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Microbiology

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is prerequisite for effective disinfection

a)

Cleaning

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sterilization

d)

Antisepsis

2.

Reduce the number of micro-organisms to a level at which they are not harmful

a)

Cleaning

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sterilization

d)

Antisepsis

3.

Disinfection of living tissue- an application of an agent which inhibits the growth of microorganisms

a)

disinfection

b)

Antisepsis

c)

Bacteriostatic agent

d)

Bactericide agent

e)

Sporicide agent

4.

Inhibits the growth of bacteria but doesn’t necessarily kill them

a)

Antisepsis

b)

Bacteriostatic agent

c)

Bactericide agent

d)

sporicide agent

5.

Kills bacteria-most don’t kill endospores

a)

Antisepsis

b)

Bacteriostatic agent

c)

Bactericide agent

d)

Sporicide agent

6.

Kills spores

a)

antisepsis

b)

Bacteriostatic agent

c)

Bactericide agent

d)

Sporicide agent

7.

What the doctor should do before put a respiratory equipment on a patient ?

a)

Cleaning & drying

b)

Cleaning followed by disinfection

c)

Cleaning followed by sterilization

8.

Time required to kill 90% of micro-organisms

a)

D value

b)

Z value

9.

Temperature change at D value required to reduce the micro-organisms population

a)

D value

b)

Z value

10.

Temperature below 100c

a)

Boiling

b)

Autoclave

c)

Pasteurisation

11.

Temperature above 100c

a)

Boiling

b)

Inspissator

c)

Autoclave

d)

Hot water bath

12.

Used to sterilize media

a)

inspissator

b)

Hot water bath

c)

Boiling

d)

Steaming

13.

Kills microorganisms by coagulating their proteins

a)

Dry heat

b)

Moist heat

14.

Kills by oxidation effects and denaturing proteins

a)

Dry heat

b)

Moist heat

15.

To inactivate non sporing bacteria for preparation of vaccines also for sterilization of serum

a)

Inspissator

b)

Hot water bath

c)

Boiling

d)

Steaming

16.

Kills vegetative forms of bacterial pathogens - kills hiv and mycobacteria - doesn’t kill spores

these are characteristics of ?

a)

Inspissator

b)

Hot water bath

c)

Boiling

d)

Steaming

17.

For media containing sugar and gelatin

a)

Boiling

b)

Hot water bath

c)

Steaming

d)

Tyndallisation/ intermittent sterilization

18.

Sterilisation is carried out under pressure at 121c for 15 min

a)

Inspissator

b)

steaming

c)

Intermittent sterilization

d)

Autoclave

19.

Advantage of autoclave

a)

Penetrating power

b)

Non toxic

c)

Fast method

d)

All above

20.

the lab physician applied Bowie dick tape to the article being autoclaved, pale brown stripes appear across the tape which indicates

a)

Process has been satisfactory

b)

Poor heat penetration

21.

Technique which using geobacillus SPORES in it

a)

Mechanical technique

b)

Physical technique

c)

Chemical technique

d)

Biological technique

22.

considered as hot air sterilisation

a)

Non-ionising

b)

Ionising

23.

Ultraviolet rayes and infrared rayes are ..... , x-rays and gamma rayes are .....

a)

Ionizing, Non-ionizing

b)

Non-ionizing, ionizing

c)

Both are ionizing

d)

Both are Non-ionizing

24.

It’s bactericidal, sporicidal and it kills spores

a)

Aldehyde

b)

Phenol

c)

Halogens

d)

Alcohol

25.

destroying anthrax spores in hair and wool

a)

cidex

b)

Glutaraldehyde

c)

Formaldehyde

26.

For postoperative skin disinfection

a)

tincture of iodine

b)

Iodophores

c)

Chlorine

d)

Mercurials

27.

used as disinfectant in swimming pool

a)

Iodine

b)

Chlorine

c)

Mercurial

d)

Copper salts

28.

Marked bacteriostatic

a)

Halogens

b)

Dyes

c)

Heavy metal ions

d)

phenol

29.

