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Sandfoundry Network Chap 4

Total questions: 163

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
1. Which is not a application layer protocol?
a)
a) HTTP
b)
b) SMTP
c)
c) FTP
d)
d) TCP
2.
2. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________
a)
a) Packet
b)
b) Message
c)
c) Segment
d)
d) Frame
3.
3. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigms?
a)
a) Peer to peer
b)
b) Client-server
c)
c) HTTP
d)
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
4.
4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
a)
a) Transport layer protocol
b)
b) Maximum buffer size
c)
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum buffer size
d)
d) None of the mentioned
5.
5. Application layer offers _______ service.
a)
a) End to end
b)
b) Process to process
c)
c) Both End to end and Process to process
d)
d) None of the mentioned
6.
6. E-mail is _________
a)
a) Loss-tolerant application
b)
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c)
c) Elastic application
d)
d) None of the mentioned
7.
7. Pick the odd one out.
a)
a) File transfer
b)
b) File download
c)
c) E-mail
d)
d) Interactive games
8.
8. Which of the following is an application layer service?
a)
a) Network virtual terminal
b)
b) File transfer, access, and management
c)
c) Mail service
d)
d) All of the mentioned
9.
9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted.
a)
a) IP
b)
b) MAC
c)
c) Port
d)
d) None of the mentioned
10.
10. Which is a time-sensitive service?
a)
a) File transfer
b)
b) File download
c)
c) E-mail
d)
d) Internet telephony
11.
11. Transport services available to applications in one or another form _________
a)
a) Reliable data transfer
b)
b) Timing
c)
c) Security
d)
d) All of the mentioned
12.
12. Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?
a)
a) SMTP
b)
b) HTTP
c)
c) FTP
d)
d) SIP
13.
1. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.
a)
a) domain name system
b)
b) routing information protocol
c)
c) network time protocol
d)
d) internet relay chat
14.
2. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a)
a) HTTP
b)
b) FTP
c)
c) Telnet
d)
d) TCP
15.
3. Application layer protocol defines ____________
a)
a) types of messages exchanged
b)
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c)
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d)
d) all of the mentioned
16.
4. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a)
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b)
b) post office protocol
c)
c) internet mail access protocol
d)
d) hypertext transfer protocol
17.
5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
a)
a) base 64 encoding
b)
b) base 32 encoding
c)
c) base 16 encoding
d)
d) base 8 encoding
18.
6. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP network?
a)
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b)
b) simple network management protocol
c)
c) internet message access protocol
d)
d) media gateway protocol
19.
7. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?
a)
a) media gateway protocol
b)
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c)
c) resource reservation protocol
d)
d) session initiation protocol
20.
8. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling multimedia communication sessions?
a)
a) session initiation protocol
b)
b) session modelling protocol
c)
c) session maintenance protocol
d)
d) resource reservation protocol
21.
9. Which one of the following is not correct?
a)
a) Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a communication session
b)
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
c)
c) TCP is an application layer protocol
d)
d) All of the mentioned
22.
10. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________
a)
a) HTTP protocol
b)
b) FTP protocol
c)
c) SMTP protocol
d)
d) TCP protocol
23.
1. The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is ________
a)
a) 4
b)
b) 1
c)
c) 5
d)
d) 7
24.
2. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________
a)
a) Persistent
b)
b) Non-persistent
c)
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
d)
d) None of the mentioned
25.
3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is called __________
a)
a) STT
b)
b) RTT
c)
c) PTT
d)
d) JTT
26.
4. The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.
a)
a) First
b)
b) Second
c)
c) Third
d)
d) Fourth
27.
5. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP request/response takes __________ RTTs.
a)
a) 2
b)
b) 1
c)
c) 4
d)
d) 3
28.
6. The first line of HTTP request message is called _____________
a)
a) Request line
b)
b) Header line
c)
c) Status line
d)
d) Entity line
29.
7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP message
a)
a) Request line
b)
b) Header line
c)
c) Status line
d)
d) Entity body
30.
