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Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which of the following best defines OC?

a)

it is the cost of producing those goods most desired by a given economy

b)

it is the cost of the input mix that will lead to the greatest rate of growth for a given company

c)

is it the amount of one product that must be given up in order to produce an additional unit of another product

d)

it is the use of the least-cost method of production

2.

which of the following explains why a PPC is often represented as concave (bowed out) from the origin?

a)

the law of demand

b)

constant returns to scale

c)

decreasing OC

d)

increasing OC

3.

assume that consumers consider popcorn and pretzels to be subs. a significant decrease in the supply of popcorn will affect the pretzel market by

a)

increasing the demand for pretzels and therefore the supply of pretzels

b)

increasing the demand for pretzels and therefore the price of pretzels

c)

decreasing the demand for pretzels and therefore the price of pretzels

d)

increasing the supply for pretzels and therefore the price of pretzels

4.

in the market depicted in the diagram above (4/2012), if the government imposes a price ceiling of $1.00 per gallon on gasoline, which of the following will result?

a)

a surplus of 6 bill gallons

b)

a shortage of 6 bill gallons

c)

a surplus of 12 bill gallons

d)

a shortage of 12 bill gallons

e)

neither a surplus nor a shortage, bcz the price ceiling would not be effective

5.

assume that Clark spends his entire income on the purchase of two goods, X and Y. if his income and the P of good X and Y all double, Clark will

a)

double the purchase of goods X and Y

b)

buy more of good X and less of good Y

c)

buy less of good X and more of good Y

d)

buy the same amounts of goods X and Y

6.

suppose that a firm begins to hire workers for a newly completed plants with a fixed amount of machinery. as the firm hires additional workers, one would expect the marginal product to

a)

fall initially but eventually rise

b)

rise initially but eventually fall

c)

rise consistently due to diminishing return

d)

rise consistently due to the ads of specialization

7.

in the SR, which of the following costs must continuously decrease as output produced increases

a)

total variable cost

b)

total fixed cost

c)

AVC

d)

AFC

e)

ATC

8.

if the firm produces 10 units of output, its economic profits will equal (8/2012)

a)

0

b)

50

c)

100

d)

150

9.

which of the following is most likely to occur if the firm increases production beyond 10 units (9/2012)

a)

consumers would be willing to purchase more than 10 units at the price of $20 per unit

b)

the firm would definitely experience a loss

c)

the firm would have to lower its price to sell more than 10 units

d)

the firm's average cost of production would initially increase

e)

the firm profits would increase

10.

which of the following statements about a constant-cost perfectly competitive industry in long-run equilibrium must be true

a)

an increase in demand will cause no change in the long run E price

b)

an increase in demand will cause no change in the long run E quantity

c)

the long run S curve is upward sloping

d)

the long run S curve is perfecly inelastic

e)

the total cost of production remains the same as output increases

11.

in which of the following market structures do firms recognize the mutual interdependence

a)

oligopoly

b)

monopoly

c)

perfect competition

d)

unregulated natural monopoly

e)

monopsony

12.

assume that a profit-maximizing firm is perfectly competitive in both the output and the factor markets and is at its long run E. the firm's output is at 100 units, its TR is $600, and the fixed cost of production is $50. based on this info, which of the following is true for the firm

a)

its MC = $5.50 and its ATC = $5.50

b)

its MC = $5.50 and its AVC = $5.50

c)

its MC = $6 and its ATC = $5.50

d)

its MC = $6 and its AFC = $5.50

e)

its MC = $6 and its AVC = $5.50

13.

businesses employ workers from city neighborhoods and rural areas. these workers are perfect subs and cannot be relocate in the SR. the gov offers businesses a wage subsidy if they hire workers from city neighborhoods. what is the effect of the subsidy on the wage rate of rural workers and on the total hours they work (wage rate of rural workers/total hours worked by rural workers)

a)

increase/decrease

b)

no change/increase

c)

no change/decrease

d)

decrease/decrease

e)

decrease/no change

14.

a per-unit tax on pollution produced by a firm will affect the firm's output and pollution levels in which of the following ways (output/pollution)

a)

increase/increase

b)

increase/decrease

c)

decrease/increase

d)

decrease/decrease

e)

no change/no change

15.

which of the following will most likely lead to a more equal distribution of income

a)

more regressive national sales tax

b)

more progressive income taxes

c)

an increase in the high school dropout rate

d)

an increase in earnings for owners of capital

16.

assume both italy and greece produce only two goods: wine and olive oil. if italy holds a comparative ad in the production of wine, then which of the following statements is NOT true

a)

italy must hold an absolute ad in the production of wine

b)

greece hold a comparative ad in the production of olive oil

c)

italy's OC of producing one additional unit of wine is lower than greece's

d)

greece's OC of producing one additional unit of olive oil is lower than italy's

e)

if trade is open between them, these cons have an incentive to trade

17.

following a prolonged power outage, the price of flashlights normally increases significantly. if cities had passed laws prohibiting price increases for flashlights, during power outages such laws would most likely

a)

make flashlights more available

b)

create a shortage of flashlights

c)

shift the D curve for flashlights to the right

d)

shift the S curve for flashlights to the left

e)

have no effect on the availability of flashlights

18.

