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CISSP Quiz

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A fundamental difference between how a Static lab and a Dynamic lab is configured is that the dynamic lab should be malware

(a)  

2.

A fundamental difference between how a Static lab and Dynamic lab is configured is that the static lab should be more

(a)  

3.

Malware Friendly:

One of the goals in configuring a dynamic lab PC is to make it "friendly" to malware

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Hyper-V:

Which of the following is the best reason why Hyper-V is not the best choice for running older guest operating systems (like Windows XP)

a)

Because Hyper-V is a "Type 2" hypervisor

b)

There may be problems with driver support and "virutalization additions"

c)

Because Window XP is not secure

d)

Because Hyper-V is a "Type 1" hypervisor

5.

Browsers:

You should install many browsers in your Dynamic Lab PC

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Exploited Software:

Which of the following are some of the commonly exploited software that should be installed in a Dynamic Lab PC

Note: Multiple answers may apply

a)

Notepad++

b)

Microsoft Office

c)

Adobe Flash player

d)

Adobe Acrobat reader

e)

A 3rd-party anti-virus package

7.

Enticing Files:

When creating enticing files, you just need to use creative file names... there's no need for any actual content for the files

a)

True

b)

False

8.

When setting up a dynamic lab one should avoid using their real social media accounts because their identity should remain

(a)  

9.

Browser Fingerprint:

Which of the following items can be easily discovered about your PC's browser from a web site

Note: Multiple answers may apply

a)

External IP Address

b)

PC NetBIOS name

c)

General Location

d)

Screen resolution

e)

Language

10.

The fundamental purpose for "anonymizing" the Dynamic Lab PC is to prevent

(a)  

11.

Transfer Files:

Best/safest way to transfer files from a host PC to a guest PC in VirtualBox is to

(a)  

12.

VM Restore:

Which of the following are the best techniques for restoring a VirtualBox VM back to its original state

Note: Multiple answers may apply

a)

Use a "seed" disk

b)

Use an "Immutable Image"

c)

Use a screenshot

d)

Use a snapshot

13.

Backup:

Which of the following possible backup utilities are free to use in a virtual environment

Note: Multiple Answers Apply

a)

Backup Exec

b)

Clonezilla

c)

Bugzilla

d)

Macrium Reflect

e)

Acronis True Image

14.

A clean slate allows one to conduct analysis without

(a)  

15.

Bare-Metal Restore:

There is no practical way to restore a bare-metal PC to a "clean slate" other than just reimaging the PC

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Cookies:

A "web cookie" can be used as a vector for malware

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Blocking:

It is considered good practice to block all cookies on your Dynamic Lab PC

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Tools:

Which application was used to monitor the real-time file and registry activity of the NotePad v5 demo

a)

ILspy

b)

ProcMon

c)

ProcExp

d)

ProcDump

19.

To view file locations a program is writing to when it uses a random generator one must run the application in a

(a)  

20.

DLL:

You can easily execute a DLL file from the command line (just like an EXE file)

a)

True

b)

Fale

21.

Drivers:

Windows driver files (*.DRV) use a different file format from DLLs

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Concerning DLLs, "load on demand" means these resources, the DLLs, will only be loaded into memory if and when they are

(a)  

23.

DOS Stub:

When launching a WinPE from the Windows 10 command prompt (cmd.exe), you will just get a message that says "This program cannot be run in DOS mode"

a)

True

b)

False

24.

PE Format:

From which of the following parts of the WinPE file format will you find if the file is an EXE or DLL

a)

PE Signature

b)

Image File Header

c)

Image Optional Header

d)

Section Table

e)

None of the above

25.

PE Format:

From which of the following parts of the WinPE file format will you find if the file is a Graphical User Interface (GUI) or CommandLine User Interface (CUI)

a)

PE Signature

b)

Image File Header

c)

Image Optional Header

d)

Section Table

e)

None of the above

26.

PE Sections:

Which of the following possible section names is where Microsoft stores the actual executable "code"

a)

.code

b)

.data

c)

.reloc

d)

.edata

e)

None of the above

27.

To mitigate exploitation of the well-known starting address vulnerability through a buffer overflow one can use

(a)  

28.

Exports Section:

A typical EXE file will not have any exported functions

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Stepping through a program with a debugger like DnSpy can help one to see clear

(a)  

30.

Analysis:

When dealing with an unknown file, it makes sense to analyze it first before making the decision to protect it during its "life cycle"

a)

True

b)

False

31.