8. The __________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body empty.
a)
a) POST
b)
b) SEND
c)
c) GET
d)
d) PUT
31.
9. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when ____________ method is used
a)
a) GET
b)
b) POST
c)
c) HEAD
d)
d) PUT
32.
10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
a)
a) 200 OK
b)
b) 400 Bad Request
c)
c) 301 Moved permanently
d)
d) 304 Not Found
33.
11. Which of the following is not correct?
a)
a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space
b)
b) Web cache can act both like server and client
c)
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
d)
d) Web cache contains copies of recently requested objects
34.
12. The conditional GET mechanism
a)
a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested
b)
b) Limits the number of response from a server
c)
c) Helps to keep a cache upto date
d)
d) None of the mentioned
35.
13. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
a)
a) HTTP version number
b)
b) URL
c)
c) Method
d)
d) None of the mentioned
36.
1. Multiple objects can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in a persistent HTTP connection.
a)
a) True
b)
b) False
37.
2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a)
a) application layer
b)
b) transport layer
c)
c) network layer
d)
d) data link layer
38.
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
a)
a) uniform resource identifier
b)
b) unique resource locator
c)
c) unique resource identifier
d)
d) union resource locator
39.
4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.
a)
a) user datagram protocol
b)
b) transmission control protocol
c)
c) border gateway protocol
d)
d) domain host control protocol
40.
5. In HTTP pipelining ________________
a)
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses
b)
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
c)
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d)
d) multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection
41.
6. FTP server listens for connection on port number ____________
a)
a) 20
b)
b) 21
c)
c) 22
d)
d) 23
42.
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a)
a) transmission control protocol
b)
b) user datagram protocol
c)
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d)
d) stream control transmission protocol
43.
8. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a)
a) True
b)
b) False
44.
9. The File Transfer Protocol is built on ______________
a)
a) data centric architecture
b)
b) service oriented architecture
c)
c) client server architecture
d)
d) connection oriented architecture
45.
10. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in ___________
a)
a) stream mode
b)
b) block mode
c)
c) compressed mode
d)
d) message mode
46.
1. Expansion of FTP is __________
a)
a) Fine Transfer Protocol
b)
b) File Transfer Protocol
c)
c) First Transfer Protocol
d)
d) Fast Transfer Protocol
47.
2. FTP is built on _____ architecture.
a)
a) Client-server
b)
b) P2P
c)
c) Data centric
d)
d) Service oriented
48.
3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file.
a)
a) 1
b)
b) 2
c)
c) 3
d)
d) 4
49.
4. Identify the incorrect statement regarding FTP.
a)
a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b)
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c)
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d)
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection
50.
5. If 5 files are transferred from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP connections between A and B is _______
a)
a) 5
b)
b) 10
c)
c) 2
d)
d) 6
51.
6. FTP server _____________
a)
a) Maintains state information
b)
b) Is stateless
c)
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
d)
d) Has UDP connection for file transfer
52.
7. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the control connection in ________ bit ASCII format.
a)
a) 8
b)
b) 7
c)
c) 3
d)
d) 5
53.
8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.
a)
a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b)
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c)
c) 452 – Error writing file
d)
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection
54.
9. The data transfer mode of FTP, in which all the fragmenting has to be done by TCP is ________
a)
a) Stream mode
b)
b) Block mode
c)
c) Compressed mode
d)
d) Message mode
55.
10. The password is sent to the server using ________ command.
a)
a) PASSWD
b)
b) PASS
c)
c) PASSWORD
d)
d) PWORD
56.
1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a)
a) SMTP server
b)
b) SMTP client
c)
c) Peer
d)
d) Master
57.
2. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into _______
a)
a) Binary
b)
b) Signal
c)
c) ASCII
d)
d) Hash
58.
3. Expansion of SMTP is ________
a)
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b)
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c)
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d)
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
59.
4. In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the command _______
a)
a) SEND TO
b)
b) RCPT TO
c)
c) MAIL TO
d)
d) RCVR TO
60.