(18/2012) what is the P paid by consumers and the net O received by producers after the tax is paid (paid by consumers/received by producers)

a)

11/10.45

b)

11/10

c)

10.45/10

d)

10.45/9.45

19.

according to the diagram, what is the dollar amount of the unit tax (19/2012)

a)

0

b)

0.45

c)

0.55

d)

1

20.

according to the law of diminishing marginal utility, which of the following is true

a)

total satisfaction decreases as more units of a good are consumed

b)

the additional satisfaction received from consuming extra units of a good decreases as consumption of the good increases

c)

the additional satisfaction received from consuming extra units of a good decreases as consumption of the good decreases

d)

when MU is decreasing, total utility is decreasing

21.

within the range of market demand, which of the following is consistent witht he conditions of a natural monopoly

a)

long run total cost decreases as output increases

b)

long run ATC remains constant as output increases

c)

long run ATC decreases as output increases

d)

marginal cost exceeds average cost

22.

as farmer grows wheat using two inputs: labor and land whose prices are constant. if she doubles her inputs, she finds that the quantity of wheat produced more than doubles. therefore, it must be true that in this output range her long run average total cost curve is

a)

upward sloping

b)

downward sloping

c)

horizontal

d)

vertical

e)

u-shaped

23.

a constant cost, perfectly competitive gadget industry is in long run E. an increase in the number of consumers of gadgets will most likely result in

a)

higher SR and LR prices for gadgets

b)

reduced SR profits, followed by the exit of some firms

c)

an upward shift in all SR cost curves, followed by a higher LR price for gadgets

d)

a higher SR price for gadgets, followed by an increase in the quantity produced

e)

a decreasein the demand for gadgets, followed by a decrease in the supply of gadgets

24.

the profit-maximizing firm depicted in the graph above should (24/2012)

a)

exit if conditions do not improve in the LR

b)

produce the output that minimized ATC

c)

increase price to maximize profits

d)

increase output to maximize profits

25.

if the AVC of producing 5 units of a good is $100 and the AVC of producing 6 units is $150, the the MC of increasing output from 5 to 6 units is

a)

50

b)

250

c)

300

d)

400

26.

how many workers would the coal company want to hire if the price of coal were competitively priced at $5 per ton and the wage rate were $40 per day (26/2012)

a)

5

b)

4

c)

3

d)

2

27.

the marginal physical product of the second worker is (27/2012)

a)

19

b)

22

c)

25

d)

44

28.

instead of being employed at a printing company at a salary of $25000 per year, Sally starts her own printing firm. rather than renting a building that she owns to someone else for $10000 per year, she uses it as the location for her company. her costs for workers, materials, ads, and energy during her first year are $125000. if the TR from her printing company is $155000, her total economic profit is

a)

-$5000

b)

$5000

c)

$20000

d)

$30000

29.

if the production of a good generates a positive externality, the gov can increase allocative efficiency by

a)

taxing the producer of the good

b)

subsidizing the producer of the good

c)

prosecuting firms that produce the good without proper permits

d)

setting a price ceiling to encourage production of the good

e)

setting a price floor to discourage production of the good

30.

which of the following is the best example of pure public good

a)

electricity from a public utility

b)

mail delivery service by the post office

c)

social security payments

d)

national defense

31.

according to the information in the table above, which of the following statements is true if both cons have the same num of workers

a)

con A has both an absolute and comp ad in manufactured goods

b)

con A has an absolute ad in manufactured goods but a comp ad in service goods

c)

con B has a comp ad in service goods but a comp ad in manufactured goods

d)

con A has an absolute ad in service goods but a comp ad in manufactured goods

32.

which of the following would most likely result in a decrease in the E price of oranges

a)

the weather during this orange-growing season is not as good as it was last year

b)

the price of apples, a sub for oranges, is higher this year than last year

c)

new studies suggest that oranges contain traces of cancer-causing substances due to pesticide residue

d)

a tree-killing fungus spreads thru orange orchards across the country

33.

is a severe drought destroys a significant portion of the peanut crop and peanut farmers' revenues increase, which of the following is true over the observed range of prices

a)

the D for peanuts must be unit price elastic

b)

the D for peanuts must be price elastic

c)

the D for peanuts must be price inelastic

d)

the S of peanuts must be price inelastic

34.

