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Ap Biology Unit #6 (Gene Expression)

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 2hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does transformation involve in bacteria?

a)

the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule

b)

assimilation of external DNA into a cell

2.

Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism.

Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

a)

12%

b)

24%

c)

31%

d)

38%

3.

Why does the DNA double helix have a uniform diameter?

a)

Purines pair with pyrimidines.

b)

Deoxyribose sugars bind with ribose sugars.

4.

What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix?

a)

hydrogen

b)

ionic

c)

covalent

5.

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found?

a)

A = G and C = T

b)

A + C = G + T

6.

Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of these reasons?

a)

Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.

b)

Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not.

7.

What is meant by the description ʺantiparallelʺ regarding the strands that make up DNA?

a)

The 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of the other strand.

b)

One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.

8.

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5ʹ → 3ʹ direction?

a)

primase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

helicase

9.

What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA replication?

a)

the nucleotide sequence of the template strand

b)

the primase used in the reaction

10.

You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent

a)

leading strands and Okazaki fragments

b)

lagging strands and Okazaki fragments.

11.

Which of the following separates the DNA strands during replication?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

primase

12.

Which of the following covalently connects segments of DNA?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

ligase

13.

Which of the following synthesizes short segments of RNA?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

primase

14.

The leading and the lagging strands differ in that

a)

the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

b)

the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3ʹ end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5ʹ end.

15.

A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction because

a)

DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3ʹ end

b)

Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3ʹ to 5ʹ direction.

16.

Which would you expect of a eukaryotic cell lacking telomerase?

a)

a reduction in chromosome length

b)

production of Okazaki fragments

17.

When DNA is compacted by histones into 10 nm and 30 nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity?

a)

methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails

b)

nucleotide excision and reconstruction

18.

Based your answer on the figure: A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?

a)

an accumulation of A and no production of B and C

b)

an accumulation of A and B and no production of C

19.

The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume all of the following except

a)

a gene from an organism could theoretically be expressed by any other organism.

b)

all organisms have a common ancestor.

c)

DNA was the first genetic material.

d)

the same codons in different organisms usually translate into the same amino acids.

20.

In which of the following actions does RNA polymerase differ from DNA polymerase?

a)

RNA polymerase can initiate RNA synthesis, but DNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate DNA synthesis.

b)

RNA polymerase binds to single-stranded DNA, and DNA polymerase binds to double-stranded DNA.

21.

RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?

a)

3ʹ → 5ʹ along the template strand

b)

3ʹ → 5ʹ along the coding (sense) strand

22.

What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called?

a)

introns

b)

exons

23.

Introns are significant to biological evolution because

a)

their presence allows exons to be shuffled.

b)

they protect the mRNA from degeneration.

24.

A mutation in which of the following parts of a gene is likely to be most damaging to a cell?

a)

intron

b)

exon

25.

Alternative RNA splicing

a)

is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.

b)

can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA

26.

A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is

a)

TTT

b)

UUU

27.

When does translation begin in prokaryotic cells?

a)

as soon as transcription has begun

b)

once the pre-mRNA has been converted to mRNA

28.

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of proteinʹs activity?

a)

It might substitute an amino acid in the active site.

b)

It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon.

29.

A frameshift mutation could result from

a)

a base insertion only.

b)

either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

c)

a base deletion only.

30.

What does the operon model attempt to explain?

a)

the coordinated control of gene expression in bacteria

b)

the mechanism of viral attachment to a host cell

31.

The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is

a)

turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium

b)

turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.

32.

When this is taken up by the cell, it binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator:

a)

inducer

b)

repressor

33.

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon

a)

occurs continuously in the cell.

b)

starts when the pathwayʹs substrate is present.

34.

Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organismʹs survival in which of the following ways?

a)

allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions

b)

organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order

c)

allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryoteʹs genome

35.

Muscle cells and nerve cells in one species of animal owe their differences in structure to

a)

having different genes.

b)

having different genes expressed.

36.

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to

a)

be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis.

b)

have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription.

37.

This can inhibit transcription by blocking the binding of positively acting transcription factors to the DNA:

a)

enhancer

b)

promoter

c)

repressor

38.

Which of the following statements is true about stem cells?

a)

Stem cells can differentiate into specialized cells

b)

Stem cells are found only in bone marrow.

39.

The incidence of cancer increases dramatically in older humans because

a)

as we age, normal cell division inhibitors cease to function

b)

the longer we live, the more mutations we accumulate.

40.

Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the Figure?

a)

ligase

b)

a restriction enzyme

41.

What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes?

a)

to cleave nucleic acids at specific sites

b)

to add new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA

42.

Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process?

a)

exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills cells lacking the resistant plasmid

b)

producing antibodies specific for each bacterium containing a recombinant plasmid

43.

A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a bacterial plasmid, and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that

a)

prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes.

b)

bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns.

44.

Which of the following separates molecules by movement due to size and electrical charge?

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

gene cloning

45.

Restriction fragments of DNA are typically separated from one another by which process?

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR

46.

The segment of DNA shown in the figure has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments?

a)
b)
47.

The DNA profiles in the figure represent four different individuals. Which of the following statements is consistent with the results?

a)

B is the child of A and C.

b)

C is the child of A and B.

48.

Which of the following are characteristics of Prokaryotic DNA?

a)

Single linear strand

b)

Single circular strand

c)

Multiple linear strands

d)

Plasmids

e)

Contains histones

49.

Which of the following are characteristics of plasmids?

a)

Circular DNA strand

b)

RNA strands

c)

Contain resistance genes

d)

Found in eukaryotes

e)

Found in prokaryotes

50.

Which of the following describes chromatin?

a)

DNA nucleosomes wrapped around histone proteins

b)

Condensed DNA prepared for cell division

c)

Complimentary RNA coding of primary DNA

d)

Unpackaged DNA that is loose and always accessible

51.

Which of the following describe the structure of mature RNA?

a)

Contains Uracil

b)

Contains introns and exons

c)

Has a poly-A tail and 5' cap

d)

Single stranded

e)

Circular strand

52.

Which of the following would be transcribed from the following DNA sequence? 3' ATC GAA TTA CGA 5'

a)

5' UAG CUU AAU GCU 3'

b)

5' AUC GAA UUA CGA 3'

c)

3' UCG UAA UUC UAG 5'

d)

3' TAG CTT AAT GCT 5'

e)

5' TAG CTT AAT GCT 3'

53.
In the lac operon model the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
glucose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
54.

Which of the following is true of DNA Replication?

a)

DNA is semi conservative because it creates two new strands of old nucleotide.

b)

New DNA strands are being synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction

c)

DNA is being synthesized in the 3' to 5' directions from a template strand

d)

RNA is being synthesized by RNA polymerase in the 5' to 3' direction

e)

A sense strand is created from a nonsense strand of DNA using RNA polymerase

55.

The following mutation occurs:

5' TAC GGC CGA AGT CGT 3'

becomes

5' TAC GGC CGA ATT CGT 3'

What type of mutation is this?

a)

sense

b)

nonsense

c)

frameshift

d)

translocation

e)

duplication

56.

Where does RNA polymerase bind to DNA?

a)

at an activator site

b)

on the coding gene sequence

c)

at a promoter region

d)

downstream of the coding sequence

e)

Where the RNA primer is placed

57.

Which of the following occur during RNA processing?

a)

exons can be removed

b)

spliceosomes remove introns

c)

a poly-A tail and GTP cap are added

d)

DNA helicase unzips DNA

e)

activator sequences initiate transcription

58.

Which of the following is a similarity between the process prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms implement for protein synthesis?

a)

Transcription takes place in the nucleus, translation takes place in the cytoplasm

b)

Introns are removed by spliceosomes

c)

RNA processing adds a cap and tail to the mature RNA strand

d)

Transcription and translation happen simultaneously

e)

Ribosomes for phosphodiester bonds between amino acids

59.

Which of the following is true of regulatory genes?

a)

a promoter site for RNA polymerase to bind

b)

a gene that produces repressor proteins to block RNA polymerase

c)

a coding region responsible for the production of multiple proteins downstream of an activator site

d)

a gene that codes for activator proteins to enhance transcription

e)

an allosteric inhibitor for transcription factors

60.

Bacterial cells that contain pGal will fluoresce blue under ultraviolet light. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of replacing the lacA gene in the E. coli lac operon with the gene encoding pGal?

a)

When lacY and lac Z are breaking down and transporting lactose, the bacteria will fluoresce blue under ultraviolet light

b)

lacZ will only produce the enzyme for breaking down galactose in the presence of ultraviolet light

c)

the repressor enzyme will only be able to bind to the operator under the presence of lactose

d)

When the regulatory gene is stimulated by lactose, it will cause the gene to fluoresce blue

e)

All structural genes downstream from the placement of lacA will be inhibited due to this substitution mutation.

61.

Which of the following are pyrimidines?

a)

adenine and cytosine

b)

adenine and guanine

c)

adenine and thymine

d)

cytosine and guanine

e)

cytosine and thymine

62.

A nucleic acid contains 35% adenine, 36% thymine, 14% guanine, and 15% cytosine. This nucleic acid is

a)

single-stranded RNA

b)

single-stranded DNA

c)

double-stranded RNA

d)

double-stranded DNA

63.