Used as droplets in the eyes of newborn to protect against neisseria gonorrhoea

a)

Silver nitrate

b)

Mercurials

c)

Copper salts

d)

Acridine dyes

30.

is Active against viruses ........,

used as fungicide .........

a)

Mercurials, copper salts

b)

Silver nitrate, silver sulphadiazine

c)

Acridine dyes, aniline dyes

d)

Ethidium bromide, iodine

31.

Used to prevent infection of burn tissues

a)

Silver sulphadiazine

b)

copper salts

c)

Mercuric chloride

d)

Analine dyes

e)

Ethidium bromide

32.

bactericidal because the interaction with nucleic acids and used as antiseptic to treat mild burns

a)

Acridine dyes

b)

Aniline dyes

c)

Ethidium bromide

33.

Active against gram positive bacteria and has no activity against tubercle bacilli

a)

Acridine dyes

b)

Aniline dyes

c)

Ethidium bromide

34.

Bacteriostatic, intercalated between base pairs of DNA, form a fluorescent complex with DNA

ALL these characteristics belongs to

a)

Acriflavine

b)

Aniline dyes

c)

Ethidium bromide

d)

Mercuric chloride

35.

Not active against Gram-negative bacilli

a)

Hydrogen peroxide

b)

Surfactant

c)

Ethylene oxide (EO) gas

d)

Formaldehyde gas

36.

Decomposes in light and broken down by catalase

a)

Hydrogen peroxide

b)

Formaldehyde gas

c)

Ethylene oxide

d)

Ozone gas

37.

Used for furmigation of operation theatre

a)

Hydrogen peroxide

b)

Formaldehyde gas

c)

Ethylene oxide

d)

Ozone gas

38.

Used for heat sensitive instruments, the materials must be well aerated after sterilization , it’s mutagenic and carcinogenic

a)

Ethylene oxide

b)

Ozone gas

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

surfactant

39.

Aearation is necessary in ..........

a)

Ethylene oxide

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Ozone gas

d)

All above

40.

Aeration is NOT necessary in

a)

Hydrogen peroxide-ozone gas

b)

Ozone gas only

c)

Formaldehyde-hydrogen peroxide

d)

All

41.

Destroy natural gum rubber (latex)

a)

Ozone gas

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Ethylene oxide

42.

Disposable-carcinogenic

a)

Candle filter

b)

Asbestos filter

c)

Sintered glass filter

d)

Membrane filter

43.

If we want to prepare a solution for parenteral use , we should use

a)

Candle filter

b)

Asbestos filter

c)

Sintered glass filter

d)

Membrane filter

44.

medium incubation

a)

10-12 days

b)

7-10 days

c)

13-17 days

d)

15-20 days

45.

Transmitted by Airborne

a)

Influenza v

b)

Chicken pox

c)

Rubella

d)

Cytomegalovirus

46.

Virus has very long incubation period with no symptoms.........,

virus remains completely latent with periodic reactivation...........,

Virus can be continuously detected: mild or no clinical symptoms ..........,

a)

Chronic infection, latency, slow V infection

b)

slow V infection, chronic infection, latency

c)

Latency, slow v infection , chronic

d)

Slow v infection , latency, chronic

47.

Mechanism of Cell damage and death can be arranged as

a)

Shut off-competition-integration-mutation-inflammation -host immune response

b)

Shut off-integration-mutation-inflammation-competition -host immune response

c)

Shut off-competition-mutation- integration-inflammation -host immune response

d)

None

48.

Playing the major role in clearing virus infection ..........,

protect against reinfection...........

a)

Humoral immunity, cellular immunity

b)

Cellular immunity, humoral immunity

c)

None

49.

Peak 7-10 days post infection and resolve ongoing virus infections

a)

IFN-NK-ADCC

b)

CTL

c)

Antiviral ab

50.

One of them causing a reduced response to an antigen, may be

due to genetic factors, pre-natal infection, molecular mimicry

a)

Immune tolerance

b)

Down-regulation of MHC class I

c)

Infection of immuno-sequestered sites

d)

Antigenic variation

51.