promoters of a rock group know that if they charged $8 a ticket, 400 people would buy tickets for a concert, and if they charged $4 a ticket, 800 people would buy tickets. over this price range, the demand for the concert tickets for the rock group is

a)

elastic

b)

inelastic

c)

unit elastic

d)

perfectly elastic

e)

perfectly inelastic

35.

assume that people like onions on their hamburgers. if the supply of hamburgers decreases, the demand for onions will most likely

a)

remain unchanged because hamburgers and onions are different goods

b)

increase because burgers and onions are subs

c)

increase because burgers and onions are comp

d)

decrease because burgers and onions are comp

e)

increase because burgers and onions are comp

36.

if labor is the only variable input in the production process, the SR MC curve is upward sloping because which of the following occurs as more and more labor is added

a)

output decreases, and thus MC increases

b)

output increases, and thus MC increases

c)

output increases at an increasing rate, and thus the cost of producing each additional output increases

d)

output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus the cost of producing each additional output increases

e)

output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus the cost of producing each additional output decreases

37.

at a firm's current rate of output, the MC = $65, the AVC = $35, the AFC = $30, and the product price is $65. which of the following statements is true for the firm

a)

economic profits are zero bc MR = MC

b)

economic profits are negative bc TR is less than TC

c)

economic profits are positive bc TR is greater then TC

d)

economic profits are negative bc P > AVC

e)

economic profits are zero bc P = ATC

38.

the graph above shows the SR cost curves of a firm in a perfectly competitive market. which of the following are true at the firm's profit-maximizing output level

I. P exceeds ATC

II. Economic profits are zero

III. MC = ATC

IV. New firms are likely to enter the market in the LR

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

I and IV only

d)

I, III and IV only

e)

I, II, III and IV

39.

which of the following best describes an oligopolistic market

a)

many sellers with identical products and no barriers to entry

b)

many seller, each with a clearly differentiated product, and no barriers to entry

c)

a few competing sellers with similar products and high barriers to entry

d)

a few competing sellers of identical products and no barriers to entry

e)

no competition

40.

the payoff matrix below shows the per-unit profits associated with the production strategies of two utility companies, UA and UB. each firm has two choices: to reduce production by 10% or by 20%. the first entry in each cell indicates the profits to UA, and the second, the profits to UB (40/2012).

based on the info, and assuming no cooperation, which of the following statements is true?

a)

neither comps has a dominant strategy

b)

both comps have an incentive to reduce production by 10%

c)

both companies have an incentive to reduce production by 20%

d)

only UA has an incentive to reduce production by 20%

41.

in order to minimize SR losses, a profit-maximizing firm will necessarily shut down production under which of the following conditions

a)

TR is less than TC

b)

MC is greater than ATC

c)

MC is less than MR

d)

AR is less than AVC

e)

AR is less than ATC

42.

an increase in the effective minimum wage will have less of an impact on employment if the demand for labor is (vẽ hình)

a)

a derived demand

b)

decreasing

c)

relatively elastic

d)

relatively inelastic

e)

unit elastic

43.

if a firm employs only labor and capital in its production process, which of the following best describes the optimal combination of inputs for the firm in the LR

a)

the marginal product per dollar spent on labor is equal to the marginal product per dollar spent on capital

b)

the marginal product of labor = the marginal product of capital

c)

the total product of labor = the total product of capital

d)

the marginal product of labor and capital are both zero

e)

all marginal products are equal to all average products

44.

most economists argue that a monopoly is inefficient because it

a)

has no incentive to minimize its cost

b)

produces too little output and sets a price above MC

c)

earns too much profit by charging consumers any price it wants

d)

produces too much output and thus wastes scare resources

45.

the table above shows the distribution of income in country X in 2010 before and after taxes and transfer payments. which of the following can be concluded about the effect of the gov's tax and transfer policies on income distribution in country X (45/2012)

a)

the distribution of income is significantly less equal after accounting for the impact of gov policies

b)

the distribution of income is about the same after accounting for the impact of gov policies

c)

the largest gainers from gov policies are the third and fourth quintile group

d)

the only quintile to benefit from gov policies is the lowest quintile

e)

the major transfer of income is from the highest quintile to the two lowest quintiles

46.

after graduating from high school, Peggy Smith decided to enroll in a two-year program at the local community college rather than to accept a job that offered a salary of $12000 per year. if the annual tuition and fees are $4600, the annual OC of attending the community college is

a)

4600

b)

7400

c)

12000

d)

16600

47.

in which of the following situations is a good NOT scarce

a)

consumers give up nothing to obtain more of the good

b)

consumers can purchase as much of the good as they want at its current market price

c)

large quantities of the good are available in the marketplace

d)

there is a surplus of the good at some positive price

e)

there is a shortage of the good at some positive price

48.

