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Worksheets

Endocrine and Immune Review Questions

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Are chemicals that travel in the blood and cause changes in different parts of the body
a)
Hormones
b)
Glands
c)
Parathyroid 
d)
Adrenal Gland 
2.

When you eat a burger , your body produces insulin to control blood sugar . What type of feedback is that

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

c)

None

d)

Both

3.

Adrenomegaly?

a)

Enlarged adrenals

b)

Small adrenals

c)

No adrenals

d)

Too many adrenals

4.
This gland is located between the lungs behind the sternum and secretes thymosin that helps mature WBC's in our bodies when we are children. 
a)
thyroid
b)
parathyroid
c)
thymus
d)
brain stem
5.

This structure releases what hormones?

a)

insulin and glucagon

b)

calcitonin and estrogen

c)

Parathyroid hormone and antidiuretic hormone

d)

epinephrine and testosterone

6.

Pineal gland

a)

Chemical substances produced and secreted by the endocrine glands.

b)

releases melatonin and regulates sleep

c)

Pineapple flavor, please

7.

It binds to membrane-bound receptors, that are proteins that extend across the cell membrane, with their hormone-binding sites exposed on the cell membrane’s outer surface

a)

RECEPTOR SITE

b)

WATER-SOLUBLE RECEPTORS

c)

LIPID-SOLUBLE RECEPTORS

d)

PROTEIN KINASES

8.

What hormones targets ovaries and promotes ovulation and progesterone production

a)

GOWTH HORMONE

b)

FOLLICLE-STIMULATING HORMONE

c)

LUTEINIZING HORMONE

d)

PROLACTIN

9.

What Disorder/Disease is caused by hyperthyroidism; results in increased metabolism, heat intolerance, rapid heartbeat, weight loss, and exophthalmos

a)

Goiters

b)

Cretinism

c)

Myxedema

d)

Graves’ Disease

10.

This hormone regulates the homeostasis of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate by increasing blood calcium and magnesium levels, and by decreasing blood phosphate level

a)

Vasopressin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Parathyroid Hormone

d)

Thyrotrophic Hormone

11.

With aging, the blood levels of PTH, TSH, LH, FSH decreases

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

12.

This element is linked to the health of our thyroid gland

a)

Salt

b)

Calcium

c)

Potassium

d)

Iodine

13.

What is the function of the hormone calcitonin

a)

Increase Ca levels i blood

b)

Makes bone stronger

c)

Activates bone loss

d)

Decreases Ca levels in blood

14.

Which is a source of calcium if a person has low Ca blood levels.

a)

Muscle

b)

Bones

c)

Brain

d)

Exocrine glands

15.

Hormones cause specific effects by ______.

a)

Flooding the entire body

b)

Targeting specific parts of the brain

c)

Targeting specific groups of cells in the body

d)

Spreading through the nervous system

16.

What does posterior pituitary gland stores and secretes?

a)

Human growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone

b)

Prolactin and follicle stimulating hormone

c)

Glucocorticoids and androgens

d)

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone

17.

The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete _______ which targets the _______

a)

Melatonin; Liver

b)

Glucagon; Liver

c)

Calcitonin; Thyroid

d)

Glucagon; Kidney

18.
Which hormone is not secreted by the anterior pituitary.
a)
Oxytocin
b)
FSH
c)
TSH
d)
ACTH
19.
The ovarian follicle is stimulated through development by:
a)
FSH
b)
LH
c)
Estrogen
d)
Progesterone
20.
Shedding of the endometrium is triggered by a drop in:
a)
FSH
b)
LH
c)
Estrogen
d)
Progesterone
21.
A person who is having an anaphylactic reaction is given an inject of epinephrine. The purpose of this is primarily to:
a)
Dilate pupils
b)
Open air passage ways
c)
Increase blood sugar
d)
Dilate blood vessels in muscles
22.

Too much ANTIDIURETIC hormone will cause you to

a)

lose wight and not eat

b)

retain water and dilute sodium

c)

grow very tall in stature

d)

excrete too much calcium

23.
What hormone prolongs and intensifies the sympathetic response during stress by increasing heart rate and raising blood glucose?
a)
Epinephrine
b)
Glucocorticoid
c)
T3 and T4
d)
ADH
24.
What hormone stimulates uterine contraction during childbirth and releases milk in nursing mothers?
a)
prolactin
b)
calcitonin
c)
T3 and T4
d)
oxytocin
25.
Which of the following physiologic functions is not regulated by anterior pituitary hormones?
a)
Growth
b)
Thyroid function
c)
Sleep
d)
Reproduction
26.

This targets osteoclasts (bone destroying cells) so that they release calcium from bones when calcium levels are low

a)

calcitonin

b)

parathyroid hormone

c)

osteoclast hormone

d)

ADH

27.

This hormone causes an increase in bone density, deepening of the voice, and increased production of body and facial hair

a)

estrogen

b)

insulin

c)

testosterone

d)

progesterone

28.
Alcohol suppresses _________, which leads to dehydration.
a)
ADH
b)
ACTH
c)
TSH
d)
FSH
29.
What endocrine disorder is the result of hyposecretion of growth hormone?
a)
Pituitary dwarfism
b)
Gigantism
c)
Cretinism
d)
Acromegaly
30.

When you get hugs from someone you love, you release ______.

a)

Thyroxine

b)

Luteinizing Hormone

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Insulin

31.

When it starts to get dark, your brain releases ____, which makes you tired.

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Melatonin

c)

Testosterone

d)

Estrogen

32.
What hormone increases the amount of water absorbed by the kidneys thereby decreasing urine amount?
a)
Calcitonin
b)
Mineralocorticoids
c)
ADH
d)
ACTH
33.