State:

Which of the following is an example of a non-executable state

a)

Georgia

b)

Encryption

c)

Compression

d)

Changing the file extension

32.

Zip File:

Although you can not create a password-protected zip file using just Windows 10, you can use a password-protected zip file

a)

True

b)

False

33.

To prevent e-mail scanners from scanner the attachment that contains your malware you can send the malware in a password

(a)  

34.

A PKI can allows users to secure their communications by sharing keys that support asymmetrical encryption and

(a)  

35.

Digital Signature:

The two major purposes of a digital signature on a file is to verify who originally created (or signed) the file and that it has not changed since the signature

a)

True

b)

False

36.

CIA Triangle:

Which of the following are the 3 parts of the CIA triangle

Note: I'm expecting that you'd select exactly 3

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Control

c)

Authentication

d)

Integrity

e)

Availability

37.

Redundancy:

Having hardware redundancy such as RAID, is mostly associated with which part of the CIA triangle

Note: There could be more than 1 answer, so pick the most significant one

(a)  

38.

User Errors:

Which part of the CIA triangle deals with potential User Errors (like accidentially deleting a file)

(a)  

39.

A RAID 5 implementation with 6 drives has a volume size of how many TB?

(a)  

40.

A RAID 0 implementation with 2 drives results in a volume size of how many TB?

(a)  

41.

Researchers normally create a unique identifier for each malware sample for classification and

(a)  

42.

Packer:

What is the major purpose for using a "packer" in the context of chapter 11

Note: More than one may be true, so pick the best!

a)

A fan of the Green Bay Packers

b)

A software component that can be used to protect intellectual property

c)

A software component used to reduce executable sizes

d)

A software component used to encrypt a file

e)

A software component that makes Static analysis more difficult

43.

PEid:

Determining the type of packer  used on a file is necessary to do this to a file.

(a)  

44.

On-Line Scanning:

Which of the following are advantages of using on-line malware scanning

Note: Multiple answers may apply

a)

You don't have to keep the AV definitions up to date

b)

has a better record of minimizing false positives

c)

results are shared with AV researchers and vendors

d)

has a better record of minimizing false negatives

45.

UPX:

The UPX packer can be easily configured to work with EXE files produced from .Net Assemblies

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The point of a malware author's attempt to create a malformed PE structure is to do this to tools that can be used for analysis.

(a)  

47.

SysInternals:

Which of the following System Internals tools can be used to display the "string" data in an EXE

a)

Extract

b)

ProcExp

c)

Strings

d)

ProcDump

e)

Hex2Dec

48.

One can display the "clear text" version of encrypted strings in an EXE with a debugger like

(a)  

49.

Dynamic Analysis:

Dynamic analysis is typically required since Static is less likely to reveal the "directive"

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Virtual Lab:

One should use both a Virtual Lab environment and a "bare metal" environment because malware may be able to ... the environment they are being run in.

(a)  

51.

Installation:

One may be able to monitor the installation of malware by viewing host behavior with a program called

(a)  

52.

Persistency:

One may be able to determine if a malware has achieved persistence on a machine by examining host behavior with a program called

(a)  

53.

Downloaders:

Malware that uses downloaders are typically smaller EXE files than their Dropper counterparts

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Droppers:

Droppers aren't that successful these days, since the use of User Account Control (UAC) became prevalent

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Persistency:

Which tool is helpful in discovering the "persistency" of malware

a)

ILSpy

b)

ProcMon

c)

Autoruns

d)

ProcExp

e)

dnSpy

56.

Common Locations:

Which of the following locations require admin rights to be able to copy new files

Note: Multiple answers may apply

a)

C:\Windows folder

b)

C:\Windows\Temp folder

c)

Your folder under C:\Users folder

d)

C:\Windows\System folder

57.

Survival:

Which of the following techniques for ensuring survival after a shutdown or reboot do not require admin permissions to perform

Note: Multiple answers may apply

a)

Hijacking the boot sector

b)

Infecting system files

c)

Adding the malware in the StartUp folder

d)

Utilizing Task Scheduler

e)

Utilizing the registry

58.

Malware authors often design their malware to be hidden files or folders. So, one should configure their file explorer to show

Note: Many may apply

a)

hidden files

b)

system folder

c)

file extensions

d)

DLLs

59.

RootKit:

A RootKit is able to hide files by doing this to API calls.

(a)  

60.

PKI:

Consider a scenario where you want to send an encrypted email to another person at your company. Which key will be used

a)

My private key

b)

My public key

c)

Their private key

d)

Their public key