5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is ________
a)
a) TCP
b)
b) UDP
c)
c) Either TCP or UDP
d)
d) IMAP
61.
6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of SMTP?
a)
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b)
b) It is a pull protocol
c)
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d)
d) SMTP is responsible for the transmission of the mail through the internet
62.
7. Internet mail places each object in _________
a)
a) Separate messages for each object
b)
b) One message
c)
c) Varies with number of objects
d)
d) Multiple messages for each object
63.
8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is _________
a)
a) 25
b)
b) 35
c)
c) 50
d)
d) 15
64.
9. A session may include ________
a)
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b)
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c)
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d)
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
65.
10. Which of the following is an example of user agents for e-mail?
a)
a) Microsoft Outlook
b)
b) Facebook
c)
c) Google
d)
d) Tumblr
66.
11. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only _________
a)
a) One MTA
b)
b) Two UAs
c)
c) Two UAs and one MTA
d)
d) Two UAs and two MTAs
67.
12. User agent does not support this ___________
a)
a) Composing messages
b)
b) Reading messages
c)
c) Replying messages
d)
d) Routing messages
68.
1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes _________ as the transport layer protocol for electronic mail transfer.
a)
a) TCP
b)
b) UDP
c)
c) DCCP
d)
d) SCTP
69.
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as _____________
a)
a) SMTPS
b)
b) SSMTP
c)
c) SNMP
d)
d) STARTTLS
70.
3. SMTP uses which of the following TCP port?
a)
a) 22
b)
b) 23
c)
c) 21
d)
d) 25
71.
4. Which one of the following protocol is used to receive mail messages?
a)
a) SMTP
b)
b) Post Office Protocol (POP)
c)
c) Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
d)
d) FTP
72.
5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?
a)
a) protocol for SMTP security
b)
b) an SMTP extension
c)
c) protocol for web pages
d)
d) protocol for faster mail transfer
73.
6. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.
a)
a) IP address
b)
b) MAC address
c)
c) URL
d)
d) Name
74.
7. An SMTP session may not include _______
a)
a) zero SMTP transaction
b)
b) one SMTP transaction
c)
c) more than one SMTP transaction
d)
d) one HTTP transaction
75.
8. SMTP defines _______
a)
a) message transport
b)
b) message encryption
c)
c) message content
d)
d) message password
76.
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server configured in such a way that anyone on the internet can send e-mail through it?
a)
a) open mail relay
b)
b) wide mail reception
c)
c) open mail reception
d)
d) short mail reception
77.
10. SMTP is not used to deliver messages to ______
a)
a) user’s terminal
b)
b) user’s mailbox
c)
c) user’s word processor
d)
d) user’s email client
78.
1. The entire hostname has a maximum of ___________
a)
a) 255 characters
b)
b) 127 characters
c)
c) 63 characters
d)
d) 31 characters
79.
2. A DNS client is called _________
a)
a) DNS updater
b)
b) DNS resolver
c)
c) DNS handler
d)
d) none of the mentioned
80.
3. Servers handle requests for other domains _______
a)
a) directly
b)
b) by contacting remote DNS server
c)
c) it is not possible
d)
d) none of the mentioned
81.
4. DNS database contains _______
a)
a) name server records
b)
b) hostname-to-address records
c)
c) hostname aliases
d)
d) all of the mentioned
82.
5. If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname then _______
a)
a) server asks to the root server
b)
b) server asks to its adjcent server
c)
c) request is not processed
d)
d) none of the mentioned
83.
6. Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP address change?
a)
a) dynamic DNS
b)
b) mail transfer agent
c)
c) authoritative name server
d)
d) none of the mentioned
84.
7. Wildcard domain names start with label _______
a)
a) @
b)
b) *
c)
c) &
d)
d) #
85.
8. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are accredited by _______
a)
a) internet architecture board
b)
b) internet society
c)
c) internet research task force
d)
d) internet corporation for assigned names and numbers
86.
