wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AP Bio Unit 4 Review 2023

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hormones belong to the lipid family. Due to this trait, it only makes sense that their receptors...

a)

must be on the surface of the cell.

b)

can be inside the cell because they can cross the membrane.

c)

do not exist.

d)

are difficult to locate.

2.

Cell signaling is similar in all organisms. This conserved trait would support the theory of

a)

adaptive evolution

b)

common ancestry

c)

decent with modification

d)

divergent evolution

3.

Cells in animal adrenal glands secrete adrenaline to prepare muscles for exertion in the case of a threat. This is an example of __________ signaling.

a)

autocrine

b)

juxtacrine

c)

paracrine

d)

endocrine

4.

Animal cells have structures called gap junctions to allow ligands to move directly from one cell to another. An example of this would be found in cardiac muscle tissue that allows the cells to beat in unison. This is an example of ___________ signaling.

a)

autocrine

b)

juxtacrine

c)

paracrine

d)

endocrine

5.

Quorum sensing is used by bacteria to determine when they decide to initiate toxin production. Since the signals only move to nearby cells, this is an example of ___________ signaling.

a)

autocrine

b)

paracrine

c)

juxtacrine

d)

endocrine

6.

Which statement describes the relationship of the ligand and the receptor?

a)

The ligand fits into a site on the receptor molecule like a lock and a key.

b)

The recptor fits into a site on the ligand molecule like a lock and a key.

c)

The ligand and receptor are antagonistic in nature.

d)

The ligand can bind with any surface receptor that is present.

7.

What is the name of the signaling molecule in cell signaling?

a)

substrate

b)

receptor

c)

ligand

d)

channel

8.

What is the name of the signaling molecule in cell communication?

a)

ligand

b)

receptor

c)

operon

d)

inhibitor

9.

Choose the correct order of communication.

a)

reception, response, transduction

b)

transduction, reception, response

c)

response, transduction, reception

d)

reception, transduction, response

10.

Long distance signals involving hormones are ________ signals.

a)

paracrine

b)

synaptic

c)

endocrine

11.

Phosphorylation cascades are often used for

a)

reception

b)

responses

c)

amplification

d)

termination

12.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)
keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
b)
decrease body temperature
c)
increase body temperature
d)
regulate blood pressure
13.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
14.
When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. 
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
15.
The process of childbirth is an example of:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
16.

What type of feedback loop is shown?

a)

negative

b)

neutral

c)

positive

17.

Consider this pathway: epinephrine--> G protein-coupled receptor --> G protein --> adenylyl cyclase --> cAMP. Identify the second messenger.

a)

cAMP

b)

G protein

c)

GTP

d)

adenylyl cyclase

e)

G protein-coupled receptor

18.

Which of the following would NOT result in the inhibition of this pathway?

a)

A change in the shape of the receptor

b)

The presence of a competitive ligand

c)

Increase in hormone concentration

d)

Loss of second messenger production

19.

Which part of the signaling pathway could consist of protein modification, second messenger production, amplification or a phosphorylation cascade?

a)

Reception

b)

Transduction

c)

Response

d)

All of these

20.

The B-adrenergic receptor is important because...

a)

It serves as the only ligand receptor

b)

It produces a secondary messenger

c)

It is the ligand that activates the pathway

d)

It is the target molecule that stimulates gene expression

21.

If MNK1 remained in its active state permanently, what would be the result?

a)

c-Myc would be unable to translate growth genes

b)

Cell growth and division will stop

c)

The phosphorylation cascade will stop

d)

Cell division will increase, leading to tumor formation

22.

When GAP is unable to release a phosphate, what result occurs?

a)

Genes that lead to cancer are activated

b)

Normal signaling continues

c)

GTP is activated by GEF

d)

Genes that lead to tumor suppression are activated

23.

Which of these explains why this pathway involves a negative feedback loop in a normal cell?

a)

As ERK increases, it inhibits RAS, stopping transduction

b)

As ERK increases, it increases RAS, continuing transduction

c)

Grb2 is removed from the receptor, stopping transduction

d)

RAS mutates, causing signal transduction to stop

24.

This type of cell signaling will only be effective...

a)

over long distances (endocrine)

b)

when cells are in direct contact (juxtacrine)

c)

when responding to its own ligands (autocrine)

d)

if cells are nearby (paracrine)

25.