suppose the market S curve for shoes is upward sloping and the market D curve is downward sloping. how will the imposition of a sales tax on shoes affect the CS, PS and TS

a)

decrease/decrease/decrease

b)

decrease/increase/increase

c)

decrease/increase/decrease

d)

increase/decrease/decrease

49.

at her current level of consumption, a consumer is willing to pay up to $1.50 for a bottle of water and up to $1500 for a diamond ring because the

a)

total utility of diamond ring > the total utility of water

b)

total utility of water < MU of a diamond ring

c)

MU of a bottle of water < MU of a diamond ring

d)

MU of a bottle of water > MU of a diamond ring

e)

consumer is irrational and does not understand that water is more important than a diamond

50.

if a firm's production process exhibits economies of scale, which of the following will occur when the firm's output increases

a)

its SR ATCs will rise

b)

its LR ATCs will rise

c)

its LR ATCs will fall

d)

its SR TCs will fall

51.

which of the following helps explain why the demand curve for a normal good is downward sloping

a)

the income and subs effects move the quantity demanded in the same direction

b)

the income effect moves the quantity demanded in the opposite direction of the subs effect

c)

the income effect dominates the subs effect

d)

the subs effect dominates the income effect

e)

with an increase in income, the consumer decreases consumption of the good

52.

the graph above shows the TR and TC curves for a firm in which type of market structure and what is the profit maximizing quantity (52/2012)

a)

monopoly/Q2

b)

monopoly/Q3

c)

Perfect competition/Q1

d)

Perfect competition/Q3

e)

Perfect competition/Q4

53.

if TR is increasing as output increases, MR is always

a)

= AR

b)

< AR

c)

increasing

d)

decreasing

e)

> 0

54.

in monopolistic competition, which of the following most accurately describes the LR E conditions for a firm

a)

P > ATC

MR = MC

P > MC

b)

P > ATC

MR > MC

P = MC

c)

P = ATC

MR = MC

P > MC

d)

P = ATC

MR = MC

P = MC

e)

P > ATC

MR > MC

P > MC

55.

in a perfectly competitive free market economy, a wage gap between two workers can be explained by differences in all of the following EXCEPT

a)

years of schooling

b)

occupations

c)

marginal products

d)

marginal revenue products

e)

tastes for luxury goods

56.

firm XYZ produces and sells corn in a perfectly competitive market and hires its workers in a perfectly competitive labor market. which of the following best describes the D curve for XYZ's corn and XYZ's D curve for labor (demand for XYZ's corn/XYZ's labor demand)

a)

horizontal/horizontal

b)

horizontal/downward sloping

c)

horizontal/vertical

d)

downward sloping/downward sloping

e)

downward sloping/horizontal

57.

a monopolistically competitive firm advertises to

a)

shift the D curve for its product to the left

b)

make the D for its product less price elastic

c)

make its product more similar to its competitors'

d)

increase its positive externalities

e)

reduce industry's barriers to entry

58.

a profit maximizing firm should hire and input up to the point at which

a)

marginal physical product = marginal revenue product

b)

MR = marginal factor cost

c)

MRP = MR

d)

MRP = MFC

e)

marginal physical product = MFC

59.

(59/2012) the socially optimal quantity and the per-unit tax that will achieve the socially optimal quantity are which of the following (socially optimal Q/per-unit tax)

a)

Q1/P4-P2

b)

Q2/P3-P2

c)

Q3/P4-P2

d)

Q2/P3-P1

e)

Q3/P3-P2

60.

given the position of the marginal social cost curve, one can conclude that (60/2012)

a)

private cost of producing good X exceeds the social cost of production at all levels of output

b)

production of good X creates a negative externality

c)

production of good X occurs in an imperfectly competitive market

d)

market quantity Q3, is the socially optimal quantity

e)

free market will produce too little of good X

61.

at a perfectly competitive firm's current output level, ATC = 15, AVC = 10, and marginal cost = 8, and increasing. if the product price is $15, what should this firm do to maximize profit

a)

increase the Q of output produced

b)

increase the product price

c)

decrease the product price to increase sales

d)

shut down immediately

e)

continue to produce at its current output level

62.

the gov must provide public goods such as national defense because

a)

the production of public goods requires economies of scale that the private sector cannot provide

b)

it is generally impossible to exclude individuals who value public goods but do not pay for them

c)

public goods cannot be produced in private competitive markets since they have highly inelastic demand

d)

private producers charge a price that is substantially greater than MC

e)

no single individual should have to pay for public goods, since they benefit society as a whole

63.

the table above shows the total benefit Toney gets from eating different quantities of apples. if apples cost $3 each, how many should he buy to maximize his consumer surplus? (9/2017)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

64.

given the D curve above (10/2017), if price decreases from 8 to 4 per unit, total consumer surplus will

a)

increase by 4

b)

increase by 8

c)

increase by 12

d)

increase by 18

e)

remain constant at 24

65.

the table below (13/2017) lists the monthly individual demand schedules for text messages for the only three buyers in the market: Allison, Bill and Chang. which of the following combinations of price and quantity lies on the market demand curve? (price/quantity)

a)

4/1000

b)

8/350

c)

12/200

d)

16/270

66.

given the info above (17/2017), the AVC of 25 units of output is

a)

2

b)

6

c)

25

d)

50

67.