9. The domain name system is maintained by _______
a)
a) distributed database system
b)
b) a single server
c)
c) a single computer
d)
d) none of the mentioned
87.
10. Which one of the following is not true?
a)
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single IP address
b)
b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP addresses
c)
c) a single hostname may correspond to a single IP address
d)
d) none of the mentioned
88.
1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for __________
a)
a) secure data communication
b)
b) remote command-line login
c)
c) remote command execution
d)
d) all of the mentioned
89.
2. SSH can be used in only _____________
a)
a) unix-like operating systems
b)
b) windows
c)
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d)
d) none of the mentioned
90.
3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.
a)
a) public-key cryptography
b)
b) private-key cryptography
c)
c) any of public-key or private-key
d)
d) both public-key & private-key
91.
4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?
a)
a) port 21
b)
b) port 22
c)
c) port 23
d)
d) port 24
92.
5. Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote host except SSH?
a)
a) telnet
b)
b) rlogin
c)
c) both telnet and rlogin
d)
d) none of the mentioned
93.
6. Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?
a)
a) SCP
b)
b) SFTP
c)
c) Rsync
d)
d) All of the mentioned
94.
7. SSH-2 does not contain ______________
a)
a) transport layer
b)
b) user authentication layer
c)
c) physical layer
d)
d) connection layer
95.
8. Which one of the following feature was present in SSH protocol, version 1?
a)
a) password changing
b)
b) periodic replacement of session keys
c)
c) support for public-key certificates
d)
d) none of the mentioned
96.
9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over SSH.
a)
a) RCP protocol
b)
b) DHCP protocol
c)
c) MGCP protocol
d)
d) GCP protocol
97.
10. Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?
a)
a) public-key
b)
b) host based
c)
c) password
d)
d) all of the mentioned
98.
1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.
a)
a) IP address
b)
b) MAC address
c)
c) Url
d)
d) None of the mentioned
99.
2. DHCP is used for ________
a)
a) IPv6
b)
b) IPv4
c)
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
d)
d) None of the mentioned
100.
3. The DHCP server _________
a)
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b)
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c)
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d)
d) all of the mentioned
101.
4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is
a)
a) for a limited period
b)
b) for an unlimited period
c)
c) not time dependent
d)
d) none of the mentioned
102.
5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.
a)
a) 66
b)
b) 67
c)
c) 68
d)
d) 69
103.
6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.
a)
a) dynamic allocation
b)
b) automatic allocation
c)
c) static allocation
d)
d) all of the mentioned
104.
7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via _________
a)
a) UDP broadcast
b)
b) UDP unicast
c)
c) TCP broadcast
d)
d) TCP unicast
105.
8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use _________
a)
a) internet relay chat
b)
b) broader gateway protocol
c)
c) address resolution protocol
d)
d) none of the mentioned
106.
9. What is DHCP snooping?
a)
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b)
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c)
c) algorithm for DHCP
d)
d) none of the mentioned
107.
10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the network.
a)
a) MAC address
b)
b) IP address
c)
c) Both MAC address and IP address
d)
d) None of the mentioned
108.
1. IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________
a)
a) Transport layer
b)
b) Network layer
c)
c) Application layer
d)
d) Session layer
109.
2. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______
a)
a) Entire IP packet
b)
b) IP header
c)
c) IP payload
d)
d) IP trailer
110.
3. Which component is included in IP security?
a)
a) Authentication Header (AH)
b)
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
d)
d) All of the mentioned
111.
4. WPA2 is used for security in _______
a)
a) Ethernet
b)
b) Bluetooth
c)
c) Wi-Fi
d)
d) Email
112.
5. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called ______
a)
a) Denial-of-service attack
b)
b) Virus attack
c)
c) Worms attack
d)
d) Botnet process
113.
6. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in ______
a)
a) Wired personal area network
b)
b) Wireless networks
c)
c) Wired local area network
d)
d) Wired metropolitan area network
114.
