment
c)
Biotic
d)
Abiotic
2.
All the non-living things in an ecosystem are called ______________________ factors.
a)
Ecosystem
b)
Environment
c)
Biotic
d)
Abiotic
3.
An ___________________ is all the living AND non-living things in an area.
a)
Ecosystem
b)
Environment
c)
Biotic
d)
Abiotic
4.
Is the following factor Biotic or Abiotic?
Sunlight
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
5.
Is the following factor Biotic or Abiotic?
Tree
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
6.
Is the following factor Biotic or Abiotic?
River
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
7.
Is the following factor Biotic or Abiotic?
Insects
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
8.
Is the following factor Biotic or Abiotic?
Grass
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
9.
Is the following factor Biotic or Abiotic?
Temperature
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
10.
A large, relatively distinct region with a similar climate, soil, plants, and animals
a)
ecozones
b)
biotopes
c)
biomes
d)
biodomes
11.

TRUE or FALSE?

Each biome also has a characteristic set of organisms that are adapted to living there.

a)

true

b)

false

12.
Which of the following is a "behavioral" adaptation?
a)
migration
b)
camouflage
c)
blowhole
d)
bright colors
13.

Which ocean zone allows plants to grow??

a)

midnight zone

b)

photic zone

c)

twilight zone

d)

intertidal zone

14.
The aphotic zone is
a)
the ocean's dark lower layer where photosynthesis cannot occur
b)
the sunlit upper layer of the ocean where photosynthesis occurs
c)
on the bottom of lakes, streams, and oceans.
d)
where benthos are found
15.
Which zone supports the least amount of life?
a)
photic
b)
aphotic
c)
neritic
d)
ocean
16.

The greenhouse effect is caused by

a)

more heat arriving at the Earth from the sun

b)

the Earth releasing more heat at night

c)

gases in the air trapping heat released by the Earth

17.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
18.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
19.

What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

20.

A population is...

a)

All members of one species in one area

b)

All members of all species that live in one area

c)

All of the living and nonliving things in an area

d)

None of these

21.
Which factor is a density-dependent limiting factor on the population of a species?
a)
seasonal variation
b)
natural disasters
c)
unusual weather
d)
predation
22.

What is happening at the 'A' on the graph?

a)

the population overshoots above the carrying capacity

b)

the population stops growing

c)

growth begins to slow down due to limited resources

d)

growth is speeding up due to an abundance of resources

23.
The sea otter is a(n) ___________ that influences the survival of many other species in its ecosystem.
a)
Cute furry creature
b)
endangered species
c)
keystone species
d)
important animal
24.
__________ growth shows growth of a population under environmental constraints (carrying capacity-K) that sets a maximum population size 
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
niche
d)
uniform
25.

Tracks organisms that tend to live long lives (low death rate and high survivorship rate); toward the end of their life expectancies, however, there is a dramatic increase in the death rate.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

26.

Describes organisms with a high death rate (or low survivorship rate) immediately following birth. Examples include bacteria, fishes, and invertebrates.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

27.

What does IPM stand for?

a)

Integrated Pest Management

b)

Insect Pest Management

c)

Individual Pest Management

28.

Which of the following is an example of biological control?

a)

Bees pollinating crops

b)

Integrated pest management

c)

Ladybugs eating aphids

d)

The application of glyphosate

29.

Biodiversity, aka biological diversity, usually refers to

a)

the same species in a general location

b)

the number of different species in a given area

c)

the number of animal species in a given area

d)

the number of plant species in a given area

30.

a species that is not native to a particular region and has no natural predators and little competition

a)

consumer species

b)

producer species

c)

invasive species

d)

adapted species

31.
If a blue catfish is introduced and eats the large fish who eat the smaller fish, what will happen to the population of the smaller fish?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Stay the same
d)
No affect on smaller fish
32.

The primary causes of extinction (and endangerment and threatened status) is...

a)

polar ice cap melting

b)

global warming

c)

habitat loss and degradation

d)

burning of fossil fuels

33.