(22/2017) the demand curves X and Y are shown in the graph above. which of the following offers the most accurate comparison of the price elasticities of demand curves X and Y at a price of $4 (curve X/curve Y)

a)

perfectly elastic/perfectly inelastic

b)

perfectly inelastic/perfectly elastic

c)

perfectly inelastic/relatively elastic

d)

relatively inelastic/perfectly elastic

e)

relatively elastic/relatively inelastic

68.

assume that the current market E price for milk is $2.80 per gallon and that 5 million gallons are sold per day. id the gov sets a price ceiling of $2 per gallon, which of the following is true

a)

the demand for milk will increase

b)

the supply of milk will decrease

c)

there will be an excess supply of milk in the market

d)

more than 5 million gallons of milk will be sold

e)

less than 5 million gallons of milk will be sold

69.

the table shows the long-run total cost function of a firm (28/2017). the firm's cost function exhibits

a)

diseconomies of scale

b)

constant returns to scale

c)

economies of scale

d)

decreasing MC

e)

increasing MC

70.

if a perfectly competitive market market with no gov interventions is allocatively efficient, which of the following must be true

a)

consumer surplus + producer surplus is at its maximum

b)

CS > PS

c)

PS > CS

d)

all surplus is PS

e)

all surplus is CS

71.

good X is produced in a perfectly competitive industry in long-run E. if the consumption of good X generates positive externalities, the private market will produce

a)

less than the socially optimum amount of good X

b)

more than the socially optimum amount of good X

c)

the socially optimum amount of good X

d)

good X only id the gov grants a subsidy for the production of good X

e)

good X only if the gov levies a corrective tax on the production of good X

72.

which of the following is true of a firm in a perfectly competitive industry

a)

it faces a perfectly elastic demand curve

b)

it faces a downward sloping demand curve

c)

it will increase its TR if it increases the selling price of its product

d)

its cost could be greatly reduced if it did not have to advertise its product

e)

it sets the price of its product at the level at which profits are maximized or losses are minimized

73.

as the population of a country ages, the demand for healthcare is projected to increase. as a result, the healthcare industry is likely to experience all of the following EXCEPT

a)

an increase in demand for healthcare workers

b)

an increase in demand for medicine

c)

an increase in the quantity of healthcare workers supplied

d)

an increase in the wages of healthcare workers

e)

a decrease in the prices of medicine

74.

when the MC curve lies below the ATC curve, it is true that as output increases

a)

MC is decreasing

b)

MC is increasing

c)

ATC is decreasing

d)

ATC is increasing

e)

AVC is decreasing

75.

(54/2017) assume that the gov imposes an excise tax on the consumption of a good. the tax will have the least impact on the market E quantity for which of the following combinations of the price elasticities of demand and supply (absolute value of elasticity of demand/elasticity of supply)

a)

4/4

b)

4/0.5

c)

1/1

d)

0.5/4

e)

0.5/0.5

76.

the monopsonist's marginal factor (resource) cost curve for labor is

a)

above the S curve because the product price is found on the demand curve above where MC = MR

b)

above the labor S curve because to hire more workers the firm must raise the wage for all workers

c)

below the labor S curve because the firm is a wage taker

d)

below the labor S curve because of diminishing marginal returns to labor

77.

which of the following best demonstrates nonrivalry in consumption

a)

occupying a seat in a sold-out movie theatre

b)

sharing rent equally among roomates

c)

catching fish in a local pond

d)

playing golf on a crowded public golf course

e)

listening to a radio program

78.

the lorenz curve is used to study the

a)

relationship between output and unemployment

b)

relationship between income and consumption

c)

extent of income inequality within a society

d)

incidence of an excise tax on buyers and sellers in a market

79.

an effective minimum wage policy in a competitive market will increase unemployment and increase the total earnings of labor only if the demand for labor is

a)

relatively inelastic

b)

relatively elastic

c)

unit elastic

d)

greater than the supply

80.

