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Auditing Quiz

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Main object of auditing is_________

a)

detection of errors

b)

to find out whether profit and loss account and balance sheet show true and fair state affairs.

c)

detection of frauds

d)

detection and prevention of frauds and errors.

2.

Auditing is luxury for a _________

a)

joint stock company

b)

partnership firm

c)

small shop-keeper

d)

government company

3.

________ audit is not a statuary requirement

a)

Management

b)

Financial

c)

Tax

d)

internal

4.

Interim audit refers to _________

a)

examination of accounts continuously

b)

examination of accounts intermittently

c)

audit work to find out and check interim profits of a company

d)

carrying on audit for bonus purposes at the end of the year

5.

Audit procedures are methods or techniques that auditors use to obtain audit _____ and form an opinion regarding the financial statements of a company.

a)

evidence

b)

information

c)

knowledge

d)

source

6.

Usually, auditors need to use their _____ to determine whether the differences identified through applying analytical procedures are worth investigating further.

a)

decision

b)

tool

c)

judgement

d)

examination

7.

The example of principles errors is that wages paid for installation of plant and machinery is recorded as _________ paid to workers.

a)

fee

b)

salary

c)

wages

d)

fare

8.

The clerical errors arise on account of negligence of the accounting staff. They are called _________ errors.

a)

technical

b)

principle

c)

unintentional

d)

clerical

9.

An audit report describes the financial condition and internal accounting controls by an __________ external auditor.

a)

independence

b)

independent

c)

depending

d)

dependent

10.

When the auditor issues a clean or __________ report, it means that the company's financial statements have been found to be fully compliant with accounting standards.

a)

adverse

b)

disclaimer

c)

unqualified

d)

qualified

11.

It is the audit report that auditors cannot express their opinion on financial statements. This is usually due to auditors could not obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence to form an opinion on financial statements.

a)

qualified audit report

b)

unqualified audit report

c)

disclaimer audit report

d)

adverse audit report

12.

When entries made in the books of original entry or ledger are incorrect either wholly or partially, such errors are the errors of _________.

a)

compensating

b)

duplicating

c)

omission

d)

commission

13.

When auditors use documents to support recorded transactions, the process is often called ________.

a)

vouching

b)

confirmation

c)

observation

d)

inquiry

14.

It refers to net of cash receipts and cash disbursements relating to a particular activity during a specified accounting period.

a)

shareholder's equity

b)

cash flow

c)

income statement

d)

balance sheet

15.

Distribution of earnings to owners of a corporation in cash, other assets of the corporation, or the corporation's capital stock.

a)

stocks

b)

bonds

c)

revenues

d)

dividends

16.

The (AUDIT) _________must completely satisfy himself with the accuracy and authenticity of the financial statements. Only then can he give the opinion that they are true and fair statements.

a)

auditing

b)

audit

c)

auditor

d)

auditee

17.

After the auditing procedure, the auditor must give his opinion via an audit report. A clean audit report means the auditor is fully happy with the accounts. He thinks they are a true and fair (REPRESENT) _________ of the financial status of the organization.

a)

representing

b)

representation

c)

representative

d)

representable

18.

Periodical audit is one which is taken up at the close of the financial period, when all the accounts have been (BALANCE) _________ and final accounts have already been prepared. It may also commence before the final accounts are prepared and continue till the audit is completed even after the close of financial period.

a)

balanced

b)

unbalanced

c)

unbalance

d)

balancing

19.

The limited time frame for any external audit means that the auditors cannot examine every small detail of the accounts they are looking over but instead will focus their attention on a (CARE) _________ selected sample of results, figures, and transactions.

a)

careful

b)

carefully

c)

carefulness

d)

careless

20.

Audit (ASSERT)_______can provide auditors the clues on potential misstatement that may occur on the financial statements.  Likewise, auditors usually perform different types of audit procedures in order to test various audit assertions.

a)

assertions

b)

assertion

c)

asserted

d)

assertable

21.

The auditor may observe employees to assure they are performing their tasks according to the appropriate regulations and (EXPECT) _______.

a)

expecting

b)

expectably

c)

expectancy

d)

expectations

22.

Fraud is like an ATM machine at a bank. Both are designed to withdraw money. ATM machines enable users to withdraw money from banks. Fraud is the (WITHDRAW) __________ of funds from an organization.

a)

withdrawn

b)

withdrawing

c)

withdrawal

d)

withdrawals

23.

While auditors can identify opportunities to commit (FRAUD) __________ behavior, there are some areas, such as accounting estimates that it is hard to determine whether the misstatements are due to fraud or error.

a)

fraudulent

b)

fraudulence

c)

defraud

d)

defrauded

24.

There are four types of audit reports: an unqualified opinion, a qualified opinion, an adverse opinion, and a disclaimer of opinion. An unqualified or "clean" opinion is the (GOOD) __________ type of report a business can get.

a)

better

b)

best

c)

goods

d)

goodwill

25.

Audits are conducted for a variety of reasons, (INCLUDE) __________ for the purposes of acquiring monetary capital and maintaining government compliance.

a)

inclusion

b)

inclusive

c)

included

d)

including

26.

Audit means ___________.

a)

recording business transactions

b)

preparing the final accounts

c)

examination of books, accounts, vouchers etc

d)

preparing final accounts

27.

The main object of the audit of the cash book may be ________.

a)

to verify the assets and liabilities

b)

to know that all receipts and payments have been properly recorded

c)

to check the internal control system in business

d)

to check the bank balance

28.

When the auditor is an employee of the organization being audited (auditee), the audit is classified as an ____________ quality audit.

a)

internal

b)

external

c)

compliance

d)

both A & B

29.

Verification of the value of assets, liabilities, the balance of reserves, provision and the amount of profit earned or loss suffered a firm is called _________.

a)

continuous audit

b)

balance sheet audit

c)

interim audit

d)

partial audit

30.

Confirmations are documents sent by auditors to_____ parties to confirm their balances with the client.

a)

internal

b)

external

c)

related

d)

third

31.

Inspecting records or documents consists of _____ the supporting evidence for the preparation of financial statements.

a)

investigating

b)

examining

c)

checking

d)

showing

32.

Checking of sequence of vouchers may help the _________to locate the omission. Attention must always be drawn if there is a big break in the series of vouchers.

a)

auditor

b)

audit

c)

account

d)

staff

33.

Errors of omission may be intentional or otherwise. But in both the cases, profit or _________ of the year is affected.

a)

expense

b)

losses

c)

gain

d)

loss

34.

The __________ of directors, the stakeholders of the organization, shareholders, etc. use audit report.

a)

board

b)

group

c)

band

d)

staff

35.

A standard unqualified report contains the following distinct parts:

a)

engagement, scope and opinion paragraphs

b)

introductory, scope and closing paragraphs

c)

introductory, scope and opinion paragraphs

d)

none of the above

36.

It is the report that auditors issue saying that there is a material misstatement and it affects financial statements as a whole. In this case, the misstatement is both material and pervasive.

a)

qualified audit report

b)

unqualified audit report

c)

disclaimer of opinion audit report

d)

adverse audit report

37.

When a transaction is recorded twice and also posted twice in the ledger, such an error will not affect the trial balance. Such errors are known as errors of _________.

a)

compensating

b)

duplication

c)

omission

d)

commission

38.

Evaluations of financial information made by a study of plausible relationships among both financial and non-financial data.

a)

analytical procedures

b)

external confirmation

c)

inspection

d)

observation

39.

It is general name for money, notes, bonds, goods, or services which represent amounts owed.

a)

cash

b)

budget

c)

fund

d)

debt

40.

Net of cash receipts and cash disbursements relating to a particular activity during a specified accounting period.

a)

cash flows

b)

receipts

c)

revenues

d)

cheques

41.

The auditor must be (EXPERIENCE) ________ and trained in the procedures of auditing, i.e. must be qualified as an auditor.

a)

experiential

b)

experientially

c)

experienced

d)

unexperienced

42.

The auditor must collect enough evidence to support his final opinion. This (COLLECT) _________ of such evidence is done by compliance and substantive procedures.

a)

collective

b)

collectable

c)

collections

d)

collection

43.

The auditor must record in his notebook the work completed by him and his (ASSIST) _________ from time to time, material errors detected and rectified, queries raised by him and his staff and explanations given by the client.

a)

assistants

b)

assistant

c)

assistance

d)

assisting

44.

The auditor may use a different tick for checking the figures altered before the audit. Such variation in tick mark should be slight and (NOTICE) _________.

a)

noticeable

b)

unnoticeable

c)

noticeably

d)

noticed

45.

If auditors can't obtain a (SATISFY) _________ answer to justify the inconsistencies, they can apply other procedures to confirm the differences.

a)

satisfactory

b)

satisfied

c)

unsatisfied

d)

satisfaction

46.

Audit assertions such as occurrence, accuracy, and cut-off are usually tested by (INSPECT) _______ the documents to support the accounting transactions in the company's records (vouching).

a)

inspectable

b)

inspection

c)

inspecting

d)

to inspect

47.

Fraud occurs because individuals use their positions to (INTEND) _________ override controls.

a)

intentional

b)

intentionally

c)

unintentionally

d)

intention

48.

In general terms, a fraud control strategy focuses on fraud (PREVENT) _________ and detection.

a)

preventive

b)

preventative

c)

preventing

d)

prevention

49.

Audit reports are very important to a company. It is required by banks, financial institutions, (INVEST) __________, creditors, and regulators.

a)

investee

b)

invests

c)

investment

d)

investors

50.

The audit report gives the shareholders information about the (COMPLETE) __________ of the ledger and accounts, their accuracy and their adherence to the correct principles.

a)

completeness

b)

completed

c)

completely

d)

completing

51.

Once auditors have completed their work, they write an __________, explaining what they have done and giving an opinion drawn from their work.

a)

audit report

b)

financial report

c)

income statement

d)

cash flow statement

52.

The purpose of an audit is to form a view on whether the __________ presented in the financial report, taken as a whole, reflects the financial position of the organization at a given date.

a)

number

b)

information

c)

figure

d)

picture

53.

The ____________ is also expected to provide the resources needed and select staff members to accompany the auditors.

a)

auditor

b)

client

c)

internal auditor

d)

auditee

54.

Final audit implies____________

a)

audit of accounts at the end of the year

b)

finally checking of accounts to reveal frauds

c)

audit for submitting report immediately at the end of the year

d)

audit of banking companies

55.

Audit procedures in the substantive procedures are performed to gather evidence about various audit assertions of different classes of transactions and account ___________.

a)

balance

b)

holder

c)

deficit

d)

document

56.

_____is the process of asking the clients for an explanation of the process or transactions related to financial statements. This type of audit procedure usually involves collecting verbal evidence.

a)

scanning

b)

vouching

c)

tracing

d)

inquiry

57.

The errors are difficult to _________ as the Trial Balance tallies in spite of such errors. For instance, capital expenditure is recorded as revenue expenditure or vice versa.

a)

record

b)

arise

c)

get

d)

detect

58.

When a transaction is recorded twice and also posted twice in the ledger, such an error is an error of _________.

a)

compensation

b)

duplication

c)

omission

d)

transaction

59.

A clean report is issued when the auditor is satisfied with the __________.

a)

fairness of Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss account

b)

all the contents of the financial statements

c)

evidences, documents and explanation given by his clients

d)

all of the above

60.

Negative report is made when auditor is __________.

a)

satisfied with the fairness of Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss account

b)

not agree with affirmation made by the management in the books

c)

unable to form overall opinion on Financial Statement

d)

all of the above

61.

It is the report that auditors give their opinion on financial statements when the financial statements contain material misstatement which can be isolated to one part of financial statements.

a)

qualified audit report

b)

unqualified audit report

c)

disclaimer of opinion audit report

d)

adverse audit report

62.

A printed piece of paper or an electronic code that can be used instead of money to pay for something, or that allows you to pay less than the usual price of something.

a)

ledger

b)

journal

c)

book

d)

voucher

63.

It encompass the investigation of identified fluctuations and relationships that are inconsistent with other relevant information or deviate significantly from predicted amounts.

a)

review documentation

b)

analytical procedures

c)

observation

d)

inquiry

64.

Period of 12 consecutive months chosen by an entity as its accounting period which may or may not be a calendar year.

a)

short-term

b)

long-term

c)

fiscal year

d)

annually

65.

Method of determining whether or not income has met the conditions of being earned and realized or is realizable.

a)

fair value

b)

historical cost

c)

revenue recognition

d)

matching principle

66.

The signature part should include the manual signature of the auditor. The (PERSON) __________ name and signature of the auditor should be given.

a)

personality

b)

impersonal

c)

personal

d)

personally

67.

In qualified report the auditor believes that overall financial statements are not (FAIR) __________ stated.

a)

fairness

b)

unfair

c)

fairly

d)

unfairly

68.

The principal errors arise generally when the principles of (ACCOUNT) _________ are not observed while recording a transaction.

a)

accounts

b)

accountancy

c)

accountants

d)

accountant

69.

The fear of detection is often viewed by (MANAGE) _________ as a deterrent to committing fraud.

a)

managed

b)

management

c)

managerial

d)

managing

70.

(PERFORM) ___________ involves the auditor's independent execution of procedures or controls that were originally performed as part of the entity's internal control.

a)

Reperformance

b)

Performance

c)

Performing

d)

Reperforming

71.

The fixed asset balance, which deals with assets that can't easily be converted into cash, is a common material account balance on an entity's (FINANCE) __________ statements.

a)

financier

b)

financing

c)

financial

d)

financially

72.

Some practitioners questioned the auditor's responsibility to detect certain significant defalcations, such as at a retailing company where thefts are (REFLECT) __________ in cost of goods sold after inventories are adjusted to actual quantities on hand.

a)

reflection

b)

reflectance

c)

reflective

d)

reflected

73.

Fraud data mining is the process of obtaining and (ANALYZE) _________ transactional data to identify anomalies or patterns indicative of a specific fraud scheme.

a)

analyzable

b)

analyzing

c)

analyzed

d)

analysis

74.

A/An (QUALIFY) _________ opinion indicates that the financial records have been maintained in accordance with the standards known as Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP).

a)

qualifiable

b)

qualification

c)

qualified

d)

unqualified

75.

A financial audit report is the final step of an external financial audit. After planning the audit and (GATHER) __________ necessary information, an auditor then must interpret results.

a)

gathering

b)

gathered

c)

ungathered

d)

gatherer

76.

Auditing begins where__________ ends.

a)

selling

b)

inventory valuation

c)

accounting

d)

purchases

77.

The main objects of investigation is _________.

a)

to discover errors and frauds.

b)

to prevent errors and frauds.

c)

to verify statements.

d)

all the above

78.

Financial audits focus specifically on an organization's financial status. Auditors work to verify records, including expenses, ________, investments and assets. They usually compile this information into a final determination for investors or shareholders.

a)

revenue

b)

cost

c)

expense

d)

price

79.

Accounting systems are required to be revised in order to ensure that it may provide the information desired by the executives as an aid to ________ decisions.

a)

management

b)

administration

c)

taxation

d)

journalization

80.

For almost all companies, assets are an important part of their financial statements. Auditors must, therefore, _____audit procedures on those assets to ensure their existence.

a)

do

b)

make

c)

perform

d)

examine

81.

Audit sampling is the method of audit procedure where auditors test less than 100% of items within the __________ of account balance or class of transaction.

a)

amount

b)

number

c)

population

d)

quantity

82.

Once the pressure or rationalization factor exceeds the fear of detection, the individuals look for the internal control weakness or the _________ to commit fraud.

a)

opportunity

b)

pressure

c)

strong

d)

request

83.

Sometimes the _________ sends the invoice in duplicate and both the copies of the bill are recorded separately. This is also an error of duplication.

a)

supply

b)

supplier

c)

demand

d)

auditor

84.

Disclaimer of opinion is made when auditor is __________.

a)

satisfied with the fairness of Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss account

b)

not agree with affirmation made by the management in the books

c)

unable to form overall opinion on Financial Statement

d)

all of the above

85.