Aggregates of stainable substances and usually consist of viral capsid proteins

a)

interfero

b)

Inclusion bodies

c)

both

52.

after we did a gram stain for a patient it appears that he have a gram-positive red & spore forming bacteria, which of the following it could be

a)

Listeria

b)

Bacillus

c)

Corynebacterium

d)

Lactobacillus

53.

A small Gram-positive bacteria that doesn’t have spores and it looks like Chinese letters

a)

Cornyebacteria

b)

Clostridum

c)

Bacillus

d)

Listeria

54.

The Elek’s test shows positive to toxigenicity to which bacteria?

a)

Clostridium

b)

Bacillus

c)

Cornyebacteria

d)

Lactobacillus

55.

A patient had fever and muscle pain and the gram staining shows bacteria with motility and tumbling movement

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Lactobacillus

c)

Clostridium

d)

Propionibacterium

56.

we did a gram staining and it shows that the bacteria is anaerobic which of the following it could be

a)

B.anthracis

b)

B.cereus

c)

Lactobacillus

d)

Cl.tetani

57.

Which of the following clostridium caused gangrene

a)

Cl.tetani

b)

Cl.botulinum

c)

Cl.perfringens

d)

Cl.difficile

58.

Cause diphtheroids

a)

Cornyebacteria

b)

Bacillus

c)

Cl.tetani

d)

Listeria

59.

Normal flora of female genital tract

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Lactobacillus

c)

Listeria

60.

A female, 18 years old ate a poorly cooked meats then she had a fever and diarrhea which of the following could be the responsible bacteria?

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Cl.tetani

c)

Cl.difficle

d)

propionibaterium

61.

Which of the following is True about Listeria monocytogenes

a)

It’s a gram-Positive cocci

b)

Gram-negative bacilli

c)

Cause acne

d)

Can tolerate in cold temperature

62.

Capsulated in vivo and forms spores in vitro also stained with acid fast spore stain

a)

Bacillus

b)

Clostridium

c)

Listeria

d)

Cornyebacteria

63.

Tetaospasmin produced by

a)

Cl.tetani

b)

Cl.difficile

c)

Cl.botulinum

d)

Cl.perfringens

64.

If there’s an infection of the umbilical mostly caused by

a)

B.anthracis

b)

Cl.tetani

c)

B.cereus

d)

Infant botulism

65.

Sub-terminal endospores - performed toxin in the food and the toxin acts on voluntary and autonomic nervous system

a)

Cl.tetani

b)

Cl.difficile

c)

Cl.perfringens

d)

Cl.botulinum

66.

Feeding of honey to the baby it’s a possible cause of

a)

Infant botulism

b)

Neonatal tetanus

c)

B.cereus

d)

B.anthracis

67.

We use Lecithinase test and stormy clot formation to diagnose it

a)

Cl.perfringens

b)

Cl.botulinum

c)

Cl.titani

d)

Cl.difficile

68.

Associated with broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy, causing pseudomembranous colitis, its spores are major source of nasocomial outbreaks

a)

Cl.titani

b)

Cl.perfringens

c)

Cl.difficile

d)

Cl.botulinum

69.

A sample with gram + cocci and catalase (-) and beta hemolytic on blood agar also it’s bacitracin sensitive

a)

S.pneumoniae

b)

S.aureus

c)

S.epidermidis

d)

S.pyogens

70.

Sample with gram + cocci bacteria and alpha hemolytic also sensitive to optochin test

a)

S.pneumonie

b)

S.aureus

c)

S.pyogenes

d)

Listeria

71.

A gram + cocci, catalase + , with Negative coagulase test

a)

S.epidermidis

b)

S.aureus

c)

S.pyogens

d)

S.pneumonie

72.

Protein A found in ?

a)

S.aureus

b)

S.pyogens

c)

S.pneumonie

73.

