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WorksheetsChapter 10 Quiz
Total questions: 25
Worksheet time: 13mins
1. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to include in the initial training session with a new client?
a. Conduct a fitness assessment that includes cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular fitness, flexibility, and body composition before starting the exercise program
b. Include only the assessments with a focus on mobility and stability appropriate for the
client’s current physical-activity level and health history
c. Educate the client on the importance of fitness assessments and require muscular strength and endurance assessments before the first workout
d. Insist that the client perform one-repetition maximum tests for squat and bench press so the personal trainer can design an appropriate exercise program
2. During a static postural assessment, a client displays an excessive kyphotic posture. Which of the following muscles are MOST likely shortened?
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Upper-back extensors
c. Scapular stabilizers
d. Neck flexors
3. Which of the following is a correctible factor for a client whose assessment identifies muscular imbalances and postural deviations?
a. Structural deviation
b. Congenital condition
c. Joint trauma from injury
d. Lack of joint stability
4. During a static postural assessment, which of the following observations is MOST likely to be seen from the sagittal view?
a. A line of gravity that bisects the right and left sides of the body equally
b. A line of gravity that passes through the anterior third of the knee
c. A line of gravity that is perpendicular to the floor and the palms of the hands are not visible
d. A line of gravity that bisects the sacrum and overlaps the spinous process of the vertebrae
5. Which of the following clients would MOST likely display anterior tilting of the pelvis?
a. An accountant working in an office environment seated for extended periods during a 12-hour shift
b. A nurse working in a hospital environment standing and walking for the majority of a
12-hour shift
c. A flight attendant working 3 flights per day alternating between standing, sitting, and walking
d. A cosmetologist with a heavy client load spending the majority of the day standing in one spot
6. Which of the following will MOST likely be a result of an anterior pelvic tilt?
a. Lordosis
b. Kyphosis
c. Scoliosis
d. Osteoporosis
7. Which of the following assessments would MOST likely be contraindicated for a client with low-back pain?
a. Y balance test
b. Unipedal stance test
c. McGill’s torso test battery
d. Static postural assessment
8. During McGill’s torso muscular endurance test battery, a client’s flexion score is 120 seconds with a flexion/extension ratio score of 0.80. What is the client’s extension score?
a. 150 seconds
b. 120 seconds
c. 180 seconds
d. 95 seconds
9. Which of the following identifies the PRIMARY purpose of the Thomas test?
a. To evaluate the length of the muscles involved in hip flexion
b. To evaluate the length of the muscles involved in hip extension
c. To evaluate the length of the muscles involved with trunk flexion
d. To evaluate the length of the muscles involved with trunk extension
10. Standing up from a chair is an example of which primary movement?
a. Single-leg
b. Bend-and-lift
c. Pushing
d. Pulling
11. During a squat pattern assessment, the ACE Certified Personal Trainer observes the client is driving the knees forward during the descent of the squat. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this compensation?
a. Quadriceps dominance
b. Glute dominance
c. Hamstring dominance
d. Lumbar dominance
12. A client is experiencing a “collapsing” of the low back during a shoulder push stabilization screen. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the compensation?
a. Shortening of the lumbar spine
b. Overactivation of the gluteals
c. Lack of abdominal strength
d. Tightness in the latissimus dorsi
13. From the side view of a standing row assessment, the ACE Certified Personal Trainer notices the client’s head migrates forward. Which of the following muscles are MOST likely under-active?
a. Rhomboid major and minor
b. Levator scapulae
c. Mid and lower trapezius
d. Cervical spine extensors
14. During an assessment, a client expresses concern about being “judged” by the ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response for the trainer?
a. “Thank you for sharing your concerns with me. Are you able to elaborate on what
exactly makes you nervous?”
b. “I understand your concern, and I know why you would feel that way, but it is important
that we conduct these assessments. Are you okay with me proceeding?”
c. “Those feelings are natural. If you want to improve, you must know where you are
starting.”
d. “Perhaps you will feel more comfortable if I ask another trainer to conduct this assessment. Would you like me to ask someone else?”
15. Before conducting a muscular-endurance assessment for the upper body, which of the following should the ACE Certified Personal Trainer INITIALLY assess?
a. Conduct the passive straight-leg test
b. Check for low-back pain and other orthopedic issues
c. Ensure the client can perform push-ups on the toes
d. Ask the client if he or she has the social support to complete the exercise program
16. A 47-year-old male client completes 17 push-ups during an assessment. Which category BEST identifies this total?
a. Very good
b. Excellent
c. Good
d. Fair
17. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate spotting technique for a bench press?
a. Establish a narrow base of support and use a supine grip narrower than that of the client while gripping the bar
b. Establish a wide base of support and use a prone grip wider than that of the client while gripping the bar
c. Establish a narrow base of support and use an alternated grip wider than that of the client while gripping the bar
d. Establish a wide base of support and use an alternated grip narrower than that of the client while gripping the bar
18. During a one-repetition maximum (1-RM) squat assessment, which of the following is the MOST appropriate range of motion for an apparently healthy adult?
a. Knees bent 120 degrees
b. Knees bent slightly more than 90 degrees
c. Knees bent slightly less than 45 degrees
d. Knees stopping at 65 degrees
19. A client completes the warm-up for the one-repetition maximum (1-RM) squat assessment. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate increase in workload for the client?
a. 5 to 10%
b. 10 to 20%
c. 20 to 30%
d. 30 to 40%
20. An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a relatively new client for the past 6 weeks.
The client would like to get an estimate of his one-repetition maximum (1-RM) for the bench
press exercise but isn’t yet comfortable completing the assessment. The client has been
consistently completing 8 repetitions of 150 pounds (68 kg). Which of the following is the
MOST accurate estimate of the client’s 1-RM?
a. 188 pounds (85 kg)
b. 225 pounds (102 kg)
c. 172 pounds (78 kg)
d. 201 pounds (91 kg)
21. Which of the following is being assessed when sub-maximal assessments exceed 10 repetitions?
a. Power
b. Muscular strength
c. Agility
d. Muscular endurance
22. Which of the following assessments is used to measure anaerobic power?
a. T-test
b. 1-RM bench
c. Vertical jump
d. 1-RM squat
23. In the following equation: Power = Force x Velocity, how is velocity measured?
a. Distance/Time
b. Force x Distance
c. Mass x Acceleration
d. Work/Time
24. During a vertical jump test, which of the following is the approximate distance a client should stand away from the wall?
a. 10 inches (25 cm)
b. 6 inches (15 cm)
c. 8 inches (20 cm)
d. 4 inches (10 cm)
25. An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is preparing to conduct speed and agility assessments with a client. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate warm-up to conduct prior to the assessments?
a. 5- to 10-minute jog combined with short sprints
b. 10-minute bout on a recumbent bike at a medium resistance
c. 30 seconds of push-ups followed by 30 seconds of body-weight squats performed for
4 rounds
d. Static stretching followed by alternating 15 seconds of squat thrusters and 30 seconds
of high knees for 6 rounds