Which of the followings are categories of audit reports?

a)

standard unqualified, qualified and negative

b)

qualified, adverse and disclaimer

c)

standard unqualified, adverse and disclaimer

d)

clean, qualified, negative and disclaimer

86.

It is written or printed paper that bears information that can be used to furnish decisive evidence. It could also be a recording, computer readable information, or a photograph.

a)

auditing document

b)

account

c)

copies

d)

letter

87.

These errors arise generally when the principles of accountancy are not observed while recording a transaction.

a)

compensating errors

b)

duplicating errors

c)

principle errors

d)

commission errors

88.

The audit procedures performed to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control, to assess the risks of material misstatement at the financial statement and assertion levels.

a)

review procedures

b)

risk assessment procedures

c)

inspection procedures

d)

analytical procedures

89.

It is defined as tangible property held for sale, or materials used in a production process to make a product.

a)

building

b)

inventory

c)

real estate

d)

machine

90.

Conveyance of land, buildings, equipment, or other assets from one person (Lessor) to another (Lessee) for a specific period of time for monetary or other consideration, usually in the form of rent.

a)

lend

b)

borrow

c)

lease

d)

deposit

91.

The auditor has to satisfy himself with the (AUTHENTIC) ________ of the financial statements and report that they exhibit a true and fair view of the state of affairs of the concern.

a)

authenticate

b)

authentically

c)

unauthentic

d)

authenticity

92.

Audits are conducted or performed to determine if the non-financial disclosures and (FINANCE) ________ statements present a true and fair view of the business's financial status.

a)

financing

b)

financial

c)

non-financial

d)

financially

93.

External audits are conducted by (BIAS) ________ third parties, such as government agencies and financial companies.

a)

biased

b)

unbiased

c)

unbiasedly

d)

biasing

94.

The audit doesn't just end with the audit report; the auditor will also follow up with the (ORGANIZE) _________ to check on its progress and ensure continual improvement.

a)

organization

b)

organizations

c)

organizational

d)

organized

95.

It is important for auditors to be aware of what types of audit procedures are suitable for testing different audit assertions. This may also depend on different levels of (ASSESS) _______risks and quality of audit evidence that auditors seek to obtain.

a)

assessment

b)

assessing

c)

assessed

d)

unassessable

96.

Substantive procedures in auditing are important because they (PRIORITY)_______ thorough documentation of finances. As an auditor, it's essential for you to have evidence of every monetary transaction to draw conclusions about a financial status.

a)

prior

b)

priorly

c)

priorities

d)

prioritize

97.

Fraud occurs because individuals use their positions to (INTEND) _________ override controls.

a)

intentional

b)

intentionally

c)

unintentionally

d)

intention

98.

The organized crime groups may be organized professionally or may be groups of individuals who (SPECIAL) _________ in a particular type of crime.

a)

specialization

b)

specializes

c)

specialty

d)

specialize

99.

The most favorable opinion is an unqualified opinion, meaning the company director provided all the necessary financial documents and everything was in order and met all auditing (REQUIRE) __________.

a)

requirements

b)

requires

c)

required

d)

requiring

100.

s and everything was in order and met all auditing (REQUIRE) __________.

a)

requirements

b)

requires

c)

required

d)

requiring

101.

On some occasions, an auditor is unable to complete an accurate audit report. This may occur for a (VARIOUS) __________ of reasons, such as an absence of appropriate financial records.

a)

variously

b)

variousness

c)

variety

d)

varieties

102.

An auditor shall report on the accounts examined by him _______________.

a)

to the shareholders

b)

to the court

c)

to the bank

d)

to the general public

103.

The auditor has to __________ himself with the authenticity of the financial statements and report that they exhibit a true and fair view of the state of affairs of the concern.

a)

satisfy

b)

help

c)

admit

d)

persuade

104.

__________ is the distribution of earnings to owners of a corporation in cash, other assets of the corporation, or the corporation's capital stock.

a)

Interest

b)

Profit

c)

Dividend

d)

Share

105.