compared with a perfectly competitive market, a sing-price monopoly with the same market demand and cost curves will

a)

increase output and price

b)

increase output and decrease price

c)

decrease output and price

d)

decrease output and increase price

e)

produce the same level of output and increase price

81.

in an effective rent ceiling is eliminated, which of the following is most likely to occur in the rental housing market

a)

an increase in the demand for housing, resulting in a decrease in the quantity of housing supplied

b)

an increase in rents, resulting in an increase in the quantity of housing supplied

c)

an increase in the demand for housing, resulting in an increase in the quantity of housing demanded

d)

a decrease in rents, resulting in an increase in the quantity of housing supplied

e)

a decrease in the demand for housing, resulting in an increase in the quantity of housing supplied

82.

assume that the market for lemonade is perfectly competitive and currently in E. lemons are key ingredients in lemonade. if the price of lemons decreases, how will the lemonade market affected

a)

supply will shift leftward, increasing the E price and decreasing the E quantity of lemonade

b)

supply will shift rightward, increasing the E price and increasing the E quantity of lemonade

c)

supply will shift rightward, decreasing the E price and increasing the E quantity of lemonade

d)

demand will shift leftward, decreasing the E price and decreasing the E quantity of lemonade

e)

demand will shift rightward, increasing the E price and increasing the E quantity of lemonade

83.

the reason that firms in perfect competition earn zero economic profit in the LR is that

a)

firms are small

b)

there are large number of sellers

c)

firms cannot ads

d)

there are no barriers to entry or exit

84.

if the output if a firm doubles when the firm doubles all of its inputs, the firm must be experiencing

a)

economies of scale

b)

increasing returns to scale

c)

constant returns to scale

d)

decreasing returns to scale

85.

the graph above (7/2016) shows the marginal product (MP) and the average product (AP) of labor for a firm that uses labor as the only variable input and hires its labor in a perfectly competitive market. at which quantity of labor does marginal cost change from decreasing to increasing

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

L4

86.

assume that a profit-maximizing, perfectly competitive firm has economic losses in the SR. if the firm continues to produce and sell its goods, then which of the following must be true

a)

the firm is covering all of its fixed and variable costs of production

b)

the firm is covering all of its fixed costs but not all of its variable costs of production

c)

the firm is covering all of its variable costs but not all of its fixed costs of production

d)

the firm is covering all of its implicit costs but not all of its explicit costs

e)

the firm must have raised the price of its goods in order to minimize losses

87.

the demand curve for a monopolistically competitive firm is downward sloping because

a)

there are large number of firms

b)

the product is produced by using scarce resources

c)

the products produced by different firms are not identical

d)

it is easy for firms to enter or exit

e)

the MC rises as output produced increases

88.

if the production of good X creates a positive externality then from society's perspective, the industry that produces good X tends to produce

a)

less than the socially optimal amount of good X

b)

greater than the socially optimal amount of good X

c)

the socially optimal amount of good X

d)

a surplus of good X, unless subsidized

89.

if the goal of gov regulators of a natural monopoly is to reduce DWL without subsidizing the monopolist, gov regulators would set a P = ?

a)

AVC

b)

ATC

c)

AFC

d)

SR MC

e)

LR MC

90.

a country produces computers and rice, if resources are fully employed and there is technological progress only in the production of price, the OC of producing computers and rice will change in which of the following (computers/rice)

a)

increase/increase

b)

increase/decrease

c)

no change/decrease

d)

decrease/increase

91.

in the graph above (18/2017), S1 is the S curve including an excise tax. the area representing the tax revenue to the gov is

a)

P1P3VT

b)

P2P4RZ

c)

P2P4XU

d)

P2UQ30

92.

Shelby is an entrepreneur who has decided to open a small advertising firm. she rents office space at a cost of $25 000 per year, she has employed an assistant at a salary of $30 000 per year, and she incurs annual utility and office supply expenses of $20 000. her best alternative is to work elsewhere and to earn a salary of $50 000 per year. how much annual revenue must her firm receive so that Shelby earns zero economic profit

a)

50k

b)

75k

c)

100k

d)

125k

e)

150k

93.

if the monopolist could engage in perfect price discrimination, the monopolist's total output and the price charged for the last unit of output sold would be (26/2016)

a)

Q1P1

b)

Q1P2

c)

Q1P4

d)

Q2P3

94.

if a large number of unskilled workers enter the labor market, which of the following is most likely to occur in the labor market for unskilled workers

a)

the S curve will shift to the right and the wage rate will decrease

b)

the S curve will shift to the left and the wage rate will increase

c)

the D curve will shift to the right and the wage rate will increase

d)

there will be movement up along the D curve and the wage rate will increase

95.