A nucleic acid consists of 29% cytosine, 35% uracil, 10% adenine, and 26% guanine. This nucleic acid is

a)

single-stranded RNA

b)

single-stranded DNA

c)

double-stranded RNA

d)

double-stranded DNA

64.

Which is not a component of DNA nucleotides?

a)

Ribose sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Deoxyribose sugar

65.

Eukaryotic DNA is located in

a)

the nucleus

b)

the cytoplasm

c)

anywhere in the cell

66.

During transcription, what is the relationship between DNA and RNA?

a)

DNA is the template, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

b)

DNA is the template, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

c)

RNA is the template, DNA reads RNA in 3' -> 5' direction

d)

RNA is the template, DNA reads RNA in 5' -> 3' direction

67.

What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called?

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

triplet box

d)

wobble

68.

Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

69.

How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote?

a)

Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA

b)

Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA

c)

Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has circular DNA

d)

Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA

70.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

c)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

71.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'?

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5'

b)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

c)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

72.

Gene expression is the ability for a gene to be:

a)

in the genome.

b)

transcribed.

c)

non-coding.

d)

a dominant allele.

73.

Translation is a process where:

a)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of rRNA codons.

b)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of tRNA codons.

c)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of mRNA codons.

d)

a DNA nucleotide sequence is used to produce mRNA codon sequence.

74.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

75.

What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Amino Acids

76.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
77.

Group of structural and regulating genes that functions as a single unit

a)

Operon

b)

Plasmid

c)

DNA

d)

Oncogene

78.

In an operon, a sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase begins transcription

a)

Repressor

b)

Inducer

c)

Structurel Gene

d)

Promoter

79.

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found

a)

A=C

b)

A+G = C + T

c)

G + C = A + T

d)

A = G and C = T

80.

An amino acid deficiency in an organism is most likely to affect

a)

post translation

b)

translation

c)

post transcription

d)

transcription

81.

Amino acid tryptophan is added to the agar the E.coli are growing on, the trp operon will be

a)

not affected

b)

increased in function

c)

repressed

d)

induced

82.

DNA wrapped around histone proteins

a)

nucleosome

b)

Barr body

c)

helicase

d)

primase

83.

The pink ribbon-like structure is

a)

tRNA

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

rRNA

84.

Small, circular DNA molecules from bacteria are called...

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Chromatin

c)

Transcripts

d)

Plasmids

85.

In the diagram, what is structure #1?

a)

Topisomerase

b)

Primase

c)

Helicase

d)

ssBP

86.

In the diagram what is #4?

a)

Topisomerase

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Helicase

d)

Primase

87.

In DNA replication, what enzyme unzips the double helix?

a)

Primase

b)

Topisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase I

d)

Helicase

88.

In DNA replication, which occurs first?

a)

DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides

b)

DNA polymerase replaces RNA with DNA

c)

DNA ligase binds segments together

d)

Primase creates a primer

89.

What is the orientation of DNA strands?

a)

Single strand, 5'-3'

b)

Double strand, both 5'-3'

c)

Double strand, antiparallel

d)

Double strand, semiconservative

90.

Which strand of these DNA molecule would be the lagging strand?

a)

Top

b)

Bottom

91.

If a polypeptide chain has 100 amino acids, then how many nucleotides does the mRNA contain?

a)

99

b)

100

c)

299

d)

300

92.

What is the correct order of function in replication?

a)

helicase, ssbp, topoisomerase, DNA primer

b)

helicase, topoisomerase, ssbp, RNA primer

c)

ssbp, helicase, topoisomerase, DNA primer

d)

helicase, ssbp, topoisomerase, RNA primer

93.

A ribosome has three binding sites for tRNA. Match the site with the correct function.

a)

P site holds tRNA that carries next amino acid added to chain

b)

A site is where discharged tRNAs leave the ribosome

c)

A site holds tRNA that carries next amino acid added to chain

d)

E site holds tRNA that carries the growing amino acid chain

94.

Base substitutions of the 3rd base of codon rarely result in an error in polypeptide because...

a)

substitutions are corrected before transcription begins

b)

substitutions are restricted to introns

c)

transcribed errors attract snRNP’s,stimulating splicing

d)

base pair rule less strict for the 3rd base codon/anticodons

95.

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is...

a)

complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon

b)

complementary to the rRNA triplet

c)

part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid

d)

changeable, depends on the amino acid that bonds to the tRNA

96.

Using the picture what polypeptide does CAA-CGG-GUA code for?

a)

His, Arg, Stop

b)

Gln, Arg, Val

c)

Gln, His, Met

d)

Met, Gln, Arg

97.

Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?

a)

a base pair substitution

b)

a deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene

c)

a nucleotide deletion at the end of the gene

d)

single nucleotide inserted close to start of coding sequence

98.

Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines

a)

Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring

b)

Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring

c)

Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring

d)

Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring

99.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5

b)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

c)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

100.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

c)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

101.

How do the three types of RNA work together?

a)

mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome

b)

mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome

c)

mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information

d)

mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose

102.

Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications?

a)

5' cap

b)

TATA box

c)

poly-A tail

d)

intron removal

103.

Which of the following describes epigenetic changes that affect gene expression?

a)

alternative RNA splicing

b)

post-transcriptional modification

c)

DNA methylation or histone acetylation

d)

operon inhibition

104.

Which of the following genetic engineering techniques is incorrectly described?

a)

Electrophoresis separates molecules based on size & charge

b)

PCR allows for DNA fragments to be stabilized for engineering processes

c)

Bacterial transformation introduces DNA to bacterial cells

d)

DNA sequencing determines the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule

105.

What is transcribed from DNA to produce a protein and is a good indication of whether or not a particular gene is expressed?

a)

mRNA

b)

cDNA

c)

tRNA

d)

trRNA

106.

From microarray data, what can we conclude?

a)

genes that cause cancer

b)

which genes may be affected in cancer

c)

genes that stop cancer

d)

which cells have genes

107.

This is the practice of inserting the DNA of another species into an organism's DNA so that the organism gains a new trait.

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

108.

Which kitten is most likely the offspring of this cat?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

109.

What is the process in which an unspecialized stem cell turns into a specialized body cell?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Differentiation

c)

Respiration

d)

Genetic Modification

110.

During gel electrophoresis, the _______ pieces of DNA move farthest down the gel

a)

lightest

b)

heaviest

c)

ugliest

d)

deadliest

111.

What does transgenic mean?

a)

An organism that can change its genes at will

b)

A stem cell that can differentiate into anything

c)

An organism that has had another species' DNA put in it

d)

A bacteria that reproduces asexually

112.

Another name for a point mutation is:

a)

Substitution

b)

Frameshift

c)

Insertion

d)

Deletion

113.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion

b)

Point mutation

c)

Deletion

d)

Substitution

114.

What type of Mutation is this to the sentence "THE CAT WAS FUN":

THE BAT WAS FUN

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Insertion Mutation

115.

What type of Mutation is this to the sentence "THE CAT WAS FUN":

THE CAT AWA SFU N...

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Insertion Mutation

116.
what is an operon?
a)
a part of a ribsome
b)
a part of a Rna
c)
a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task
d)
needed for dna replication
117.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
118.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
119.
Inducible negative control is when when the gene is transcribed by the ____ of a specific molecule
a)
presence
b)
absence
120.
What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
121.

How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote?

a)

Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA

b)

Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA

c)

Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has prokaryote DNA

d)

Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA

122.

Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines.

a)

Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring

b)

Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring

c)

Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring

d)

Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring

123.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5'

b)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

c)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

124.

Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

125.

Which enzyme is responsible for unzipping the DNA strands?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

126.

Which enzyme is responsible for joining the fragments on the lagging strand?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

127.

How do the three types of RNA work together?

a)

mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome

b)

mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information

c)

mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome

d)

mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose

128.

Where does translation take place in prokaryotes & eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or nucleus

b)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or rough ER; Eukaryotes - cytosol

c)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or rough ER

d)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or nucleus; Eukaryotes - cytosol

129.

What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called?

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

triplet box

d)

wobble

130.

Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

131.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)
RNA to DNA to protein
b)
DNA to RNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
RNA to protein to DNA
132.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
133.

How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though they look and perform completely different?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

The proteins expressed in each cell are different

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

d)

The genome of the different cells changes

134.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
135.
RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?
a)
5' to 3' 
b)
3' to 5' along the template strand
c)
3' to 5' along nontemplate(coding) strand
d)
5' to 3' along the template strand
136.
Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
a)
the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
b)
the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
c)
the removal of introns and splicing together of exons
d)
gene amplification contributing to cancer
137.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
138.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
139.
What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?
a)
to add modified guanin to the 3' end of the mRNA
b)
to indicate the site of translational termination
c)
to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA
d)
to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes 
140.
What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'
a)
met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
b)
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
c)
met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
d)
met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
141.
Smaller segments of RNA nucleotides that transport amino acids to the ribosomes.
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
142.
Translation is crucial to the process of making proteins. Which statement best describes what takes place during translation? 
a)
A copy of chromosomal DNA is created 
b)
Information in mRNA is converted into a sequence of amino acids in a protein 
c)
A RNA copy of a DNA strand is made.
d)
Instructions from DNA in the nucleus are brought to the cytoplasm 
143.
Which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
144.
The anticodon is located on 
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA