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Worksheets

Bio EOC Practice

Total questions: 225

Worksheet time: 4hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which has occurred?

a)

The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution

b)

The saltwater solution lowers the temperature in the gums

c)

The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient

d)

The water in the gums has moved from a high to a low concentration of water

2.

Which amino acid sequence can be coded from the DNA sequence CAG TAG CGA?

a)

Valine - Isoleucine - Glycine

b)

Valine - Aspartic Acid - Alanine

c)

Valine - Isoleucine - Alanine

d)

Valine - Phenylalanine - Alanine

3.

Which disease most likely occurs after excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation?

a)

malaria

b)

asthma

c)

skin cancer

d)

polio

4.

RNA and DNA are which type of organic compound?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

5.

Which is an example of osmosis?

a)

potassium ions moving in and out of an animal cell

b)

carbon dioxide moving into the leaf cells of a plant

c)

oxygen moving into the bloodstream from the lungs

d)

water moving into the root cells of a plant

6.

A scientist treats a cell with a chemical that destroys the ribosomes. As a result, which cell process will be stopped?

a)

osmosis

b)

photosynthesis

c)

protein synthesis

d)

respiration

7.

Hitchhiker’s thumb (H) is dominant to no hitchhiker’s thumb (h). A woman who does not have hitchhiker’s thumb marries a man who is heterozygous for hitchhiker’s thumb. What is the probable genotypic ratio of their children?

a)

0% Hh : 100% hh

b)

50% Hh : 50% hh

c)

75% Hh : 25% hh

d)

100% Hh : 0% hh

8.

What will most likely be the result if all of the mitochondria are removed from a plant cell?

a)

It will be unable to carry out respiration

b)

It will lose water through osmosis

c)

It will break down the ribosomes in the cell

d)

It will be unable to photosynthesize

9.

What is the function of autotrophs in the carbon cycle?

a)

To use oxygen to produce glucose

b)

To take in excess water

c)

To use carbon dioxide to produce glucose

d)

To feed herbivores

10.

A strand of DNA has these bases:

AGC CAT GTA TAC

What is the complementary DNA strand?

a)

ACG GAT CTA TAG

b)

TCG GTA CAT ATG

c)

TGC CTA GAT ATC

d)

UCG CUA CAU AUG

11.

What is the difference between the full classification of organisms and their scientific names?

a)

The full classification of organisms and their scientific names vary in different countries.

b)

The scientific names of organisms include the order and family of the organisms, but the full classification includes only the species name.

c)

The full classification of organisms will include more categories of organisms than their scientific names.

d)

The scientific names of organisms include a single nomenclature, but the full classification includes various nomenclatures.

12.

What type of organic molecule are enzymes?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

13.

How does the amount of energy resulting from fermentation compare with that of aerobic respiration?

a)

Aerobic respiration results in less energy

b)

Aerobic respiration results in more energy

c)

Each process results in equal amounts of energy

d)

Each process results in variable amounts of energy

14.

Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?

a)

A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells.

b)

Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells.

c)

Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells.

d)

Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart.

15.

During which phase of the cell cycle is the cell growing and preparing for cellular division?

a)

cytokinesis

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

interphase

16.

Which environmental concern is most associated with burning fossil fuels?

a)

global climate change

b)

pollution of ocean waters

c)

ozone layer destruction

d)

decrease in levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide

17.

Which is a step in the process of producing transgenic bacteria?

a)

A plasmid is used to replace a faulty gene in a human cell.

b)

A chain of bacterial amino acids is inserted into human DNA.

c)

A human gene is inserted into a bacterial plasmid.

d)

A mutation is produced in a bacterial cell.

18.

Some marine worms and mollusks go through similar larval stages during development. Which can be inferred about their relationship?

a)

They share a common ancestor

b)

The mate with each other

c)

They compete for a habitat

d)

The share the same food source

19.

Which statement best describes natural selection?

a)

As the weather changes, organisms that are able to find shelter need less energy to live.

b)

Organisms that eat only plants need less food than organisms that eat animals.

c)

Organisms better adapted to their environment are more likely to reproduce and pass on their traits to their offspring.

d)

Small organisms are more likely to survive than larger organisms.

20.

Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide + glucose → oxygen + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen

c)

glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

d)

oxygen + water → carbon dioxide + glucose

21.
Enzymes catalyze reactions by ___________ Activation Energy.
a)
Increasing
b)
Decreasing
22.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
23.
What is something that prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have in common?
a)
They have a nucleus. 
b)
They are multi-cellular. 
c)
They have DNA. 
d)
They have organelles that are membrane-bound.
24.
Active transport does not require energy.
a)
True 
b)
False 
25.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
26.
In this image, the cell is using which type of molecular transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion 
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis 
27.
What are the two reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
C6H12O6 & 6CO2
b)
6 CO2 & 6H2O
c)
C6H12O6 & 6O2
d)
6CO2 & 6O2
28.

A contractile vacuole helps protists eliminate excess liquid. This is a "pumping" process which reduces pressure inside the cell and prevents the cell from bursting. What is most likely the source of energy for this process?

a)

DNA

b)

lipids

c)

ATP

d)

ribosomes

29.
The rabbit in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Decomposer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
30.
In this Food Web Pyramid Which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Secondary Consumer
31.

What would happen if the population of zebras decreased?

a)

There would be less grass for other animals.

b)

Populations of lions & hyenas would decrease.

c)

Termites would have no food.

d)

Baboons would have more competition for food.

32.

If more lions were introduced to the ecosystem

a)

the amount of hyenas would increase

b)

the amount of giraffes would decrease

c)

the amount of zebras would decrease

d)

the cheetahs would have less competition

33.

Which organism fills more than one role in this ecosystem?

a)

carrots

b)

owls

c)

birds

d)

grasshoppers

34.

This image shows

a)

primary succession

b)

secondary succession

35.

This image shows

a)

primary succession

b)

secondary succession

36.
Enzymes catalyze reactions by ___________ Activation Energy.
a)
Increasing
b)
Decreasing
37.

The organelle that captures the energy from sunlight and converts it into chemical energy stored in food during photosynthesis:

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Nucleus

38.

The organelle that converts the chemical energy stored in food molecules into compounds that are more convenient for the cell to use:

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Centrioles

39.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
40.
What is diffusion?
a)

The movement of particles from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

b)

The movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

41.

Diffusion is an example of _________________ transport.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Both Active and Passive

d)

None of the above

42.

Endocytosis is an example of ________________ transport.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Both Active and Passive

d)

None of the above

43.

The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called ________________.

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Both diffusion and facilitated diffusion

44.

THE END RESULT OF MEIOSIS IS...

a)

FOUR UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

b)

FOUR IDENTICAL GAMETES

c)

TWO IDENTICAL GAMETES

d)

TWO UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

45.

Which of the following is not a eukaryote?

a)

fungi

b)

animals

c)

plants

d)

archaea

46.

If a strand of DNA had bases in the following order - ATCCGTC, what would be the replicated complementary strand?

a)

UAGGCAG

b)

ATCCGTC

c)

TAGGCAG

d)

TUGGCTG

47.

If a strand of DNA had bases in the following order - ATCCGTC, what would be the transcribed mRNA sequence?

a)

TAGGCAG

b)

UAGGCAG

c)

TUGGCUG

d)

None of the above are correct

48.

A sequence of a DNA template strand is shown.


3' TCC AAT GGC TTA TTT 5'


Which of these is the correct amino acid chain produced from the DNA template strand?

a)

Arginine, Leucine, Proline, Asparagine

b)

Tryptophan, Phenylalanine, Leucine

c)

Serince, Leucine, Proline, Asparagine

d)

Tryptophan, Phenylalanine, Leucine, Glycine

49.

What is the primary cause of genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

"crossing over" of chromosomes

c)

separation of chromosomes

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

50.

The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate "normally" during meiosis is called _____________________.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

51.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

52.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

53.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

54.

An inheritance pattern in which both alleles for a gene are expressed in the offspring so that both traits show up on its body is known as ---

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

55.

____ is an inheritance pattern that results in offspring that are a MIXTURE of the two traits of its parents, like yellow and blue flowers making green offspring.

a)

incomplete dominance.

b)

codominance

56.

What type of inheritance pattern is shown here?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

57.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be gray?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

58.
According to the cladogram, which organism is most distantly related to the human?
a)
crayfish
b)
grasshopper
c)
perch
d)
frog
59.

The 4 eukaryote kingdoms are Animals, Plants, Fungi, and

a)

Bacteria

b)

Archaea

c)

Humans

d)

Protists

60.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
61.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.

Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram
a)
The organisms share a common ancestry.
b)
The organisms belong to the same genus.
c)
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
d)
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
62.

Mutations are important because they bring about

a)

death of the organism in which they develop

b)

genetic variation needed for a population to evolve

c)

benefits for the individual, not for the population

d)

Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population

63.

Which of these claims is most likely true of two species that share a recent common ancestor?

a)

The two species have different developmental patterns

b)

The two species have similar arms and legs

c)

The two species share DNA sequences

d)

The ancestors of each species looked very different

64.

Antibiotic resistant bacteria can

a)

Survive

b)

Reproduce

c)

Pass on the resistant gene to their offspring

d)

All of the above

65.
A  population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide.  Some cockroaches survived and produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray.  What can BEST be inferred from this example?
a)
species will adapt no matter what the environment
b)
environment has no effect on the survival of an organism
c)
Individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce
d)
Insecticides cause mutations that are passed on to the next generation
66.

A forest fire ignites in the Sam Houston State Forest and kills many members of a population of pigmy rattlesnakes.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

67.

Select the best answer based on the image.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

68.

If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?

a)

10Kcal

b)

1Kcal

c)

100Kcal

d)

1000Kcal

69.

Carrying capacity is...

a)

The maximum number of individuals that can fit into an area

b)

Ability of an area to accommodate a growing population

c)

The greatest # of individuals an area can support over time.

d)

The maximum number of species that can co-exist in an area

70.
Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by
a)
Burning fossil fuels 
b)
Cellular respiration
c)
Decomposing organic matter
d)
All answers are correct
71.
Identify the cycle pictured.
a)
The Water cycle
b)
The Carbon cycle
c)
The Nitrogen cycle
d)
This is not a correct diagram of any cycle.
72.
What is the correct equation for photosynthesis?
a)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O
b)
6CO2 + 6O2 --> C6H12O6  + 6H2O
c)
 6CO2 + 6O2 --> 6H2O + C6H12O6
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O  -->  6O2 + C6H12O6
73.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
74.

An illustration of how a particular DNA mutation will most likely affect the polypeptide produced is shown. What type of mutation is illustrated?

a)

Insertion

b)

Translocation

c)

Substitution

d)

Deletion

75.

Which property is shared by the cells of all living things?

a)

The cells contain DNA composed of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine.

b)

The cells are surrounded by a phospholipid bilayer and a cell wall made of cellulose.

c)

The cells have chromosomes that are located inside a membrane-bound nucleus.

d)

The cells rely on mitochondria to carry out aerobic cellular respiration.

76.

A segment of DNA is shown in the diagram. Which of these identifies the part of the DNA segment labeled X?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Deoxyribose

77.

An illustration of how a particular DNA mutation will most likely affect the polypeptide produced is shown. What type of mutation is illustrated?

a)

Insertion

b)

Translocation

c)

Substitution

d)

Deletion

78.

Which property is shared by the cells of all living things?

a)

The cells contain DNA composed of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine.

b)

The cells are surrounded by a phospholipid bilayer and a cell wall made of cellulose.

c)

The cells have chromosomes that are located inside a membrane-bound nucleus.

d)

The cells rely on mitochondria to carry out aerobic cellular respiration.

79.

A segment of DNA is shown in the diagram. Which of these identifies the part of the DNA segment labeled X?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Deoxyribose

80.

Snowshoe hares can be found living in the Rocky Mountains of New Mexico. During the summer months, when there is no snow on the ground, the snowshoe hare’s coat color is typically brown. During the winter months, when the mountains are covered in snow, the snowshoe hare’s coat is typically white. Which statement describes the genetic basis for the seasonal changes in coat color?

a)

The snow causes mutations in the genes that regulate coat color so that snowshoe hares are adapted to their environment during the winter months.

b)

The genes that control coat color are regulated by hormone signals that are altered by changes in environmental factors.

c)

Sunlight causes cancer cells to develop in the bodies of snowshoe hares, resulting in an apparent brown-colored coat as a result of hair loss.

d)

The genes that control coat color in snowshoe hares are deleted from the genome during the summer months.

81.

A genetic cross involving two unlinked genes is represented. AaGG x aaGg

Which genotype is NOT possible in the offspring produced by the cross?

a)

AaGG

b)

Aagg

c)

aaGg

d)

aaGG

82.

A partial DNA segment and an mRNA codon chart are shown. 3′ TCATGCATG 5′

What amino acid sequence is encoded in the partial DNA segment?

a)

Serine – Threonine – Tyrosine

b)

Serine – Serine – Tyrosine

c)

Serine – Threonine – Methionine

d)

Serine – Alanine – Methionine

83.

In Texas Longhorn cattle, coat coloration is an inherited trait. What is the genetic basis of coat-color variation in Texas Longhorn cattle?

a)

Differences in the nucleotide sequences of genes

b)

Differences in the numbers of chromosomes in cells

c)

Differences in the diets of individual cattle

d)

Differences in the environmental conditions of different geographic areas

84.

7 When a new mutation occurs in a somatic cell of a sexually reproducing organism, what percentage of the individual’s offspring are likely to inherit the mutation?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

0%

85.

Some angelfish colors are determined by codominance. Possible phenotypes and genotypes of angelfish colors are shown.

Which table shows the expected phenotypes of offspring resulting from a cross between a black angelfish and a black-lace angelfish?

a)
b)
c)
d)
86.

8 A cellular process is shown. Which statement best describes the significance of this process?

a)

The process allows organisms to grow and heal.

b)

The process produces clones of the parent organism.

c)

The process copies DNA before cell division

d)

The process creates genetic variation in the resulting cells

87.
Which organic macromolecules are composed of chains of amino acids that join to form the structural components of organisms?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
proteins
d)
lipids
88.
Which cell part is present in eukaryotic cells, but not in prokaryotic cells?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
89.
Which of the following is a possible result of a disruption in the cell cycle?
a)
cancer
b)
photosynthesis
c)
cellular respiration
d)
protein synthesis
90.

Cell have several mechanisms for regulating their internal environments. Which of these mechanisms involved in maintaining homeostasis requires energy?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

passive transport

91.
Which of the following is the only characteristic shared by living cells and viruses?
a)
the presence of carbohydrates
b)
the ability to reproduce
c)
the presence of the nucleic acid
d)
a cell membrane
92.
This cell is undergoing mitosis.  What stage of mitosis is shown?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
93.
This diagram shows the cell cycle.

Which of the following activities occur in the S phase?
a)
Replication of the DNA
b)
Growth of the cell
c)
Formation of the mitotic spindle
d)
Breakdown of the nuclear membrane
94.
Meiosis is the process by which gametes are produced. In which of the following human organs would meiosis occur?
a)
Liver
b)
Stomach
c)
Testis
d)
Lungs
95.
Which of the following macromolecules are a prominent part of animal tissues that function in insulation, helping animals conserve heat?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
96.
a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Interphase

97.
The diffusion of water through a semi-permeable membrane is called?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Cell wall
c)
Diffusion
d)
Respiration
98.
An animal cell placed in a hypertonic (salty) solution will
a)
Shrink
b)
Swell
c)
Stay the same
99.
Leaves are part of a plant’s shoot system. The xylem tissue in leaves transports —
a)
the bacteria needed for nitrogen fixation in root nodules
b)
the wax required to coat the surface of actively growing tissue
c)
 the water and minerals that are absorbed by the roots
d)
the oxygen that regulates the rate of carbohydrate production
100.
Which of the following correctly describes how a diagram of cellular respiration would differ from a diagram of photosynthesis?
a)
The cellular-respiration diagram would show electromagnetic waves as the final product.
b)
The cellular-respiration diagram would show glucose as the main source of energy.
c)
The cellular-respiration diagram would show energy stored in large protein molecules.
d)
The cellular-respiration diagram would show water as the main source of chemical energy.
101.

2 Some students are instructed to put a celery stalk in a red dye solution for a lab activity. First the students carefully cut the bottom of the stalk with a scalpel. Then they put the stalk in the beaker with the solution and place the beaker on a shelf in the lab room. The next day they check the stalk and make observations. The students note that the leaves at the end of the stalk have changed color from green to red. The students cut across the celery stalk and use a hand lens to see that the small tube openings along the edge of the celery stalk are also red. The cross section is shown. How do the plant systems work together to make this movement of liquid possible?

a)

The roots absorb water and minerals and move them up to the stem, while the stem moves food produced in the leaves down to the roots in tiny tubes.

b)

The roots anchor the plant in the soil, and the stem holds the leaves up.

c)

The roots absorb their own water and minerals, while the stem absorbs its water and minerals through the leaves.

d)

The roots lose water vapor to the soil, and the stem loses water vapor through the leaves.

102.

Part of an important cellular process involving a DNA strand is modeled. What is the purpose of this cellular process?

a)

Preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

Deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template

c)

Transcribing information in the DNA sequence for use by the cell

d)

Producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence

103.

A student preparing for a hike wants to pack a snack that has biomolecules that provide quickly available energy but few excess calories. Which nutrition label lists the best combination of biomolecules that provide quickly available energy while providing the fewest calories from other types of biomolecules?

a)
b)
c)
d)
104.

The model represents the change in DNA content of a cell during the cell cycle. Which part of the model represents the S phase?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

105.

Which of these correctly compliments the following DNA strand during replication: AGGTCA

a)

UCCAGU

b)

TCCAGT

c)

ACCAGU

d)

TGGAGT

106.

In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

Mitosis

b)

G1 phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

S phase

107.

Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, what is fitness?

a)

being able to escape from predators

b)

being among the strongest organisms in a population

c)

being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring

d)

being able to survive long enough to reach an adult age

108.

In cattle the allele for cloven hooves (H) is dominant over the allele for mule-foot hooves (h). The phenotype for each trait is shown in this picture.


What is the probability of cloven hooves in the offspring of parents that are heterozygous for the trait?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

109.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
110.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
111.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
112.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
113.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
114.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
115.
Natural selection is
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
humans change
c)
two species are the same
d)
more animals survive
116.

What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?

a)

homologous

b)

vestigial

c)

variation

d)

adaptation

117.
What is a producer?
a)
an organism that gets energy from eating other organisms
b)
an organisms that uses sunlight to make its own food
c)
an organism that gets energy from eating dead organisms, non-living material or waste
d)
an organism that uses chemical energy to make its own food
118.
succession that occurs in an area with no soil
a)
ecological succession 
b)
primary succession 
c)
secondary succession
d)
pioneer speciles
119.
How do lichens contribute to primary succession?
a)
Lichens decompose organic matter from animals and plants
b)
Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil
c)
Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria
d)
Lichens convert carbohydrates into fossil fuels.
120.
After a forest fire, an ecosystem would start regrowth through -
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
climax community
d)
limiting factors
121.

What are the three main parts of a nucleotide?

a)

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

b)

phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base

c)

phosphate, sulfate, and nitrate

d)

adenine, thymine, and uracil

122.

NUCLEOTIDES ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...

a)

CARBOHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

123.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
124.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
125.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment 
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
 fitness
126.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
127.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
128.
After a volcanic eruption, lava covers the land. What is the order that plants grow to repopulate the area?
a)
Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees
b)
Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses
c)
Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees
d)
Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees
129.
Final illustration (#8) shows
a)
pioneer species
b)
climax community
c)
only biotic factors
d)
only abiotic factors
130.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms.


Which organism is the LEAST related to the other three organisms?

a)

Organism 1

b)

Organism 2

c)

Organism 3

d)

Organism 4

131.

The image shows part of the humerus bone in different genera of primates.

Which statement is best supported by the observable structures of the different humerus bones?

a)

The primates lived in similar environments.

b)

The primates shared a common ancestor.

c)

The primates interbreed with similar organisms in a population.

d)

The primates had diets that consisted of similar types of foods.

132.

Researchers studying populations of lizards from the genus Gallotia on the Canary Islands compared the protein cytochrome b in different populations. The table shows the number of differences in the cytochrome b protein between different populations.


Which conclusion about the relatedness of the lizards do these data support?

a)

G. atlantica and G. stehlini are the least closely related. .

b)

G. simonyi and G. bravoana are the most closely related.

c)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. galloti palmae are the most closely related.

d)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. galloti galloti are the least closely related

133.

The graph shows the number of taxa of reptiles whose fossilized tracks have been found.

Which statement is best supported by these data?

a)

Competition for food and shelter among reptile species was very low during the Triassic period.

b)

A great extinction occurred during the Jurassic period.

c)

Environmental conditions for speciation were most favorable for reptiles during the Permian period.

d)

Reptiles adapted to a terrestrial environment during the Cretaceous period.

134.

The diagram shows light- and dark-colored beetles that live on a tree.

Which result is most likely to occur to the beetle population due to predation over time?

a)

The number of light-colored beetles in the population will increase.

b)

There will be more dark-colored beetles than light-colored beetles.

c)

The number of light-colored beetles will decrease.

d)

The dark-colored beetles will move to a different type of tree.

135.

The white cattail is a hybrid species of plant that is a result of the cross between the broad-leaved cattail and the narrow-leaved cattail. Over time, the white cattail has established itself in the wetlands of Midwestern states. Which of these explains the success of the white cattail?

a)

Favorable genes from parental generations provide advantageous characteristics to the hybrid species.

b)

Hybridization produces offspring traits that allow different species to survive in extreme environments.

c)

Inherited traits passed on from parental generations make hybrid species more susceptible to disease.

d)

Hybrid species display more adaptations due to their reduced genetic diversity.

136.

Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, which of the following best describes fitness?

a)

Being able to escape from predators

b)

Being among the strongest organisms in a population

c)

Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring

d)

Being able to survive long enough to reach the adult stage

137.

Common baboons live on the savanna in breeding groups called troops. While females tend to stay with the troop, younger or less dominant males may leave to join a neighboring troop. Which of these is a likely outcome of movement by young males?

a)

Gene flow occurs between populations.

b)

Allele frequencies suddenly change.

c)

Relative genotypic frequencies reach a constant state.

d)

Intermediate phenotypes increase in the species.

138.

The gray squirrel, Eastern fox squirrel, and red squirrel are all different species of squirrels. Why is having a scientific name for each species of an organism important?

a)

To prevent existing named organisms from having their names changed as they become extinct

b)

To keep the classification system from being altered as new organisms are discovered

c)

To allow organisms to be placed in many classification levels at the same time

d)

To standardize the naming and organization of organisms to avoid confusion

139.

Scientists around the world use a standardized taxonomic system. Why would scientists want to use a taxonomic system that is standardized?

a)

In order to avoid confusion with the identification of organisms

b)

Because Linnaeus established the system

c)

So that Latin names can be applied for a practical purpose

d)

In order to place organisms in different groups

140.

Scientists around the world use a standardized taxonomic system. Why would scientists want to use a taxonomic system that is standardized?

a)

In order to avoid confusion with the identification of organisms

b)

Because Linnaeus established the system

c)

So that Latin names can be applied for a practical purpose

d)

In order to place organisms in different groups

141.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

142.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

I

143.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

144.

Products (OUT) of photosynthesis

a)

H20 + CO2 + ATP

b)

H20 + CO2 + sunlight

c)

C6H12O6 + O2

d)

C6H12O6 + O2 + ATP

145.

Reactants (IN) of photosynthesis

a)

H20 + CO2 + ATP

b)

H20 + CO2 + sunlight

c)

C6H12O6 + O2

d)

C6H12O6 + O2 + ATP

146.

Reactants (IN) of Respiration

a)

H20 + CO2

b)

H20 + CO2 + sunlight

c)

C6H12O6 + O2

d)

C6H12O6 + O2 + ATP

147.

Products (OUT) of Respiration

a)

H20 + CO2 + ATP

b)

H20 + CO2 + sunlight

c)

C6H12O6 + O2

d)

C6H12O6 + O2 + ATP

148.
A concentration gradient is
a)
particles in an area from high to low concentration
b)
Particles in an area from low to high concentration
c)
osmosis
d)
concentrating to get good grades
149.
protein pumps move particles _____ a concentration gradient using ATP.
a)
with 
b)
along
c)
against
d)
away
150.
Moving particles AGAINST a concentration gradient requires 
a)
concentration
b)
passive transport
c)
active transport
d)
diffusion
151.
diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane
a)
concentration gradient
b)
active transport
c)
protein pumps
d)
osmosis
152.
Prokaryotic Cells are NOT
a)
single celled organisms
b)
bacteria
c)
ancient
d)
multicellular organisms
153.
Prokaryotic Cells are
a)
multi-cellular, no nucleus, sexual
b)
single celled, nucleus, sexual
c)
multi-cellular, nucleus, asexual
d)
single celled, no nucleus, asexual
154.
Eukaryotes are ARE NOT
a)
multicellular
b)
bacteria
c)
sexual
d)
found with a nucleus
155.
Eukaryotic Cells are
a)
bacteria
b)
protista, fungi, animals, plants
c)
without nucleus
d)
ancient
156.
What are the parts of the cell cycle?
a)
G1, G2, G3, M, S
b)
G1, G2, M, C, G3
c)
G1, S, G2, M, C
d)
G1, G2, S, C, G3
157.
Replication in the "S-phase"
a)
unzip, base pairing, new backbones formed
b)
unzip, new backbones formed, zip
c)
Transcription, RNA, splice, ribosome
d)
Transcription, DNA Splice, translation
158.
What enzyme unzips DNA during the S-phase (replication)
a)
DNA polymerase
b)
RNA polymerase
c)
Helicase
d)
Drop the base
159.
What phase(s)?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase, Cytokinesis
160.
What phase(s)?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase, Cytokinesis
161.
What phase(s)?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase, Cytokinesis
162.
What phase(s)?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase, Cytokinesis
163.
What biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
164.
What biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
165.
What biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
166.
What biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
167.
What biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
168.
What biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
169.
What biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
170.
What biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
171.
Quick Energy
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
172.
STORED ENERGY
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
173.
STRUCTURE, SHAPE
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
174.
GENETIC CODE
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
175.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
176.
DNA codes for...
a)
cholesterol
b)
proteins
c)
fatty acids
d)
a sandwich
177.
Which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
178.
Which of the following is the blueprint for the production of RNA within a cell?
a)
DNA
b)
protein
c)
ATO
d)
carbohydrate
179.
What molecules do both DNA and RNA contain?
a)
uracil
b)
nucleotides
c)
thymine
d)
deoxyribose
180.

DNA sequence is ACAGTG. How would this be transcribed to mRNA?

a)

TGTCAC

b)

UGUCAC

c)

GUGACA

d)

CACUGU

181.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents the CENTRAL DOGMA?
a)

DNA-protein-RNA

b)

Protein-RNA-DNA

c)

RNA-protein-DNA

d)

DNA-RNA-protein

182.
The diagram shows the process of
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Mitosis
183.
What nitrogen base is in DNA but NOT RNA?
a)
uracil
b)
thymine
c)
guanine
d)
adenine
184.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

185.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

186.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
187.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
188.

What is labeled at #3

a)

DNA

b)

chromosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Cell Membrane

189.
How many chromosomes do humans have?
a)
46
b)
21
c)
10
190.

Wind carrying pollen to a new, site is an example of

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Species Development

d)

Sexual Selection

191.

a small group of organisms is eliminated randomly from a population

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Speciation

d)

Mutation

192.
According to the endosymbiotic theory, bacterial cells ultimately became _______________ within eukaryotic cells
a)
Nuclei
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Ribosomes
193.
The kingdom _____________ contains yeasts and molds, whereas the kingdom ________ includes algae and protozoans
a)
Protista, fungi
b)
Protista, plantae
c)
Fungi, Protista
d)
Fungi, plantae
194.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotes?
a)

Single celled

b)

Contain circular DNA

c)

Reproduce by binary fission

d)

Contain membrane bound organelles

195.
According to Darwin’s theory of evolution, differences found among the finches of the various Galapagos islands are the result of
a)
Disuse of specific body parts
b)
Size of the island
c)
Movement of finches between islands
d)
Natural selection
196.
All of the following are statements that are in agreement with Darwin’s theory of natural selection EXCEPT
a)

More offspring are produced than can survive

b)

extinction occurs when organisms are more fit

c)

Organisms compete for resources

d)

There is variation within a population

197.
Relationships between organisms can be identified by studying similarities in
a)
Carbohydrates and lipids
b)
Water and salt retention
c)
Mercury levels
d)
DNA and proteins
198.
Which of the following is NOT a source of genetic variation?
a)

Crossing over

b)

Sexual reproduction

c)

Mutations 

d)

Homologous structures

199.
Heterotrophic, asexual or sexual reproduction, cell walls made of chitin
a)

a.  Archaebacterial

b)

a.  Protista

c)

a.  Plantae

d)

a.  Fungi

200.

According to the phylogenetic tree (cladogram), who is most closely related to primates? 

a)

Amphibians

b)

Rodents and rabbits

c)

Crocodiles

d)

Hair

201.