These hormones promote secondary sex characteristics in females

a)

testosterone and GH

b)

epinephrine and nor-epinephrine

c)

estrogen and progesterone

d)

prolactin and oxytocin

34.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

35.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

37.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

38.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.

The healthy human immune system responds to pathogens with both specific and nonspecific processes. Which of the following models represents a nonspecific response?

a)
b)
c)
d)
41.

A 3 month old baby contracts a virus called whooping cough (pertussis) after receiving the first of a sequence of 3 necessary DPT vaccines designed to prevent 3 diseases (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus). The vaccines are given at 2, 4, and 6 months of age to allow the body to develop specific immunity against these diseases. After the infant recovered from the disease, the doctor informed the parents that from now on the infant would only need the DT (diphtheria, tetanus) part of the vaccine. Why does the infant only need the DT vaccine?

a)

The infant had the first of a series of vaccines which caused the disease

b)

The infant had the pertussis disease and has already produced antibodies against the disease.

c)

The infant had the first of a series of vaccines which protected him from getting the disease.

d)

The infant had the pertussis disease and will get diphtheria in the future.

42.

Many times people visit the doctor requesting antibiotics to treat colds and viral infections. How is the doctor justified in offering the patient treatment options that do not include antibiotics for these cases?

a)

Colds and viruses should be first treated with viral therapies and then when the body begins to recover, antibiotics can be used. Otherwise, the use of antibiotics is not effective at all.

b)

Side effects from antibiotics are severe when used for colds and viruses. Any use of antibiotics for colds and viruses will only make the patient more ill and ultimately make the patient's recovery time longer.

c)

Antibiotics can weaken the immune system when used for colds and viruses, whereas other medications are not so hard on the immune system during these types of illnesses.

d)

If a doctor provides an antibiotic to treat colds and viruses, any bacteria in the patient's body will be killed, but a few will survive. Those few survivors may become resistant to antibiotics needed for real bacterial illnesses.

43.

After an initial infection, B-cells recognize the measles virus. How is this helpful in human immune response?

a)

The B-cells use this recognition to defend the body against other pathogens, such as bacteria.

b)

The B-cells more quickly recognize and respond to any other virus that invades the body.

c)

The B-cells produce antibodies more quickly if the measles virus is encountered again.

d)

The B-cells transfer this recognition to T-cells, which will then devour the viruses.

44.

What is the body's first line (non-specific) of defense against infection by foreign organisms?

a)

antibodies

b)

lymph nodes

c)

white blood cells

d)

the skin

45.

White blood cells are an important part of the human immune response. Two types of white blood cells, neutrophils and macrophages, act as phagocytes. Phagocytes perform which of the following functions in the human body?

a)

They produce antibodies.

b)

They bind to antigens and develop into plasma cells

c)

They form a barrier against pathogens.

d)

They engulf and destroy bacteria

46.

The response to an infection. Causes the area to redden, swell, and feel warm.

a)

Fever

b)

Mucus

c)

Dilation

d)

Inflammation

47.

Which is NOT considered FIRST line of defense?

a)

Helper T-Cells

b)

Skin

c)

Hair

d)

Mucous Membranes

48.

The innate immune system is...

a)

Always working and doesn't require any special preparation

b)

Needs to be "primed" before it can work to its full effectiveness

c)

Very specific and only defends against a specific pathogen

d)

Not very effective at preventing intruders

49.
White blood cells are an important part of the human immune response. Two types of white blood cells, neutrophils and macrophages, act as phagocytes. Phagocytes perform which of the following functions in the human body? 
a)
They produce antibodies.
b)
They bind to antigens and develop into plasma cells.
c)
They form a barrier against pathogens.
d)
They engulf and destroy bacteria.
50.
Anything that triggers an immune response is a/n
a)
lymph cell
b)
antigen
c)
antibody
d)
neutrop
51.

What attaches to antigens and tags the pathogen for destruction?

a)

Pathogen

b)

Antibodies

c)

B-cells

d)

Lymphocyte

52.

Identify which type of leukocyte is pictured

a)

basophil

b)

monocyte

c)

neutrophil

d)

lymphocyte

53.
a)
Basophil
b)
Neutrophil
c)
Lymphocyte
d)
Monocyte
54.
a)
lymphocyte
b)
monocyte
c)
eosinophil
d)
neutrophil
55.
a)
Basophil
b)
Neutrophil
c)
Lymphocyte
d)
Eosinophl
56.
a)
Basophil
b)
Monocyte
c)
Lymphocyte
d)
Neutrophil
57.
What is the role of antibodies?
a)
Kills pathogens
b)
Helps activate other immune cells
c)
Produces antibodies
d)
Binds to antigens and neutralizes pathogen
58.

If an individual is exposed to a pathogen that they have already been exposed to, the immune system responds by...

a)

Sending extra phagocytes to engulf and destroy the pathogen

b)

Making antibodies to fight the pathogen for the first time

c)

Memory cells make antibodies faster and in larger quantities

59.

What is the correct order for the following statements:

A- B cells produce antibodies to neutralise the pathogen, as well as memory cells for long-term immunity

B- Phagocytes engulf the invading pathogen and present the antigen in their cell membrane

C- Antibodies neutralise the pathogen

D- Lymphocytes (T- cells) are activated, which in turn activates B- cells

E- Pathogen enters the body and antigens on the pathogen alert the phagocytes

a)

E, D, A, C, B

b)

E, B, D, A, C

c)

B, E, D, A, C

d)

D, E, C, B, A

60.

When the body encounters a pathogen, antibodies are created that are specific to that pathogen. The next time the body encounters the pathogen, the response will be:

a)

Slower

b)

Faster

61.

The diagram shows a lymphocyte. What is the arrow pointing to on the surface of the lymphocyte?

a)

molecules called antigens

b)

molecules called antibodies