Which receptor is responsible for the signaling pathway that leads to apoptosis?

a)

Delta/Serrate/Lag-2

b)

Frizzled

c)

TGF-B RI/RII

d)

Ptch

26.

Which of these is an accurate response to increased glucose levels in the blood?

a)

Alpha cells release glucagon from the pancreas

b)

Liver breaks down glycogen and releases glucose

c)

Blood glucose levels rise back to homeostatic levels

d)

Beta cells in the pancreas release insulin

27.

cAMP is an example of a...

a)

secondary messenger

b)

ligand

c)

receptor protein

d)

target cell

28.

Which of these shows the cell cycle phases in their correct order AND correctly paired with their functions?

a)

G1-growth, M-division, G2-DNA checkpoints, S-DNA replication

b)

G1-growth, S-DNA replication, G2-prepare to divide, M-division

c)

M-division, G1-growth, S-DNA replication, G2-prepare to divide

d)

S-Interphase, G2-growth, M-division, G1-DNA replication

29.

Which phase of mitosis occurred between panels C and D?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Synthesis

d)

Anaphase

30.

In what phase of mitosis is this cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

31.

Which of these graphs represents the amount of DNA present in a normal cell throughout the cell cycle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

32.

p53 is a gene that codes for a CDK inhibitor that slows the cell cycle. What would be the result of a mutation in the p53 gene?

a)

No cell division

b)

Decreased CDK/Cyclin complexes

c)

Activated DNA repair

d)

Tumor formation

33.

Which of the following is NOT a result of a cell unable to perform apoptosis?

a)

Increased health and fitness due to the removal of the cellular death process

b)

Continued growth of cancerous cells

c)

Potential for additional, unnecessary tissues

d)

Proliferation of cells infected with a virus in spite of immune response

34.

Which of these is NOT part of interphase?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

M

d)

G2

35.

If ATP were unavailable, what would be the effect on this pathway?

a)

Protein kinase A would not be produced

b)

GDP would not bind to the transmembrane protein

c)

The hormone would not bind to the transmembrane protein

d)

The secondary messenger would not be produced

36.

Which of these correctly describes a chromatid?

a)

long stringy genetic material that exists in interphase

b)

homologous chromosome pairs seen in meiosis

c)

one half of a duplicated chromosome

d)

stringy tubule that pulls genetic matter across a cell

37.

Phosphorylation cascades are often used for

a)

reception

b)

responses

c)

amplification

d)

termination

38.

This type of cell signaling will only be effective...

a)

over long distances (endocrine)

b)

when cells are in direct contact (juxtacrine)

c)

when responding to its own ligands (autocrine)

d)

if cells are nearby (paracrine)

39.

Which of these is an accurate response to increased glucose levels in the blood?

a)

Alpha cells release glucagon from the pancreas

b)

Liver breaks down glycogen and releases glucose

c)

Blood glucose levels rise back to homeostatic levels

d)

Beta cells in the pancreas release insulin

40.

Which of these shows the cell cycle phases in their correct order AND correctly paired with their functions?

a)

G1-growth, M-division, G2-DNA checkpoints, S-DNA replication

b)

G1-growth, S-DNA replication, G2-prepare to divide, M-division

c)

M-division, G1-growth, S-DNA replication, G2-prepare to divide

d)

S-Interphase, G2-growth, M-division, G1-DNA replication

41.

In what phase of mitosis is this cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

42.

Which of these graphs represents the amount of DNA present in a normal cell throughout the cell cycle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

43.

Which of the following is NOT a result of a cell unable to perform apoptosis?

a)

Increased health and fitness due to the removal of the cellular death process

b)

Continued growth of cancerous cells

c)

Potential for additional, unnecessary tissues

d)

Proliferation of cells infected with a virus in spite of immune response

44.

If ATP were unavailable, what would be the effect on this pathway?

a)

Protein kinase A would not be produced

b)

GDP would not bind to the transmembrane protein

c)

The hormone would not bind to the transmembrane protein

d)

The secondary messenger would not be produced

45.

Vertebrate immune responses involve communication over short and long distances. Which of the following statements best helps explain how cell surface proteins, such as MHC proteins and T cell receptors, mediate cell communication over short distances?

a)

The proteins receive electrical signals from nerve cells.

b)

The proteins leave the cell and travel in the bloodstream to other cells.

c)

The proteins interact directly with proteins on the surfaces of other cells.

d)

The proteins bind to molecules secreted by cells located in other parts of the body.