In which type of interaction does one animal eat another for energy and nutrients?

a)

Competition

b)

Parasitism

c)

Predation

d)

Mutualism

34.

What term describes organisms striving for the same limited resources?

a)

Competition

b)

Predation

c)

Mutualism

d)

Commensalism

35.

Orchid vines are skinny and grow on the trunk of trees to get more light and space with no negative effect.

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Competition

36.

As you go up the levels of the trophic pyramid, which of the following is true?

a)

There are more organisms and more energy

b)

There are more organisms and less energy

c)

There are less organisms and more energy

d)

There are less organisms and less energy

37.
A relationship between two species where one benefits while the other is harmed.
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Naturalism
38.
A relationship between two organisms in which both organisms benefit. 
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Competition
c)
Parasitsm 
d)
Commensalism 
39.
Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe this plant-herbivore interaction?
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Competition
40.

Which group is not represented in the food web?

a)

producers

b)

primary consumers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

decomposers

41.

What do the arrows in the food chain indicate about the flow of energy in an ecosystem?

a)

Energy is continuously recycled by the organisms in an ecosystem.

b)

Energy flows in one direction in an ecosystem, from producers to consumers.

c)

More of the available energy in an ecosystem is given to large animals than to small animals.

d)

Organisms at the end of the food chain receive more energy than those at the beginning.

42.

In this energy pyramid, which organism would most likely be in level 2?

a)

bird

b)

fox

c)

caterpillar

d)

tree

43.

What is the role of a producer?

a)

Gain energy from eating other organisms

b)

Breaking down dead stuff

c)

Use sunlight to make food

d)

Keep other species from overpopulating

44.

How much energy is available to be passed on to the next trophic level in an ecosystem?

a)

700%

b)

20%

c)

5%

d)

10%

45.

In the energy pyramid here, which organisms have the most energy available?

a)

Top Predator

b)

Herbivores

c)

Carnivores

d)

Producers

46.

A food pyramid represent the relative amount of energy in trophic levels. Which of the following correctly shows a food pyramid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

47.

Which trophic level has the least amount of energy? 1-producers, 2-primary consumers, 3-secondary consumers, 4-tertiary consumers

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

48.

The owl receives energy from which organisms?

a)

grasshopper and mouse

b)

rabbit and butterfly

c)

mouse and rabbit

d)

butterfly and frog

49.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the organism knew it needed that trait, survives, and passes it on.

50.

Mutations are a change in what?

a)

DNA

b)

tRNA

c)

protein

d)

rRNA

51.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
52.
Why do frogs and other organism reproduce so many eggs or offspring?
a)
so that their babies can have friends to play with
b)
the more offspring the more likely the offspring will survive
c)
the more offspring the less likely offspring will survive 
d)
the more offspring the less competition
53.

Which of the following statements about gene flow is TRUE?

a)

Gene flow is a result of individuals that breed in an old location

b)

Gene flow is a result of migrating individuals that breed in a new location

c)

Gene flow is not a result of migrating individuals that breed in a new location

d)

None of the statements are true

54.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
55.

A population is

a)

a group of similar species in different areas

b)

a group of the same species in the same geographic area.

c)

a group of several species in the same geographic area

d)

a group of several species along with their abiotic factors in a small area.

56.

Northern elephant seals have reduced genetic variation probably due to the effects humans inflicted on them in the 1890s. Hunting reduced their population size to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. What evolutionary concept is displayed in this example?

a)

Bottleneck Effect

b)

Founder Effect

c)

Directional Selection

d)

Frequency Dependent Selection

57.

A volcano erupts in northwest Washington state that kills a large percentage of conifer trees. After 50 years of growth the conifer trees remain in small numbers due to the natural disaster.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Gene Flow

c)

Genetic Drift

58.

There are 2 herds of Caribou in Northwestern Montana, one male Caribou strays from one herd to mate with a female in the other herd. What mechanism of evolution is this?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Gene Flow

c)

Genetic Drift

59.

Female peacocks select the males with the most spots on the male’s tails to breed with. Males with less spots don’t reproduce with females as much as males with many spots.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Gene Flow

c)

Genetic Drift

60.