Protein M found in?

a)

S.pyogens

b)

S.aureus

c)

S.epidermidis

d)

S.pneumonie

74.

One of the following is Catalase function

a)

Cleaves DNA&RNA

b)

Degradation of H2o2 to O2

c)

All above

75.

Cause urinary tract infection in sexually active young women

a)

S.saprophyticus

b)

S.aureus

c)

S.epidermidis

d)

S.pyogens

76.

It’s a disease characterized by sore throat and an erythematous rash

a)

Necrotizing fasciitis

b)

Scarlet fever

c)

Toxic shock syndrome

d)

Follicular tonsillitis

77.

Patient with sore throat and as complication he had arthritis and carditis, the reason could be

a)

Acute rheumatic fever (ARF)

b)

Acute glomerulonephritis

c)

Scarlet fever

d)

Cellulitis

78.

Gram+ cocci, encapsulated, diplococci .. All these characteristics belongs to

a)

S.pyogens

b)

S.viridans

c)

S.agalactiae

d)

S.pneumonie

79.

non-hemolytic, normal inhibitant of intestine , nosocomial infection, classified as group D streptococci

a)

Enterococci

b)

S.pneumonia

c)

S.viridans

d)

S.epidermidis

80.

Which of the following wants to be sterile from micro organisms

a)

Skin

b)

Large intestine

c)

Mouth

d)

Blood

81.

Which of the following considers pathogens in normal flora of respiratory tract

a)

Streptococcus aureus

b)

S.neisseria

c)

S.epidermidis

d)

Heamophilus influenza

82.

Which of the following consider the most common cause of HAI

a)

Parasites

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Virus

83.

Which of the following is the major cause of HAI

a)

CRE

b)

MRSA

c)

VRE

84.

Which of the following not usually used to prevent transmission of micro organisms spread by direct contact

a)

Gloves

b)

Hand washing

c)

Mask

d)

Gown

85.

When Placing a urinary catheter we should do

a)

Sterile technique

b)

Antiseptic technique

c)

Clean technique

86.

The doctor wants to take a blood sample from the patient, he should take it

a)

In early morning

b)

During fever

c)

Both

87.

The (best) site of CSF puncture

a)

L4-L5

b)

L2-L3

c)

L3-L4

d)

L5-S1

88.

Clean catch Is the preferred method in

a)

Urine sample

b)

Cervical swab

c)

Stool sample

d)

Sputum

89.

Used mainly for collection of urine from infants

a)

Catheterization

b)

Mid steam clean catch

c)

Suprapubic aspiration

90.

Which bacteria produces vitamins B12 and K

a)

E.coli

b)

Neisseria

c)

Brucellosis

91.

40% of Neonatal meningitis caused by

a)

E.coli

b)

B.anthracis

c)

Neisseria meningitidis

92.

Which of the following cause pediatric diarrhea

a)

Enteropathogenic E.coli

b)

Enteroinvasive E.coli

c)

Enteroaggregative E.coli

d)

Enterohaemorragic E.coli

93.

Causes dysentery which is similar to shigellosis

a)

Enteropathogenic E.coli

b)

Enteroinvasive E.coli

c)

Enteroaggregative

d)

Enterohaemorragic

94.

Cause infantile diarrhea

a)

Enterohaemorragic

b)

Enteroinvasive

c)

Enteroaggregative

d)

Enteropathogenic

95.

O157:H7 is the most common strain of

a)

EHEC

b)

EAggEC

c)

EIEC

d)

EPEC

96.

Produce verotoxin

a)

EHEC

b)

EAggEC

c)

EPEC

d)

EIEC

97.

Non-lactose fermenting colonies that cause typhoid and septicaemia

a)

Salmonella

b)

E.coli

c)

Klebsiella spp

d)

B.anthracis

98.

Oxidase negative, catalase positive

reduce nitrate to nitrite

a)

Enterobacteriaceae

b)

E.coli

c)

Salmonella

d)

Vibrio

99.

A female 19 years old, went to the hospital because she had watery diarrhea with no blood, the doctor suspected that the cause was

a)

ETEC

b)

EPEC

c)

EIEC

d)

EHCH

100.