the table above shows the maximum number of palm leaves or coconuts that Robert and Frank can pick respectively in a single day. which of the following is true

a)

robert has a comparative ad in picking coconuts

b)

frank has a comparative ad in picking palm leaves

c)

robert and frank can both benefit from trade with each other if 1 coconut is traded for 1 palm leaves

d)

robert and frank can both benefit from trade with each other if 1 coconut is traded for 3 palm leaves

96.

if a 10% increase in the price of a good leads to a 25% decrease in the quantity demanded of the good, demand is

a)

relatively inelastic

b)

relatively elastic

c)

unit elastic

d)

perfectly elastic

97.

which of the following will cause the D curve for good X to shift right

a)

an increase in the P of good Z, a complement

b)

an increase in the P of good Y, a substitute

c)

an increase in the consumer's income, if good X is an inferior good

98.

one reason consumers typically increase the quantity of a good they purchase when the price of the good decreases is that

a)

the MU of the good increases

b)

consumers' purchasing power increases

c)

consumers increase their purchases of subs items

d)

consumers increase their purchases of comps items

e)

the D for the good increases

99.

Reff Corp is a firm with TR = 1000, MC = 5, AVC = 4. both the output and input markets are perfectly competitive, and Reff Corp is currently in LR E. its output and total fixed cost of production must be equal to which of the following

a)

250/500

b)

250/400

c)

200/200

d)

200/400

100.

based on the table for a perfectly competitive firm above, if the wage rate for labor is $15, how many units of labor should the firm hire (42/2016)

a)

6

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

101.

assume that the firms in an industry pollute a river. if there is no gov intervention, the firms will

a)

produce more output than is socially efficient

b)

pay production costs that are higher than social costs

c)

charge a lower price than is necessary to maximize profit

d)

charge a higher price to pay for the pollution

e)

increase production to achieve allocative efficiency

102.

the following table shows Kent's annual income over two years and the income taxes paid in each year (45/2016). with no changes in the marginal tax-rate schedule, which of the following is true about the tax rates

a)

the marginal tax rate was equal to the average tax rate for both incomes

b)

the marginal tax rate on the last $20k earned was greater than the marginal tax rate at $100k income, but the average tax rate decreased with the increase in income

c)

the average tax rate when Kent earned $120k was less than the marginal tax rate on the last $20k he earned

d)

the amount paid in income tax increased as income increased, so the tax is proportional

e)

the amount paid in income tax increased as income increased, so the tax is regressive

103.

in which of the following cases would a firm's TR increase

a)

P increases and D is elastic

b)

P decreases and S is inelastic

c)

P decreases and D is elastic

d)

P decreases and S is elastic

e)

P decreases and D is inelastic

104.

in the diagram above (48/2016) if there is a price ceiling set at P1, CS will be represented by the area

a)

ABC

b)

P2BP0

c)

P3BP2

d)

P3ACP1

105.

a profit maximizing firm will shut down in the SR any time the firm's TR is less than its

a)

TC

b)

FC

c)

TVC

d)

explicit cost

e)

implicit cost

106.

suppose that the demand for soft drinks is price elastic and the supply is price inelastic. is the gov imposes a sales tax on soft drinks, which of the following will occur in the SR

a)

the tax burden will fall equally on both consumers and producers

b)

the tax burden will fall more on producers

c)

the tax burden will fall more on consumers

d)

the % increase in the P of soft drinks will be greater than the % increase in the quantity demanded

107.

the last worker currently employed by a firm has a marginal product of 3 units/h and is paid $20/h. assuming that both the labor market and product market are perfectly competitive and that the product's price is $5/unit, the firm should do which of the following

a)

decrease wages

b)

increase wages

c)

employ more workers

d)

employ fewer workers

e)

increase product's price

108.

Hope Hospital is a monopolistic employer of nurses (58/2016). what wage-quantity combination does Hope Hospital choose to maximize profits

a)

W1Q1

b)

W1Q3

c)

W2Q2

d)

W2Q4

e)

W3Q3

109.

the table above shows the SR output for a perfectly competitive firm (59/2016). if the price of the product is $10, what is the marginal revenue product of the 3rd worker hired

a)

24

b)

27

c)

40

d)

240

e)

300

110.

the table above shows the quantity of gasoline supplied and demanded at various prices in a country. if the gov sets a price floor of $2.75 on a gallon of gasoline, what is the price per gallon (3/2015)

a)

2.75

b)

3.00

c)

3.25

d)

3.50

111.

assume that labor is the only variable input. if the firm's SR MC is increasing as output rises, which of the following must be true

a)

average product of labor is const

b)

average product of labor is increasing

c)

marginal product of labor > average product of labor

d)

marginal product of labor is increasing

e)

total product of labor is decreasing

112.

suppose that the price in a perfectly competitive industry decreases and it is now below min ATC but remains above min AVC. which of the following will occur in the SR

a)

new firms will enter the industry

b)

firms will increase output so that MR = new P

c)