7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______
a)
a) Browser security
b)
b) Email security
c)
c) FTP security
d)
d) WiFi security
115.
8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called ______
a)
a) International data encryption algorithm
b)
b) Private data encryption algorithm
c)
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
d)
d) Local data encryption algorithm
116.
9. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that information, then it is called _________
a)
a) DNS lookup
b)
b) DNS hijacking
c)
c) DNS spoofing
d)
d) DNS authorizing
117.
1. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public network such as the internet, creating a secure private connection.
a)
a) VNP
b)
b) VPN
c)
c) VSN
d)
d) VSPN
118.
2. When were VPNs introduced into the commercial world?
a)
a) Early 80’s
b)
b) Late 80’s
c)
c) Early 90’s
d)
d) Late 90’s
119.
3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a VPN?
a)
a) PPTP
b)
b) IPsec
c)
c) YMUM
d)
d) L2TP
120.
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning VPNs?
a)
a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
b)
b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
c)
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public networks
d)
d) Is the backbone of the Internet
121.
5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________
a)
a) Invisible from public networks
b)
b) Logically separated from other traffic
c)
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
d)
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec
122.
6. VPNs are financially speaking __________
a)
a) Always more expensive than leased lines
b)
b) Always cheaper than leased lines
c)
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines
d)
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines
123.
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over an L2TP VPN?
a)
a) Only IP
b)
b) Only IPX
c)
c) Only ICMP
d)
d) IP and IPX
124.
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined in which of the following standards?
a)
a) IPsec
b)
b) PPTP
c)
c) PPP
d)
d) L2TP
125.
9. L2F was developed by which company?
a)
a) Microsoft
b)
b) Cisco
c)
c) Blizzard Entertainment
d)
d) IETF
126.
10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does PPTP work at?
a)
a) Layer 1
b)
b) Layer 2
c)
c) Layer 3
d)
d) Layer 4
127.
11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does IPsec work at?
a)
a) Layer 1
b)
b) Layer 2
c)
c) Layer 3
d)
d) Layer 4
128.
1. Storage management comprises of _______________
a)
a) SAN Management
b)
b) Data protection
c)
c) Disk operation
d)
d) All of the mentioned
129.
2. Which of the following is not a storage device?
a)
a) Switch
b)
b) RAID Arrays
c)
c) Tape drives
d)
d) Hub
130.
3. Which protocols are used for Storage management?
a)
a) SNMP
b)
b) LDAP
c)
c) POP3
d)
d) MIB
131.
4. Identify the difficulty a SAN administrator does not incur while dealing with diverse vendors.
a)
a) Proprietary management interfaces
b)
b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the data center
c)
c) No single view
d)
d) Single view
132.
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices?
a)
a) By using Zoning
b)
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device
c)
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
d)
d) By keeping devices when used
133.
6. Effective Storage management does not include __________
a)
a) security
b)
b) backups
c)
c) reporting
d)
d) connection
134.
7. Among the following, identify which task is not involved in Storage Capacity management?
a)
a) Identifying storage systems are approaching full capacity
b)
b) Monitoring trends for each resource
c)
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total available
d)
d) Preventing unauthorized access to the storage
135.
8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s) is _______________
a)
a) standardization drives software interoperability and interchange ability
b)
b) breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary methods, trade secrets, and single providers
c)
c) builds a strong foundation on which others can quickly build and innovate
d)
d) all of the mentioned
136.
9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is not ________
a)
a) to promote interoperability among the management solution providers
b)
b) to act as an interface between the various budding technologies and provide solution to manage various environments
c)
c) to track the operation of the different management solution providers
d)
d) to manage the facility by itself if one of the management solution providers fail
137.
10. SMI-S Standard uses which of the following?
a)
a) Java RMI
b)
b) CIM-XML/HTTP
c)
c) CORBA
d)
d) .NET
138.
1. The application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called ______
a)
a) HTML
b)
b) TCP
c)
c) SNMP
d)
d) SNMP/IP
139.