Wich of the following tests used to detect typhoid fever

a)

Widal test

b)

PCR

c)

Elek’s test

101.

Which of the following Cause The 4F’s disease

a)

Salmonella

b)

Shigella

c)

E.coli

d)

klebsiella

102.

The doctor looks at the agarand found swarming ureas positive non-lactose fermenter and very pleomorphic which could be

a)

Proteus

b)

Pseudomonas

c)

Shigella

d)

Klebsiella

103.

Characteristic odour, aerobic bacteria, positive oxidase, produce exopigment (pyocyanin) and it’s a common cause of nosocomial infections

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginoss

b)

B.anthracis

c)

Shigella

d)

Proteus

104.

Comma shaped, single flagellum, does a surface pellicle on alkaline peptone and cause a rise water stool

a)

Vibrio Cholera

b)

Klebsiella

c)

Shigella

d)

Proteus

105.

Helical shape,lophtrichous, associated with gastritis and cancers also produce VacA and CagA

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

Yersinia

c)

Heamophilus influenza

d)

Bordetella pertussis

106.

Pathogen of animals, cause bubonic plague and pneumonic plague

a)

heamophilus influenza

b)

Yersinia

c)

Shigella

d)

Helicobacteria

107.

How to do prophylaxis to cornyebacteria and titanus and bordetella?

a)

Tab vaccine

b)

Hib vaccine

c)

DPT vaccine

d)

Ty21a vaccine

108.

They function as facultative intracellular parasites

a)

Yersinia

b)

Neisseria

c)

Brucellosis

d)

Heamophilus influenza

109.

Thayer Martin agar for the growth of which of the following

a)

brucellosis

b)

Neisseria

c)

Bordetella pertussis

d)

Yersinia

110.

A lab physician took a look on a bacteria under microscope, he saw that it contains LOS and Opa which of the following could be this bacteria

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoea

b)

Neisseria meningitidis

c)

Brucellosis

d)

Bordetella pertussis

111.

Ratio between toxic does antibiotic does, or ratio of LD50 to ED50

a)

Selective toxicity

b)

therapeutic index

c)

Broad spectrum

112.

Affect a variety of bacteria both gram-positive and gram-negative

a)

Selective toxicity

b)

Therapeutic index

c)

Broad spectrum

113.

Which of the following block the synthesis of peptidoglycan

a)

Penicillin

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Cephalosporins

d)

All above

114.

Which of the following is an antibiotic that works on B-lactam

a)

Teicoplanin

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Pinicillin

d)

Bacitracin

115.

it’s the last step of peptidoglycan synthesis and used against penicillin-resistance stains

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

Penicillin

c)

vancomycin

d)

Teicoplanin

116.

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis by inhibiting the early step of peptidoglycan synthesis

a)

Bacitracin

b)

Vancomycin

c)

B-lactamase

d)

Cephalosporins

117.

Bind to 30S ribosomal subunit

a)

Aminoglycoside

b)

All

c)

Chloramphenicol

d)

Macrolides

118.

Gentamycin, streptomycin are

a)

Bactericidal,tetracycline

b)

Bacteriostatic,tetracycline

c)

Bacteriostatic,aminoglycosides

d)

Bactericidal,Aminoglycosides

119.

1-Rifampicin, 2-Quinolones and novobiocin, 3- Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

a)

1-Inhibit RNA synthesis, 2-Inhibit DNA synthesis, 3- inhibit folic acid synthesis

b)

1-Inhibit DNA synthesis, 2-inhibit folic acid synthesis, 3-inhibit RNA synthesis

c)

1- inhibit folic acid synthesis, 2-Inhibit DNA synthesis, 3-Inhibit RNA synthesis,

120.

If we add penicillin with tetracycline the result will be

a)

Indifference

b)

Addition

c)

Synergism

d)

Antagonism

121.

حطي الصح السؤال تجريبي بس

a)

.

b)

c)

.

d)

.