Firm will produce the output at which ATC is at minimum

d)

Firm will produce the output at which MC = new P

113.

which of the following is true for both a monopolistically competitive firm and perfectly competitive firm in LR E

a)

MC > MR

b)

P > MC

c)

P = ATC

d)

P = MC

e)

MR = AR

114.

a perfectly competitive firm hires 3 workers in a perfectly competitive labor market (12/2015). which of the following will be true

a)

each worker will receive a wage based on the marginal product of the last worker hired

b)

each worker will receive a wage based on the marginal product of the first worker hired

c)

each worker will receive a wage based on the average of the marginal products of the workers

d)

worker 1 will receive the highest wage

e)

worker 3 will receive the highest wage

115.

which of the following is necessary in a well-functioning capitalist econ but not in a command econ

a)

centralized decision making

b)

scarcity of resources

c)

monopolies

d)

protection of property rights

116.

is the demand for insulin is price inelastic, a 5% increase in the price of insulin will

a)

have no effect on the TR of insulin producers

b)

increase the TR of insulin producers

c)

decrease the TR of insulin producers

d)

decrease the total spending on insulin by consumers

e)

cause the demand for insulin to be less elastic

117.

assume that good X is a normal good. which of the following helps to explain why a decrease in the price of good X increases the quantity demanded of good X

a)

good X becomes relatively less expensive than its subs, so consumers buy more of good X and fewer of the subs

b)

the MU of consuming good X increases as more of good X is consumed

c)

the lower price of good X decreases the MU/$; therefore, consumers buy more of good X

d)

the D curve shifts left

e)

the S curve shifts right

118.

which of the following conditions is necessary for productive efficiency

a)

the firm is producing at the point where the MPL > APL

b)

the firm is producing a given level of output with a least-cost combination of inputs

c)

CS is minimized

d)

there are external costs

e)

there is no gov regulation

119.

which of the following indicates that a firm is experiencing economies of scale

a)

the firm's LR S curve is horizontal

b)

the firm's LR MC increases as output increases

c)

the firm's LR ATC decreases as output increases

d)

the firm's LR TC decreases as output increases

120.

in the figure above (32/2015), at which given points is demand most elastic

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

Z

121.

the table above (36/2015) shows a firm's total cost of producing various units of output. what is the AVC of producing 3 units

a)

4

b)

7

c)

10

d)

17

122.

assume that the corn market is initially in LR E at point R. what are the SR and LR prices of corn if more corn is used as a source of alternative energy (39/2015)

a)

P/P1

b)

P/P2

c)

P2/P1

d)

P2/P

123.

the LR industry S curve for corn is (40/2015)

a)

upward sloping

b)

downward sloping

c)

horizontal

d)

downward sloping at first and then upward sloping

124.

assume that the gov imposes an effective min wage in a perfectly competitive labor market. what will happen to employment and total wage payments

a)

decrease/increase

b)

decrease/decrease

c)

decrease/indeterminate

d)

increase/indeterminate

125.

suppose that people who work in the paint industry face a great risk of developing an incurable disease. a medical breakthrough that eliminates the risk will most likely cause which of the following shifts (supply/demand)

a)

right/no

b)

left/no

c)

left/left

d)

left/right

e)

no/left

126.

assuming that all residents of the city of smallville prefer to have streetlights installed citywide, which of the following best explains why individual residents do not install the optimal number of streetlights

a)

streetlights generate negative externalities

b)

streetlights are nonexcludable

c)

the marginal benefit of installing streetlights is zero

127.

antitrust policy is designed to

a)

encourage businesses to produce public goods

b)

establish trust between the gov and the business community

c)

prevent businesses from earning profits

d)

maintain a competitive business environment

128.

assume that a firm uses only one variable input. if a firm is experiencing diminishing returns, which of the following is true as more of the variable input is used

a)

MC will decrease at a constant rate

b)

MC will decrease at a diminishing rate

c)

MC will increase

d)

MP will increase at a diminishing rate

129.

a firm sells its output in a perfectly competitive market and hires two inputs, capital and labor, in a perfectly competitive factor markets. the product price is $15/unit, the wage is $75/day, and the marginal product of capital is 3. if the firm is choosing the least-cost combination of labor and capital, the firm's marginal product of labor and the price of capital must be equal to which of the following (MPL/Pk)

a)

25/5

b)

25/45

c)

5/15

d)

5/25

e)

5/45

130.

in the monopolistic labor market shown in the diagram above (60/2015), which of the following indicates the number of workers the firm will hire and the wage rate it will pay

a)

L1W1

b)

L1W2

c)

L1W3

d)

L2W2

e)

L2W4