According to the phylogenetic tree (cladogram), what derived trait do all these organisms share?

a)

Bony skeleton

b)

Four limbs

c)

Vertebrae

d)

Amniotic egg

202.
According to the phylogenetic tree of life, bacteria are more closely related to eukaryotic organisms than archaea
a)

True

b)

False

203.
Which layers in the fossil record would have the common ancestor?
a)
Top layer
b)
Middle layer
c)
Same layer
d)
Bottom layer
204.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
205.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
206.

Any substance that is ACTED UPON by an Enzyme is called a(n)?

a)

Coenzyme

b)

Substrate

c)

Vitamin

d)

Polypeptide

207.

Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 

a)

15oC

b)

40oC

c)

30oC

d)

35oC

208.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)

product

b)

substrate

c)

enzyme-substrate complex

d)

active site

209.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
210.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
211.
moves water from the roots to the leaves
a)
stomata
b)
xylem
c)
phloem
d)
flower
212.

moves glucose from the leaves to the fruit and roots

a)

stomata

b)

xylem

c)

phloem

d)

flower

213.
allows oxygen and carbon dioxide to exchange
a)
stomata
b)
xylem
c)
phloem
d)
flower
214.
How does the growth of hardwood trees affect the organisms in an ecosystem?
a)
grasses become fewer because the trees take up the light
b)
Trees provide shelter for a variety of mammals, birds, insects, etc.
c)
In autumn, the falling leaves provide nutrients for decomposers
d)
All of the above
215.
Why does secondary succession have more species diversity than primary succession?
a)

There is NO species diversity.

b)

Secondary succession has more species diversity due to the lack of soil.

c)

Secondary succession has more species diversity due to the microorganisms that survived in the soil.

d)

Primary succession ALWAYS has more species diversity.

216.
Which of the following ecosystems has the MOST species diversity through the different stages of succession?
a)

A temperate forest that has never been cleared for logging.

b)

A football field that is mowed two times a week

c)

a farm field that has not been plowed in a year

d)

A newly formed volcanic island

217.
How do a increase in organic matter in soil and an increase in soil depth affect the population of plants in an area?
a)
Larger plants become the dominant species the deeper the soil
b)
mosses and pioneer species replace flowering plants and shrubs the deeper the soil.
c)
grasses become diseased
d)
Larger plants become the dominant species the less soil there is
218.
The amount of energy the producers in this energy pyramid provide is 123,000 Joules (100%). How much energy goes to the secondary consumers?
a)
123 J
b)
1,230 J
c)
12,300 J
d)
123,000 J
219.
Which organisms are both secondary and tertiary consumers in this food web?
a)
Ratfish and Octopuses
b)
Galatheid Crabs and Zoarchid Fish
c)
Zooplankton and Mussels
d)
Chemosynthetic Bacteria and Amphipods
220.
Which of these organisms is in a trophic level that receives a larger percentage of the energy captured by the producers than the percentage received at the bat's trophic level?
a)
Mountain lions
b)
Snakes
c)
Hawks
d)
Ground Squirrels
221.
What is lost to the environment at each of the trophic levels of this ecosystem?
a)
Nutrients from the soil
b)
Living space for the organisms
c)
Food Sources
d)
Heat
222.
Which one of the following would cause the greatest change to an ecosystem?
a)
Mowing the lawn at a city park
b)
Cleaning your car windows with an alcohol based cleaner
c)
Cutting down a small cedar tree to make holiday decorations
d)
Emptying an aquarium with non-native species into a local waterway
223.
Phytoplankton blooms cause deadzones in bodies of water. Sewage, fertilizers, and burning of fossil fuels increase the phytoplankton levels. Which of the following increases dead zone levels?
a)
rain runoff
b)
clean water plant
c)
farming without fertilizers
d)
Using windmills instead of coal burning factories
224.
Which two processes are identified by the labels X and Y?
a)
X: Respiration
Y: Predation
b)
X: Adaptation
Y: Decomposition
c)
X: Fermentation
Y: Nitrogen Fixation
d)
X: Decomposition
Y: Respiration
225.
What is BIODIVERSITY?
a)

many different species living in an area

b)

few species living in an area

c)

Many organisms of the same species in many areas

d)

Few organisms of the same species in many areas

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