Which of the following is a postzygotic barrier?

a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
61.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
62.
What is a species? 
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
c)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
63.

A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation

a)

Sympatric

b)

Allopatric

c)

Extreme

d)

Convergent

64.

A speciation in which new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the SAME geographic region.

a)

Sympatric speciation

b)

Allopatric speciation

c)

Complex speciation

d)

Divergent speciation

65.

when the organism develops different courtship rituals which do not attract main population this is a part of ____________ speciation.

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Simple

d)

Temporal

66.

The emergence of a mountain range is an event that would lead to _______________ speciation

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Temporal

d)

Behavioral

67.
The structure shown in the diagram is a _____________?
a)
chromatid
b)
chromosome
c)
centromere
d)
DNA
68.
Which stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
69.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
70.
Which stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Prophase
71.
How many cells are made in the process of MITOSIS?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
four
d)
eight
72.

Which of the following is the best definition for MEIOSIS?

a)

the process of two haploid cells uniting

b)

the counting of chromosomes within a diploid cell

c)

a two-step process that reduces the number of chromosomes in half such that there is only one copy of all the chromosomes

d)

the equational division of a cell into two identical copies

73.

In which stage of MEIOSIS does crossing over occur? (The exchange of genetic material between chromosomes in a tetrad.)

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Telophase I

74.

In Anaphase I, the _________ are separated by the pulling of the spindle fibers to opposite poles of the cell.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

centrosomes

75.

At the start of Meiosis II, which of the following is NOT true?

a)

There are two cells.

b)

The cells are haploid.

c)

The chromosomes are paired up as homologues.

d)

DNA is present as two sister chromatids joined at the centromere.

76.

In Metaphase II, _________ line up on equatorial plane.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

single chromosomes (made up of 2 sister chromatids)

c)

tetrads

d)

centrosomes

77.

In Anaphase II, the _________ separate.

a)

Homologues

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Tetrads

d)

Centrioles

78.

How many cells are formed at the end of Meiosis II?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

8

79.
Which statement below is correct about asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction?
a)
Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction both involve one parent
b)
Sexual reproduction involves making clones and asexual reproduction creates unique offspring
c)
Asexual reproduction creates clones and sexual reproduction creates unique offspring
80.
What are some of the facts about asexual reproduction?
a)
Takes only one mate to reproduce and takes a longer time to reproduce
b)
Takes a shorter amount of time to reproduce and it takes two mates to reproduce
c)
Reproduces diverse offspring and takes a longer time to reproduce
d)
Takes only one mate to reproduce and takes a shorter time to reproduce
81.
TT,tt,PP,pp,SS,ss are examples of alleles that are?
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
c)
different
d)
homologous 
82.
Y for yellow body is dominant over y for blue body.  What alleles would produce yellow bodies?
a)
YY,yy
b)
Yy,yy
c)
YY only
d)
YY,Yy
83.
The exact genetic makeup of an organism, such as RR, Tt, PP is its?
a)
phenotype
b)
dominance
c)
genotype
d)
trait
84.
"The Great White Shark was 20 feet in length.  Phenotype or Genotype?
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
85.

Alternant or different genes that code for the same trait are called?

a)

chromosomes

b)

segments

c)

alleles.

d)

homozygous.

86.

Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?

a)

TT

b)

Tt

c)

tt

d)

ts

87.
T2 - Which law states that organisms inherit 2 copies of each gene and donate one to their offspring
a)
law of independent assortment
b)
law of segregation
c)
law of genetic linkage
d)
law of inheritance
88.
T2 - Which observation of dihybrid crosses led to Mendel's law of independent assortment
a)
Particular individual traits persisted for many generations
b)
Many combinations of traits were always inherited together
c)
Some combinations of traits were not passed onto offspring
d)
The presence of one trait didn't affect the presence of another
89.
What are the functions of genes?
a)
instructions for producing proteins
b)
instructions for producing DNA
c)
instructions for producing lipids
d)
they have no function
90.
What does mRNA do?
a)
provides information from DNA to ribosomes
b)
transfers amino acids to the ribosomes
c)
makes up ribosomes
d)
builds proteins
91.
What does tRNA do?
a)
provides information from DNA to ribosomes
b)
transfers amino acids to the ribosomes
c)
makes up ribosomes
d)
builds proteins
92.
What is the process that copies information from DNA into RNA?
a)
protein synthesis
b)
transcription
c)
translation
d)
DNA Polymerase
93.

If a strand of DNA had bases in the following order - ATCCGTC, what would be the transcribed mRNA sequence?

a)

TAGGCAG

b)

UAGGCAG

c)

TUGGCUG

d)

None of the above are correct

94.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding the free nucleotides to the replicating DNA? ​

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

95.

The following diagram shows the steps of gene expression. Once mRNA editing step is finished, what does the final transcript consist of?

a)

amino acids

b)

exons

c)

introns and exons

d)

introns

96.
Proteins are composed of what smaller subunits?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleic acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
nucleotides
97.
Starch is composed of what monomers?
a)

amino acids

b)

monosaccharide

c)
nucleic acids
d)
glycogen
98.
What are the monomers of DNA?
a)
glycerols
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
nucleotides
99.
Lipids can be digested into what smaller subunits?
a)
nucleic acids
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
glucose
100.
Genetic information is stored in which class of organic compounds?
a)
proteins
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
carbohydrates
101.
Building block of ...
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
nucleic acids
102.

Which organelle controls what goes in and out of the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

nucleolus

c)

cell membrane

d)

nuclear membrane

103.

What organelle is represented by this image?

a)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

104.

The jelly-like material inside the cell

a)

ribosomes

b)

lysosome

c)

granum

d)

cytoplasm

105.

Which organelle contains DNA and controls the cell?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

nucleolus

d)

lysosme

106.

Proteins are produced at this organelle.

a)

golgi body

b)

ribosome

c)

cytoskeleton

d)

cilia

107.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
108.
Enzymes are...
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
109.
An enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction in the cell but can only be used once.  True or False? 
a)
true
b)
false
110.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
111.
During osmosis
a)

water moves from low to high concentration

b)
large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane
c)
water moves when energy is used
d)
proteins are built
112.
The picture below is an example of _________________.
a)
osmosis
b)
isotonic
c)
diffusion
d)
active transport
113.
Passive transport requires no
a)
concentration gradients
b)
osmosis
c)
motion
d)
energy
114.
_______ regulates what enters and leaves a cell.  
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Cytoplasm
115.
Osmosis
a)
diffusion of water molecules through a semi-permeable mebrane from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
b)

the diffusion of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

c)
diffusion of water molecules through a semi-permeable membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
d)

the diffusion of particles from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

116.
What is the name of the 1st step of cellular respiration?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Kreb's Cycle
c)
ETC
d)
Anaerobic respiration
117.
Which is not a waste product of cellular respiration?
a)
Water
b)
Heat
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Oxygen
118.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
119.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
120.

Where does the Citric Acid cycle and electron transport take place?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

cytoplasm

d)

nucleus

121.

What happens in the electron transport chain?

a)

ATP synthase allows hydrogen ion to pass through it to form massive amounts of ATP

b)

pyruvic acid is formed from breaking down glucose

c)

CO2 is released and H2O and ATP

d)

glucose is broken down and ATP is formed

122.

Which of the following equations represents the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2

c)

6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2

d)

6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

123.
Glucose is a ...
a)
sugar
b)
carbohydrate
c)
source of quick energy
d)
all are correct
124.

The organic molecule that is the cell's primary form of energy?

a)

Glucose

b)

ATP

c)

ADP

d)

GMP

125.

Choose the statement that best describes light reaction.

a)

It converts CO2 to sugar molecule

b)

It converts light energy to chemical energy of ATP and high energy electrons.

c)

It takes place in the stroma

126.

These are barriers that occur before a zygote has formed

a)

Prezygotic Barriers

b)

Postzygotic Barriers

c)

Hybridization

d)

Chromosomal Mismatch

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