2. Full duplex mode increases the capacity of each domain by ________
a)
a) 10 to 20 mbps
b)
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c)
c) 30 to 40 mbps
d)
d) 40 to 50 mbps
140.
3. Configuration management can be divided into which two subsystems?
a)
a) Reconfiguration and documentation
b)
b) Management and configuration
c)
c) Documentation and dialing up
d)
d) Configuration and dialing up
141.
4. To use a Simple Network Management System, we need _______
a)
a) Servers
b)
b) IP
c)
c) Protocols
d)
d) Rules
142.
5. The main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is _______
a)
a) Management
b)
b) Integration
c)
c) Classification
d)
d) Enhanced security
143.
6. In Network Management System, the division that is responsible for controlling access to network based on a predefined policy is called _________
a)
a) Fault Management
b)
b) Secured Management
c)
c) Active Management
d)
d) Security Management
144.
7. BER stands for ________
a)
a) Basic Encoding Rules
b)
b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c)
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d)
d) Basic Encoding Router
145.
8. Control of the users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of ________
a)
a) Reactive Fault Management
b)
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c)
c) Accounting Management
d)
d) Security Management
146.
9. SNMP is the framework for managing devices in an internet using the ______
a)
a) TCP/IP protocol
b)
b) UDP
c)
c) SMTP
d)
d) None
147.
10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is the guideline of ________
a)
a) HTTP
b)
b) SNMP
c)
c) URL
d)
d) MIB
148.
1. The application layer protocol used by a Telnet application is ________
a)
a) Telnet
b)
b) FTP
c)
c) HTTP
d)
d) SMTP
149.
2. Which amongst the following statements is correct for “character at a time” mode?
a)
a) Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the remote system
b)
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing
c)
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host
d)
d) All text is processed locally, and only confirmed lines are sent to the remote host
150.
3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer
a)
a) Telnet
b)
b) FTP
c)
c) HTTP
d)
d) SMTP
151.
4. What is the correct syntax to be written in the web browser to initiate a Telnet connection to www.sanfoundry.com?
a)
a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com
b)
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com
c)
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com
d)
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
152.
5. Telnet is used for _______
a)
a) Television on net
b)
b) Network of Telephones
c)
c) Remote Login
d)
d) Teleshopping site
153.
6. Which one of the following is not correct?
a)
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b)
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c)
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d)
d) telnet can be used for remote login
154.
7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
a)
a) default mode
b)
b) server mode
c)
c) line mode
d)
d) character mode
155.
8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server _________
a)
a) interpret as command (IAC) escape character has to be used
b)
b) control functions has to be disabled
c)
c) it is not possible
d)
d) cli character has to be used
156.
1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to __________
a)
a) TCP port number 21
b)
b) TCP port number 22
c)
c) TCP port number 23
d)
d) TCP port number 25
157.
2. Which one of the following is not true?
a)
a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT) standard
b)
b) client programs interact with NVT
c)
c) server translates NVT operations
d)
d) client can transfer files using to remote server using NVT
158.
3. All telnet operations are sent as ________
a)
a) 4 bits
b)
b) 8 bits
c)
c) 16 bits
d)
d) 32 bits
159.
4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for _______ Operating system.
a)
a) windows
b)
b) linux
c)
c) mac
d)
d) ubuntu
160.
5. The decimal code of Interpret as Command (IAC) character is _______
a)
a) 252
b)
b) 253
c)
c) 254
d)
d) 255
161.
6. Which of the following is true for character mode operation of telnet implementation?
a)
a) each character typed is sent by the client to the server
b)
b) each character typed is discarded by the server
c)
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word and then sent to the server
d)
d) each character type is aggregated into a line and then sent to the server
162.
7. In which mode of telnet, the client echoes the character on the screen but does not send it until a whole line is completed?
a)
a) default mode
b)
b) character mode
c)
c) server mode
d)
d) command mode
163.
8. Which one of the following is not correct?
a)
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b)
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c)
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d)
d) telnet can be used for remote login