46.

The epinephrine signaling pathway plays a role in regulating glucose homeostasis in muscle cells. The signaling pathway is activated by the binding of epinephrine to the beta-2 adrenergic receptor. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway is represented in Figure 1. Based on Figure 1, which of the following statements best describes the epinephrine signaling pathway?

a)

It involves the opening and closing of ion channels.

b)

It involves enzymes activating other enzymes.

c)

It involves changes in the expression of target genes.

d)

It involves protons moving down a concentration gradient.

47.

Classify the image by their type of communication.

a)

Direct Contact (Animal Cell)

b)

Direct Contact (Plant Cell)

c)

Long Distance / Endocrine Signaling

d)

Local Signaling / Paracrine

e)

Local Signaling / Synaptic Signaling

48.

Classify the image by their type of communication.

a)

Direct Contact (Animal Cell)

b)

Direct Contact (Plant Cell)

c)

Long Distance / Endocrine Signaling

d)

Local Signaling / Paracrine

e)

Local Signaling / Synaptic Signaling

49.

What is direct contact communication in animal cells called?

a)

Gap Junctions

b)

Plasmodesmata

c)

Endosymbiosis

d)

Spongebob / Patrick Junction

50.

What is the stage of signal transduction labeled A?

a)

Transduction

b)

Response

c)

Reception

d)

Endocrine

51.

What is direct contact communication in plant cells called?

a)

Gap Junctions

b)

Plasmodesmata

c)

Endosymbiosis

d)

Spongebob / Patrick Junctions

52.

What is the role of enzymes in signal transduction?

a)

To act as secondary messengers

b)

To bind to receptors and initiate signal transduction

c)

To amplify the signal by catalyzing the conversion of inactive molecules into active ones

d)

To transport signals from the cell membrane to the nucleus

53.

Anaphase

a)

chromosomes line up at the center of the cell.

b)

involves the cell preparing to divide

c)

sister chromatids of each chromosome separate and are pulled toward opposite poles of the cell

d)

final stage of mitosis

e)

separated sister chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell and begin to decondense, forming chromatin again

54.

Which of the following statements best describes negative feedback in homeostasis?

a)

It amplifies the changes in a system to maintain equilibrium

b)

It reduces the output of a system to bring it back to its set point

c)

It maintains a steady state by enhancing the response of a system

d)

It initiates a response to an external stimulus to restore balance

e)

It is a rare phenomenon that occurs only in a few physiological systems

55.
What do second messengers do?
a)
transport a signal through the lipid bilayer
b)
relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell
c)
relay message from the inside of the mebrane throughout the cytoplasm
d)
dampen the message
56.

Glucagon, released from the pancreas, attaches to receptors in the liver, resulting in the breakdown of glycogen stores and an increase in blood sugar

a)

autocrine signalling

b)

juxtacrine signalling

c)

paracrine signalling

d)

endocrine signalling

57.

How do bacteria sense local population density?

a)

quorum sensing

b)

bacteria sensing

c)

signal sensing

d)

population sensing

58.

Feedback loops are important because they allow organisms and the environment to

a)

change based on new inputs

b)

fall apart

c)

change based on new outputs

d)

maintain balance

59.

When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. This is an example of a:

a)

Positive Feedback Loop

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

60.

Adjacent plant cells have narrow channels called plasmodesmata that pass through the cell walls of the connected cells and allow a cytoplasmic connection between the cells.

Which of the following statements best describes a primary function of plasmodesmata?

a)

They allow the movement of molecules from one cell to another, enabling communication between cells.

b)

They prevent the cell membrane from pulling away from the cell wall during periods of drought.

c)

They eliminate the need to produce signaling molecules and eliminate the need for cells to have receptors for signaling molecules.

d)

They increase the surface area available for attachment of ribosomes and thus increase protein synthesis.

61.

A researcher examining a root tip observes a plant cell with condensed sister chromatids, kinetochores with attached microtubules, and individual chromosomes that are aligned at the equatorial plate of the cell. Which of the following best describes what the next process will be in the cell?

a)

Homologous chromosomes (each with two sister chromatids) will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

b)

Paired chromatids will separate, and the new daughter chromosomes will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

c)

The nuclear envelope will break down, and the spindle will begin to form.

d)

The chromatin will decondense, and the daughter cell will enter interphase.