Businesses that have shareholders or board members may use internal audits as a way to update them on their business's finances. And, internal audits are a good way to check in on _________ goals.

a)

administrative

b)

managerial

c)

financial

d)

payable

106.

By ________ so-called substantive tests and tests of controls, the auditor can provide some assurance that the revenues of the company are recorded accurately.

a)

taking

b)

doing

c)

performing

d)

conducting

107.

________ sources usually provide a better quality of evidence. They are more reliable comparing to the internal source of evidence that is provided by the client.

a)

external

b)

internal

c)

third party

d)

client

108.

The _________ errors may be further divided as errors of omission, errors of commission, duplicating errors and compensating errors.

a)

technical

b)

principle

c)

unintentional

d)

clerical

109.

A person's position in terms of their responsibilities and authority also contribute to the opportunity to _________ fraud.

a)

get

b)

supply

c)

commit

d)

make

110.

An unqualified report is also called a/an __________ report.

a)

adverse

b)

clean

c)

qualified

d)

disclaimer

111.

It is the responsibility of the auditor to make an audit report in the __________ format every year after reviewing the financial statements of the organization.

a)

standardized

b)

standard

c)

formal

d)

official

112.

Sales of products, merchandise, and services; and earnings from interest, dividend, rents.

a)

income

b)

revenues

c)

expenditure

d)

cost

113.

Excess of expenditures over revenue for a period or activity. Also, for tax purposes, an excess of basis over the amount realized in a transaction.

a)

gain

b)

benefit

c)

loss

d)

income

114.

The use of an audit procedure on a selection of the items within an account balance or class of transactions is called________.

a)

audit sampling

b)

observation

c)

recalculation

d)

confirmation

115.

When a transaction is omitted fully or in part from the books of accounts, such errors are known as errors of _________.

a)

compensation

b)

duplication

c)

omission

d)

commission

116.

It is a special type of audit report in which the auditor states that he expresses no opinion on the financial statements.

a)

A qualified opinion

b)

an unqualified opinion

c)

A disclaimer of opinion

d)

an adverse opinion

117.

The audit establishes a moral check on the staff of the business so that they became aware of not committing any (REGULAR) __________.

a)

irregular

b)

regularly

c)

regularity

d)

irregularity

118.

The auditor is influenced by the management of the company, and hence is not able to conduct a (COMPLETE) __________ independent examination of the books of accounts and gives his report on the same.

a)

completion

b)

completely

c)

completed

d)

completeness

119.

Interim audit is an audit, which is conducted in between the two annual audits with a view to find out interim profit of the business to (ABLE) __________ it to declare an interim dividend.

a)

ability

b)

disability

c)

enable

d)

disable

120.

The proprietor himself takes (DECIDE) __________ about the scope of audit and the appointment of auditor.

a)

decision

b)

deciding

c)

decided

d)

decidable

121.

These examples include control activities that are relevant to the risk of fraud or control activities over journal entries, such as (USUAL) _______transactions, allocation of funds, or adjustments.

a)

usually

b)

unusually

c)

unusual

d)

usualness

122.

An audit procedure designed to evaluate the operating (EFFECTIVE)_______ of controls in preventing, or detecting and correcting material misstatements at the assertion level.

a)

effect

b)

effectively

c)

effected

d)

effectiveness

123.

A person's position in terms of their _________ (RESPONSIBLE) and authority also contribute to the opportunity to commit fraud.

a)

responsibly

b)

responsibilities

c)

irresponsible

d)

irresponsibility

124.

Risk assessments are _________ (PERFORM) to satisfy regulatory and audit requirements, to gauge internal controls, and to locate fraud in core business systems.

a)

performed

b)

performing

c)

performance

d)

performative

125.

Often called a clean opinion, an unqualified opinion is an audit report that is issued when an auditor determines that each of the financial records provided by the small business is free of any (REPRESENT) __________.

a)

representation

b)

representatives

c)

misrepresentations

d)

unrepresentative

126.

The writing of a qualified opinion is (EXTREME) __________ similar to that of an unqualified opinion.

a)

extremely

b)

extremity

c)

extremism

d)

extremist